PTS Phase 1 SBA questions 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of protein structure would zinc fingers, helix-turn-helix and beta-alpha-beta be classed as?

A

Super-secondary

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2
Q

A pathologist was analysing some samples. She used a histological stain on brush borders and hexose sugars which produced a magenta colour. Which stain did she use?

A

Periodic acid schiff
It stains brush borders and hexose sugars dark pink (magenta).

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3
Q

You order a blood test for a patient, whom you suspect may have a parasitic infection. Which type of blood cell is typically elevated in parasitic infections?

A

Eosinophil

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4
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with hypertension. Blood tests show that atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) levels are elevated. Which of the following has a similar function to ANP?

A

Adrenaline acting on α2 receptor

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5
Q

Fragments of the respiratory tract constitute the anatomic dead space. It’s a part of physiological dead space- an area where gas exchange does not occur. Which part of the anatomic dead space has got the largest area?

A

Trachea

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6
Q

Airway smooth muscle constriction is stimulated by Ach release acting on which type of receptors?

A

M3 subtype of muscarinic receptors

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7
Q

A patient with a history of Sjogren’s syndrome comes to your clinic. A key aspect of Sjogren’s syndrome is lack of saliva. Which of the following is NOT a component of saliva?

A

Protease and peptidase

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8
Q

Which enzyme hydrolyses triglycerides?
Hepatic lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
Triglyceride lipase
Aminotransferase
Gamma-glutamyl transferase

A

Lipoprotein lipase

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9
Q

The pancreas is formed from a fusion of a ventral and dorsal bud. Which areas of the pancreas does the ventral pancreatic bud form?

A

Uncinate process, main pancreatic duct and pancreatic head

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10
Q

What initiates the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion?

A

Seeing food

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11
Q

Within a distribution of data, if the median is greater than the mean of the data, what is the data described as?

A

Negatively skewed

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12
Q

Which of the structures below function as interneurons that are stimulated by alpha motor neurons and through a feedback system can also be inhibited by alpha motor neurons causing autoinhibition
Weibel-Palade bodies
Renshaw Cells
Delta cells
Oligodendrocytes

A

Renshaw Cells

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13
Q

A 20 year old boy presents to his GP with loss of taste and any sensation at the back of his tongue. Which cranial nerve innervates the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

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14
Q

The urogenital organs are developed from which layer of the germ cells?

A

Intermediate mesoderm

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15
Q

What level does the renal artery come off the abdominal aorta?

A

L2

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16
Q

Where does the oesophagus pass through the abdomen

A

T10

17
Q

Where does the aorta pass through the abdomen

A

T12

18
Q

What is the level at which the superior mesenteric artery branches off the aorta

A

L1

19
Q

What is the level at which the inferior mesenteric artery branches off the aorta

A

L3

20
Q

A common genital tubercle forms at 8 weeks in development, which has lateral urethral folds and labioscrotal swellings. Which of the following do the urethral folds develop into?

A

Labia minora

21
Q

The urogenital triangle is the anterior half of the perineum and is made of a number of fascial layers and pouches. Which of the following is part of the superficial perineal pouch?

A

Ischiocavernosus muscle

22
Q

A 31-year-old female has a baby following prolonged labour, which resulted in a vesicovaginal fistula. During labour, the foetus obstructed blood supply and caused local tissue necrosis and abnormal communication with the bladder. Which vessel is most likely to have been affected?

A

Uterine artery

23
Q

Which cells in the kidney tubule are responsible for controlling acid-base balance?

A

Intercalated cells

24
Q

A dermatome is an area of skin supplied by a spinal nerve. What dermatome is responsible for the suprapubic region?

A

L1

25
Q

What is the dermatome for the nipple

A

T4

26
Q

What is the dermatome for the umbilicus

A

T10

27
Q

What is the dermatome for the inguinal region

A

L2

28
Q

What has no dermatone

A

C1

29
Q

Which of the following hormones has no effect on the kidney?
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
Erythropoietin
Parathyroid Hormone
Vasopressin
Aldosterone

A

Erythropoietin

30
Q

Which of these statements regarding ion transport in the kidney tubules is false?

The function of the proximal convoluted tubule is bulk reabsorption of ions, particularly HCO3- and glucose
The collecting duct is responsible for fine control of water balance under the influence of ADH
The Loop of Henle is a countercurrent multiplication system which creates a hyperosmotic interstitium
AQP2 is expressed on the apical membrane collecting duct cells and AQP3 and AQP4 is present on the basolateral membrane
The NKCC2 cotransporter pumps Na+ and K+ into the cell and 2 Cl- ions into the tubule lumen

A

The NKCC2 cotransporter pumps Na+ and K+ into the cell and 2 Cl- ions into the tubule lumen

31
Q

Which of the statements below regarding renal embryology is false?

The pronephros develops first followed by the mesonephros and then the metanephros
The kidney becomes functional in the 12th week of development
In females the mesonephric (Wolffian ducts) ducts degenerate
The kidney develops high in the abdomen and descends upon development
The bladder develops from the urogenital sinus

A

The kidney develops high in the abdomen and descends upon development

32
Q

A Phase 3a student is on their GP placement and required to give an intramuscular injection to a patient in their buttock. However, they give the injection in the wrong section of the buttock. The patient subsequently complains of an inability to flex the knee. What nerve has been affected?

A

Sciatic nerve

33
Q

During a hip examination, a 70-year-old male is found to have a positive Trendelenburg’s sign. When he stands on only his left leg, his right pelvis drops. Which muscles are affected?

A

Left gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

34
Q

Stress is defined as a non-specific response of the body to any demand for change. Which of the following describes the correct sequence of the phases of stress response?

A

Alarm, adaptation, exhaustion

35
Q

Omalizumab, a biologic drug for treating asthma, costs £200,000 with a quality adjusted life score (QALY) of 7. It therefore has an incremental cost effectiveness ratio (ICER) of £28,500 per QALY. What type of economic evaluation does this describe?

A

Cost-utility analysis

36
Q

The current first line chemotherapy treatment for malignant melanoma costs £10,000 per patient per annum, with an overage of 5 quality adjusted life years (QALYs) of benefit. A new chemotherapy drug which has been put forward to NICE costs £25,000 per patient per annum, with an average of 6 QALYs of benefit. What would be the incremental cost effectiveness ratio (ICER) for the new chemotherapy drug?

A

£15,000 per QALY gained