radiology Flashcards

1
Q

how do most common pathologies appear radiographically?

A

radiolucent

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2
Q

why are most pathologies radiolucent

A

resorption of bone
decreased mineralisation of bone
decreased thickness of bone

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3
Q

what is a cyst

A

a pathological cavity having fluid, semi-fluid or gaseous contetns & which is not created by the accumulation of pus

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4
Q

what is the most common pathological radiolucency

A

jaw cysts

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5
Q

what are the 2 types of odontogenic cysts

A

developmental
inflammatory

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6
Q

name 3 developemental odontogenic cysts

A

dentigerous
keratocyst
lateral periodontal

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7
Q

name 2 inflammatory odontogenic cysts

A

radicular
inflammatory collateral

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8
Q

name 2 inflammatory collateral cysts

A

paradental
buccal bifurcation

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9
Q

name 2 non-odontogenic bone cysts

A

solitary
aneurysmal

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10
Q

what is the first step in differential diagnosis of any lesion?

A

is it:
anatomical
artefactual
pathological

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11
Q

how are radiolucencies described

A

site
size
shape
margins
internal structure
effect on adjacent anatomy
number

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12
Q

how is site describes?

A

where is it? - alveolar bone, basal bone etc
is there a notable relationship with another structure?
what is its position relative to particular structures?

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13
Q

if a lesion if below the inferior alveolar canal is it likely to be odontogenic?

A

no

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14
Q

if a lesion is entirely above the maxillary sinus floor is it likely to be odontogenic

A

no

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15
Q

how is size measured and desribed

A

dimensions - mesio-distally and supero-inferiorly
boundaries - which teeth etc

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16
Q

how can more accurate size of lesion be determined

A

CBCT

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17
Q

how are margins of lesions described

A

well-defined & corticated or non-corticated
poorly defined and blending into adjacent normal anatomy or ragged or moth eaten

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18
Q

what does a corticated lesion indicate

A

benign

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19
Q

what does a moth eaten lesion indicate

A

malignancy

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20
Q

how is internal structure of lesions described

A

entirely radiolucent
radiolucent with some internal radiopacity
radiopaque

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21
Q

how do you desribe internal radiopacities

A

amount - scant, multiple, dispersed
bony septae - thin/coarse, prominent/faint, straight/curved
particular structure - enamel and dentine radiodensity

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22
Q

give 8 potential causes of periapical radiolucency

A

periapical granuloma
periapical abscess
radicular cyst
perio-endo lesion
cemento-osseous dysplasia
surgical defect
fibrous healing defect
ameloblastoma

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23
Q

name 8 cysts and pathologies causing cyst-like radiolucencies

A

radicular cyst
dentigerous cyst
inflammatory collateral cyst
odontogenic keratocyst
ameloblastoma
nasopalatine duct cyst
solitary bone cyst
stafne cavity

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24
Q

what is the most common pathological radiolucency in jaw bones

A

radicular cyst

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25
Q

what is a radicular cyst ALWAYS associated with

A

non-vital tooth

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26
Q

describe the formation of radicular cyst

A

pulpal necrosis - periapical periodontitis - periapical granuloma - radiculuar cyst

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27
Q

when would cysts be painful

A

when they becoome infected

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28
Q

what is the difference between radicular cysts and periapical granulomas

A

radicular cysts bigger
>15mm 66% radicular

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29
Q

what is a residual cyst

A

when radicular cyst persists after loss of tooth (or after tooth is successfully RCTd)

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30
Q

what is a lateral radicular cyst

A

radicular cyst associated with an accessory canal

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31
Q

what causes dentigerous cysts

A

cystic change of dental follicle

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32
Q

what teeth are most associated with dentigerous cysts

A

lower 8s, upper 3s

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33
Q

when are dentigerous cysts most common (age)

A

2nd-4th decade

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34
Q

when would you consider dentigerous cysts rather than enlarged follicle

A

consider if follicular space is >5mm
assume cyst if >10mm or asymmetrical

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35
Q

what are inflammatory collateral cysts associated with

A

vital teeth

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36
Q

where do buccal bifurcation cysts occur

A

buccal aspect of lower 6s

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37
Q

where do paradental cysts occur

A

distal aspect of partially erupted lower 8s

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38
Q

what is basal cell naevus syndrome

A

multiple odontogenic keratocysts
multiple basal cell carcinomas

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39
Q

what is basal cell naevus also known as

A

gorlin-goltz syndrome

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40
Q

what is ameloblastoma

A

benign epithelial odontogenic tumour

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41
Q

what are most ameloblasotmas radiographically

A

multicystic - 85-90%

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42
Q

what are the 3 main histological types of ameloblastoma

A

follicular
plexiform
desmoplastic

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43
Q

what is odontogenic myxoma

A

benign mesenchymal odontogenic tumour

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44
Q

do odontogenic myxoma have high recurrence rate?

A

yea

45
Q

how do odontogenic myxomas present radiographically

A

premolar/molar region mandible
multilocular and scalloped
soap bubble appearance

46
Q

where do nasopalatine duct cysts arise from

A

nasopalatine duct epithelial remnants

47
Q

what would a pt notice with nasopalatine duct cyst

A

salty taste

48
Q

whats another name for nasopalatine duct cyts

A

incisive canal cyst

49
Q

where are nasopalatine duct cysts always founf

A

anterior maxilla in midline

50
Q

how are nasopalatine duct cysts usually descirbed from radiographs

A

unilocular, rounded and symmetrical

51
Q

what are 3 types of solitary bone cyst

A

simple
traumatic
haemorrhagc

52
Q

where are solitary bone cysts normally found

A

posterior mandible

53
Q

what is a stafne cavity

A

depression in the bone - cortical bone preserved

54
Q

what does a stafne defect contain

A

salivary or fatty tissue

55
Q

where are stafne defect normally found

A

mandible - often body but can be ramus

56
Q

what is the radiographic appearance of stafne defects

A

unilocular
rounded
well defined and corticated

57
Q

what can happen radiographically to infceted cysts

A

can lose their well-defined, corticated margins
can mimic maliganancy

58
Q

what are clinical features of secondary infection

A

pain
soft-tissue swelling/redness/hotness
purulent exudate

59
Q

what are clinical signs and symptoms for malignancy in oral cavity

A

non healing socket
non healing ulcer
unusually mobile tooth
swelling/exophytic mass
lymphadenopathy
pain/numbness

60
Q

what are non clincial signs of malignancy

A

weight loss
night sweats
problems moving tongue
dysphagia
dysphonia
loss of hearing
pathological fractuer

61
Q

what are radiographic signs of malignancy

A

moth eaten bone
non healing sockets
floating teeth
unusual perio bone loss

62
Q

is a slow growing lesion more likely to be malignant or benign

A

benign

63
Q

what may lack of cortification represent?

A

healing lesion
superimposed infection

64
Q

what is a bad prognostic sign radiographically?

A

moth eaten radiolucent bone with no margin

65
Q

what is the difference between benign and malignant effects on other structures

A

benign - displace structures
malignant - destroy structures

66
Q

What effect do malignancies have on teeth?

A

Spiking root resorption
Widening of PDL space
Generalised loss of lamina dura

67
Q

What are risk factors for osteosarcoma?

A

FD
Retinoblastoma
Previous radiation
Previous primary bone cancer
Paget’s disease
Chronic osteomyelitis

68
Q

What is multiple myeloma

A

Multi focal proliferation of plasma cells in bone marrow leading to over-production of immunoglobulins

69
Q

What would a solitary multiple myeloma lesion be called

A

Plasmocytoma

70
Q

What are radiographic features of multiple myeloma

A

Round/unilocular
Radiolucency
Punched out
Well-defined, not corticated
Pathological # if large

71
Q

How can lymphoma present

A

Soft tissue lump

72
Q

What is langerhans histocytosis

A

Proliferation of langerhans cells and eosinophilic leukocytes

73
Q

What are the 3 manifestations of langerhans histocytosis

A

Eosinophilic granuloma
Hand-Schuller-Christian disease (mulitfocal eosiniophilic granulomas
Letterer-siwe disease

74
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of langerhans histocytosis

A

Unilocular
Radiolucent
Punched out
Smooth outline
Floating teeth
No expansion

75
Q

What cancers metastasis to bone

A

Lung
Prostate
Breast
Kidney
Thyroid

76
Q

What are 3 differential dx fro malignancy when there’s moth eaten bone

A

Osteomyelitis
Osteoradionecrosis
MRONJ

77
Q

Name 5 types of imaging for TMJ

A

Plain film
CBCT
Computed tomography (CT)
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Nuclear medicine

78
Q

Name 4 plain film ways to image TMJ

A

Panoramic radiography
PA mandible
Reverse Townes
Lateral Oblique

79
Q

When would DPT be indicated for TMJ assessment

A

Recent trauma
Change in occlusion
Mandibular shift
Sensory/motor alterations
Change in range of movement

80
Q

What is CBCT best used for

A

Degenerative bone disease

81
Q

What can CT visualise

A

Soft tissue and bone

82
Q

How is TMJ disc assessed with MRI

A

Open and closed views
Check 2 separate views for position of disc (coronal and parasagittal view along long axis of condyle)

83
Q

What is nuclear medicine name

A

SPECT - single photon emission CT

84
Q

What is used in SPECT

A

Injection of IV technetium 99-meta stable (radio-isotope)

85
Q

What is SPECT used for

A

Condylar hyperplasia

86
Q

What do we imagine salivary glands for

A

Obstruction
Dry mouth
Swelling

87
Q

Name 3 salivary gland obstructions

A

Mucous plugs
Salivary stones
Neoplasia

88
Q

What imaging modalities can be used for salivary glands

A

Plain film
Ultrasound
Sialography (injection of iodinated contrast)
MRI
Nuclear medicine

89
Q

What plain films can be used for salivary glands

A

Lower true occlusal
OPT
Lateral oblique

90
Q

Why are true laterals and PA mandibles not used for salivary glands

A

Superimposition of anatomical structures

91
Q

What other calcifications could be mistaken for sialoliths

A

Tonsilloliths (tonsil stones)
Phleboliths
Calcified plaques (atheromas) in carotid artery
Normal anatomy (hyoid)
Elongated/calcified stylohyoid ligament
Calcified lymph nodes

92
Q

What is ultrasound

A

No ionising radiation
High frequency sound waves - cannot be heard audibly
Sound waves have short wave length which are not transmittable through air

93
Q

How does ultrasound work

A

Sound waves enter body and reflect back to transducer when boundaries between different tissues are met e.grounders betweeen muscles and Salivary gland

94
Q

What does hypoechoic mean

A

Dark

95
Q

What is hyperechoic

A

Bright

96
Q

Why is ultrasound good for salivary glands

A

Glands are superficially positioned
Can assess parenchymal pattern, vascularity, ductal dilatation or neoplastic masses
Can give a sialogogue to aid saliva flow to allow better visualisation of dialated ducts

97
Q

What are the symptoms of obstructive disease

A

Prandial pain and swelling
Bad taste
Thick saliva
Dry mouth

98
Q

What % of sialoliths are submandibular

A

80%

99
Q

What is sialography

A

Injection of iodinated radiographic contrast into salivary duct to look for obstruction
Done worth either DPT, rotated PA mandible + lateral oblique, or Fluoroscopic approach

100
Q

How many ml contrast is injected for sialography

A

0.8-1.5ml

101
Q

What are the indications for sialography

A

Looking for obstruction or stricture of salivary ducts which could be leading to prandial symptoms
Planning for access for interventional procedures (basket retrieval, ballon dilation)

102
Q

What are the risks of sialography

A

Discomfort
Swelling
Infection
Any stone could move
Allergy to contrast

103
Q

What are the 3 phases of sialography

A

Pre-contrast
Contrast/filling phase
Emptying phase

104
Q

What is the pre-contrast phase used for in sialography

A

Excuse other pathology which could account for symptoms e.g. odontogenic pathology
Use as a base line

105
Q

What are the normal findings in sialography

A

Parotid - tree in winter
Submandibular - bush in winter
Acinar changes - snow storm appearance

106
Q

When should images be taken for sialography

A

Contrast phase with cannula in place
Emptying phase with time delay

107
Q

What is used as an alternative to sialography if the patient has an iodine allergy

A

MRI sialography
Heavy T2W scan - gets rid of all tissues apart from fluid.

108
Q

What are the 4 selection criteria for stone removal

A
  1. stone must be mobile
  2. stone should be located within the lumen on main duct distal to posterior border of mylohyoid (SMG)
  3. Stone should be distal to hilum or at anterior border of the gland (parotid)
  4. Duct should be patent and wide to allow passage of the stone