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rapid review > Maternal and child health > Flashcards

Maternal and child health Flashcards

1
Q

Liver - most likely cancerous abdominal mass in children Ddx?

A

Hepatoblastoma

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2
Q

Adrenal - most likely cancerous abdominal mass in children Ddx?

A

Neuroblastoma

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3
Q

Bowel/lymphatic system - most likely cancerous abdominal mass in children Ddx?

A

Lymphoma

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4
Q

Spleen - most likely cancerous abdominal mass in children Ddx?

A

Lymphoma/leukaemia

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5
Q

Renal - most likely cancerous abdominal mass in children Ddx?

A

<6m = mesoblastic nephroma
- Wilms tumour

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6
Q

reproductive system - most likely cancerous abdominal mass in children Ddx?

A

Germ cell tumour

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7
Q

CD20 - cellular marker?

A

B cells

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8
Q

CD10 cellular marker?

A

Lymphoid progenitor from the germinal centre

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9
Q

Tdt - cellular marker?

A

Lymphoblast marker (positive in acute lymphoblastic lymphomas, negative in mature lymphomas and leukemias)

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10
Q

CD3 and CD5 - cellular marker?

A

T cell markers

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11
Q

Chain restriction - cellular marker?

A

Clonal growth

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12
Q

Wilms tumour - macroscopic?

A

On gross inspection, well-circumscribed or macrolobulated tumour. Commonly shows haemorrhage and central necrosis.

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13
Q

Wilms tumour - microscopic?

A

Small Round Blue Cells
blastemal, epithelial and stromal elements (triphasic) in variable amounts

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14
Q
A

Wilms tumour (Nephroblastoma)

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15
Q

Diffuse Anapaestic nephroblastoma?

A

Criteria:
- 3x increase in nuclear diameter
- Hyperchromatic nuclei
- Multipolar mitotic figures

Chemotherapy resistant
Rare in younger children

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16
Q

Neuroblastoma - investigations?

A

Raised urinary catecholamines (HVA creatinine ratio and VMA creatinine ratio)
MIBG scan - specific fro neurogenic neuroblastoma

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17
Q
A

Small Round Blue Cells infiltrating liver tissue
Neuroblastoma

Homer-wright rosettes may be seen

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18
Q

gene amplification neuroblastoma?

A

N-MYC amplification on FISH - highly aggressive subtype

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19
Q

Stain for Neuroblastoma?

A

Positive stain with synaptophysin (neuroendocrine marker)

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20
Q

Mutation in wilms tumour?

A
  • WT1 mutation
  • P53 mutation
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21
Q

Wilms tumour - associated syndromes?

A
  • WAGR syndrome (Sporadic)
  • Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome (Imprinting disorder)
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22
Q

WAGR syndrome features?

A
  • Wilms tumour
  • Aniridia (Absent irises)
  • Genital abnormality
  • Retardation
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23
Q

Beck-Wiedermann syndrome features?

A
  • Macrosomia
  • Macroglossia
  • omphalocele
  • Hepatoblastoma
  • Wilms
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24
Q

Medulloblastoma histology?
IHC?

A
  • Synaptophysin
  • NeuN+
  • Homer-wright rosettes
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25
Q

Ewings sarcoma IHC?

A
  • CD99+
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26
Q

Genetics of Ewings sarcoma?

A

t(11;22)

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27
Q

The small round blue cell tumours?

A
  • WIlms tumour
  • Neuroblastoma
  • Medulloblastoma
  • Ewings sarcoma
  • Rhabdomyosarcoma
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28
Q

Approach to failure to thrive?

A
  • Impaired intake
  • increased energy demand
  • Impaired utilisation
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29
Q

Pathophysiology of hirschsprungs disease?

A

parasympathetic neuroblasts fail to migrate from the neural crest to the distal colon → developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses → uncoordinated peristalsis → functional obstruction

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30
Q

Hirschsprung disease: Macroscopic Pathology

A

Aganglionic segment narrow with dilated proximal ganglionic bowel and funnel shaped transition near interface

31
Q

Importance of identifying transition zone in Hirschprungs disease?

A

Patients with anastomosis in transition zone → worse outcomes in suffering with ongoing constipation
Patients with anastomosis in fully ganglionic bowel → better outcomes

32
Q

Hirschsprung disease - ancillary histology?

A

Calretinin immunohistochemistry → negative staining → aganglionic segment
Acetylcholinesterase histochemistry (AChE) → positive staining → increased cholinergic innervation in lamina propria and muscularis mucosa

33
Q
A

Hirschsprung disease

Classic histological features of transition zone:
Submucosal nerve hypertrophy
Tightly applied muscle layers in outer muscularis propria (normally small gap present)

34
Q

diseases tested for on the heel prick test?

A

Sickle cell disease
Cystic fibrosis
Congenital hypothyroidism

Inherited metabolic disorders (6)
Phenylketonuria
Medium chain acyl-CoA-dehydrogenase deficiency (MCAD deficiency)
Homocystinuria
Maple syrup urine disease
Glutaric aciduria type 1
Isovaleric acidaemia

35
Q

Cystic fibrosis pathophysiology?

A

Inherited disorder of ion transport
Affects fluid secretion in exocrine glands and epithelial lining of respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive tracts
defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which codes a cAMP-regulated chloride channel

36
Q

Cystic fibrosis genetics?

A
  • Autosomal recessive inheritance
  • Defect in CFTR gene which codes for the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator protein → this is a cAMP-regulated chloride channel
  • Most common mutation → ΔF508 → classic severe CF
37
Q

Cystic fibrosis lung complications?

A

Recurrent infections
May get colonised w Staph aureus / Pseudomonas aeruginosa / Burkholderia cepacia / Aspergillus

Bronchiectasis

Lung abscesses

38
Q

Lung pathophysiology in CF?

A

Viscid mucus → Obstruction → Infection → Distended bronchi → Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of mucin-secreting cells → Recurrent infections → Dilatation and airway damage

39
Q

Pancreas involvement CF?

A

Impaired fat absorption
Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins (ADEK)

40
Q

Pathophysiology of pancreas in CF?

A

Plugging of ducts → Atrophy of exocrine glands → Progressive fibrosis

41
Q

Liver involvement CF? + Pathophysiology

A

Prolonged jaundice in neonate

Bile canaliculi plugged → portal inflammation
Steatosis
Focal biliary cirrhosis → diffuse nodularity

42
Q

Gut involvement in CF?

A

Meconium ileus +/- distal intestinal collapse
Failure to thrive

43
Q

What are the features of chronic granulomatous disease?

A
  • Recurrent, severe infections with catalase-positive organisms (S. aureus, Nocardia spp.)
  • Granulomas of skin and GI / GU tract
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • FTT
44
Q

Histology of chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Granulomas with central necrosis in lymph nodes and other organs
Pigment laden histiocytes

45
Q

karyotype of turners?

A

XO

XO/XY mosaicism exists in phenotypic males (10-12% of Turner’s)

46
Q

Downs syndrome - genetics?

A

Trisomy 21
Methods:
Meiotic non-disjunction (94%)
Robertsonian translocation (5%)
Mosaicism (1%)

47
Q

What is Robertsonian translocation?

A

Can only happen between acrocentric chromosomes (13, 14, 15, 21, 22)
Most common translocation in Down’s is 21 with 14 or 15
Important to identify translocation as causative aetiology of Down’s as this impacts parental counselling on risk of recurrence (parental chromosomal analysis recommended)

48
Q

Risks associated with robertsonian translocation and Downs?

A

15% risk if mother is the translocation carrier
2.5% risk if father is the translocation carrier (lower in males due to selective disadvantage of sperm with an extra copy of chromosome 21)

49
Q

Patau’s syndrome genetics?

A
  • Trisomy 13
  • Robertsonian translocation
50
Q

Edward’s syndrome genetics?

A

Trisomy 18

51
Q

TORCH infections?

A

TOxoplasma gondii, Rubella, CMV, HSV

52
Q

Most common cause of viral hydrops?

A

Parvovirus B19→ followed by CMV

53
Q

CMV in pregnancy fetal effects?

A

USS: periventicular calcifications, hyperechogenic foci, hydrops fetalis

54
Q

CMV in pregnancy - newborn effects?

A

microcephaly, hydrocephalus, SNHL, chorioretinitis

55
Q

Diagnosis of CMV in pregnancy?

A

Amniocentesis to detect CMV DNA in amniotic fluid by PCR confirms infection.
Test>6 weeks after maternal infection and >21 weeks gestation.

56
Q

Histology of CMV infection in pregnancy ?

A
  • Intranuclear inclusion bodies (owl-eye appearance)
  • Placenta → plasma cell villitis
57
Q

Parvovirus B19 fetal effects?

A

Virus suppresses fetal erythropoiesis → anaemia → high output HF. Higher risk of adverse fetal outcome in gestation <20 weeks (10% fetal death).

58
Q

Diagnosis of Parvovirus B19 infection in pregnancy?

A
  • Positive maternal IgM
  • USS: anaemia seen as increased flow in fetal MCA & then fetal hydrops
  • Amniocentesis → parvovirus PCR
59
Q

Histology of parvovirus B19 infection in pregnancy?

A
  • Inclusions in nucleated RBCs
  • Placenta → pale, oedematous, enlarged villi, increased nucleated RBCs
60
Q

Toxoplasmosa gondii - epidemiology?

A
  • Protozoan parasite
  • Cat faeces, raw / undercooked infected meat
61
Q

Fetal effects of toxoplasmosis gondii infection in pregnancy?

A

Earlier infection → more severe sequelae
- Classic triad: hydrocephalus, diffuse intracranial calcifications, chorioretinitis

62
Q

Diagnosis of toxoplasma gondii infection in pregnancy?

A
  • Amniocentesis → PCR for T. gondii DNA
63
Q

Diagnosis of toxoplasma gondii infection in pregnancy?

A
  • Amniocentesis → PCR for T. gondii DNA
64
Q

Histology of toxoplasmosis gondii infection in pregnancy?

A
  • Tachyzoites in placenta and myocardium
  • Placenta → lymphocytic villitis
65
Q
A

plasma cell villitis
Indicative of CMV infection

66
Q
A

Classic parvovirus inclusion: chromatin pushed to edges, smeared appearance of centre

67
Q
A

Inclusion of Toxoplasma is in cytoplasm of cell rather than nucleus

68
Q

Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy?

A

Check maternal serum for VZV antibodies
If no antibodies & ≤ 20 weeks gestation, give VZIG (effective up to 10 days post-exposure)
If no antibodies & >20 weeks gestation, give aciclovir prophylaxis (at day 7-14 post-exposure)

69
Q

Haemolytic disease of fetus and newborn - what is it?

A

Caused by red cell alloimmunisation = development of an immune response to a foreign antigen following exposure

70
Q

Pathophysiology of HDFN?

A
  • Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive fetus: fetomaternal haemorrhage → production of maternal IgM antibodies against Rh antigen → over time, seroconversion to IgG (which can cross the placenta)
  • Subsequent pregnancy with Rh-positive fetus: rapid production of maternal IgG anti-D antibodies to fetal antigens → Rh-IgG agglutination of fetal RBCs → haemolytic anaemia
  • Anaemia reduces oxygen delivery to tissue & stimulates EPO production
71
Q

Affects in Utero of HDFN?

A

High output cardiac failure → fluid overload
Extramedullary haematopoeisis → distorts anatomy
Hypoxia → modulates gene expression

72
Q

Affects in newborn of HDFN?

A

Life-threatening anaemia
Neuropathology caused by severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (kernicterus)
Hepatosplenomegaly

73
Q

Kleihauer test - why is it done?

A

to assess the number of fetal cells in the maternal circulation within 2 hours of birth to detect occasional larger fetomaternal haemorrhages that require larger doses of anti-D to ‘mop up’

in modern laboratory, this has been superseded by immunophenotyping with flow cytometry

74
Q

Prevention of HDFN

A
  • Routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks
  • Additional dose of anti-D immunoglobulin at potentially sensitising events (within 72 hours)
  • Upon delivery, babies should have a cord sample for ABO and Rh typing → if baby is RhD positive, mother receives additional anti-D immunoglobulin

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