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Interior Design Board Review > Professional Practice & Ethics > Flashcards

Professional Practice & Ethics Flashcards

1
Q

Permits a more realistic analysis of the daily problems that end to delayed work; details in normal sequence the various steps to be taken by each trade, from commencement to conclusion.

A

Critical path method

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2
Q

It the action or process wherein the client hires an Interior Designer or an Interior Design firm to coordinate the whole range of Comprehensive Interior Design Services to oversee the project from conception to completion.

A

Consultation

(CDEP: ETHICS MOCK 2023)

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3
Q

The implementation of Universal Design involves the following seven principles:

A
  1. Equitable Use
  2. Flexibility in Use
  3. Simple and Intuitive Use
  4. Perceptible Information
  5. Tolerance for Error
  6. Low Physical Effort
  7. Size and Space for Approach and Use
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4
Q

Contracts entered in a lucid interval or temporary period of insanity are __.

A

Valid

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5
Q

It will show the appropriate size and type of furnishings and critical or required clearances. It will serve as the basis for a fully integrated project design as well as the basis for the Furniture, Furnishings & Equipment (FF&E) package.

A

Furniture foot print plan

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6
Q

Changing the function of a building onto something not intended for the original structure.

A

Adaptive reuse

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7
Q

Refers to a signed offer or proposal to undertake a contract submitted by a bidder in response to and in consonance with the requirements of the Bidding Documents.

A

Bid or tender

also a written offer of the bidder submitted in the prescribed form in response to the Invitation to bid and tender documents issued by the client.

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8
Q

A property of design describing elements of the physical environment that allow people with disabilities or special needs to use them with safety and dignity.

A

Accessibility

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9
Q

Lighting designed to provide a nondirectional, shadowless light level from all sides.

A

Ambient lighting

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10
Q

Term used in commercial design for office furnishings purchased under contract.

A

Furniture, furnishings, and equipment (FF&E)

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11
Q

A holistic approach to building design that reduces negative social, economic, and ecological impacts on the environment through conservation and reuse of natural resources, energy, water, and materials.

A

Sustainable Design

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12
Q

These are contractors who specialize in a particular aspect of construction or installation, such as electrical work, plumbing, or painting. They have specific skills and knowledge in their field of expertise and are hired to complete a specific task or project.

A

Specialty Contractors

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13
Q

These are self-employed workers who provide a specific service related to interior design or construction, such as painting, carpentry, or electrical work. They work on their own or with a small team and are hired for their specialized skills in a specific area.

A

Individual Contractors

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14
Q

These are contractors who provide products or materials to be used in construction or interior design projects. They do not install or provide any service related to the product they supply, but only provide the product or material itself.

A

Allied Suppliers

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15
Q

The remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made to conform the real intention of the parties when some error has been committed.

A

Reformation of Documents

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16
Q

Provide a detailed description of the materials and workmanship required for a construction project. They provide specific details about the materials and products that must be used, including brand names, model numbers, and other identifying information. They are often used for complex projects where specific materials or products are required to meet the project’s technical requirements.

A

Descriptive specifications

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17
Q

Provide a general description of the materials and workmanship required for a construction project. They do not provide specific details about the materials or products that must be used, but instead provide a general idea of the requirements.

A

Outline specifications

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18
Q

It is a type of specification that specifies the use of a specific product or process without allowing any substitutions. It provides a clear description of the product or process that must be used in a construction project, and no other product or process can be used as a substitute.

A

Closed Specification

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19
Q

Allow for substitutions of materials or products that meet certain minimum requirements. They provide a list of requirements that must be met by any substitute product or material, but allow for some flexibility in the selection of materials.

A

Open specifications

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20
Q

It is an approved form of security provided by the contract as a guarantee of good faith on the part of the contractor.

A

Payment Bond

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21
Q

It is an approved form of security, but it is furnished by the contractor rather than the contract itself. Its purpose is to guarantee the contractor’s good faith in executing the work in accordance with the contract documents.

A

Performance Bond

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22
Q

A remedy granted by law in order to secure reparation (compensation) of damage caused by a contract.

A

Rescission

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23
Q

Parties agree on basic price which both of them believe is reasonably the amount that will be spent for labor and materials.

A

Cost-plus a certain percentage
with variable increase or
decrease as bonus or deduction

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24
Q

The individual or firm whose bid has been accepted by the Client.

A

Contractor

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25
Q

Compensation of the designer-contractor is not fixed and exact amount cannot be determined yet.

A

Cost-plus a certain percentage

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26
Q

Neither the employer nor the designer-contractor knows how much the job will cost until after the completion. The designer or contractor undertakes to do the job with the employer paying for both labor and materials. A fixed amount representing the fees for service rendered is agreed upon beforehand.

A

Cost-plus a fixed amount

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27
Q

Designer-contractor agrees to furnish the labor, the materials and deliver the job completely on the date agreed upon. Obligation of employer is to pay the contract price upon finishing the job.

A

Lump Sum Contract

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28
Q

The contractor cannot claim any compensation if the work should be destroyed before its delivery unless the destruction is caused by poor quality of materials.

A

Owner-Supplied Materials (OSM)

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29
Q

Engineer or Architect is liable for damages within _ years from the completion of the structure.

A

15

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30
Q

The contractor delivers the things produced to the employer and transfer dominion over the thing. The work should be of such quality agreed upon. The contractor is liable for any defect in the work.

A

Contractor-Supplied Materials (CSM)

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31
Q

A material or substance which, when left exposed to nature, will decompose without harmful effects to the environment.

A

Biodegradable

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32
Q

Fire-resistive rating of type two and type three construction

A

One hour fire resistance rating

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33
Q

Fire-resistive rating of type four and type five construction

A

4-hr fire resistive rating

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34
Q

Normal working arm range reach of person sitting at desk.

A

900mm

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35
Q

Maximum normal working arm range reach of person sitting at desk.

A

Max normal: 1400mm

(normal 900; bending range1900)

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36
Q

Sensory Experience

A

Visual
Sounds
Touch
Smell
Taste

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37
Q

BP344: Diameter for wheelchair maneuvering

A

1.5m

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38
Q

BP344: Comfortable clearance for knee
and leg space under tables

A

0.7m

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39
Q

An approach to the design of products, services and environments to be usable by as many people as possible regardless of age, ability or situation. It links directly to the political concept of an inclusive society and its importance has been recognized by governments, business and industry.

A

Universal design

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40
Q

Signs shall be located at a maximum of __ from the floor and minimum of __ from the floor.

A

1.60m and 1.40m

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41
Q

Letter sizes of signs shall be at least __ in height to facilitate tactile reading.

A

15mm

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42
Q

It is an interdisciplinary field focused on the interplay between humans and their surroundings.

A

Environmental psychology

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43
Q

Refers to wastewater coming from sinks, showers and laundry that can be collected and treated for some reuse, such as the flushing of toilets or watering of landscape.

A

Graywater

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44
Q

Byproducts of society with physical, chemical or infectious characteristics that pose hazards to the environment and human health when improperly handled.

A

Hazardous Waste

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45
Q

Products and systems that use less energy to perform as well or better than standard products. While some have higher up-front costs, energy-efficient products cost less to operate over their lifetime

A

Energy Efficient

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46
Q

RA 10066: Studies of specific ethno-linguistic groups are undertaken, the properties of which are of value to our cultural heritage.

A

Anthropological Area

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47
Q

The supply and introduction of adequate air for ventilation and control of airborne contaminants, acceptable temperatures and relative humidity

A

Indoor Air Quality (IAQ)

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48
Q

The comprehensive examination of a product’s environmental and economic effects throughout its lifetime, including raw material extraction, transportation, manufacturing, use and disposal.

A

Life-Cycle Assessment

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49
Q

Informational fact sheets that identify hazardous chemicals and health and physical hazards, including exposure limits and precautions for workers who may come into contact with these chemicals. Green design professionals review this when specifying materials and require their submittal during the shop drawing phase.

A

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

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50
Q

The ability of a product or material to be recovered or otherwise diverted from the solid waste stream for the purpose of recycling

A

Recyclability

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51
Q

A series of activities including collection, separation and processing by which products or materials are recovered from the solid waste stream for use in the form of raw materials in the manufacture of new products other than fuel for producing heat or power by combustion

A

Recycling

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52
Q

Energy harvested from sources that are not depleted when used, typically causing very low environmental impact. Examples include solar energy, hydroelectric power and wind power.

A

Renewable Energy

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53
Q

RA 10066

A

National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009

54
Q

RA 4726: A part of the condominium project intended for any type of independent use or ownership.

A

Unit

55
Q

A recycling concept by which an existing product can have its useful life extended through a secondary manufacturing or refurbishing process such as remanufactured systems furniture.

A

Remanufacturing

56
Q

RA 10066: Utilization of sites of value for purposes other than that for which they were intended originally, in order to conserve the site, engineering integrity and authenticity of design.

A

Adaptive Re-use

57
Q

The appropriate combination of temperatures, warm or cool, combined with air flow and humidity, which allows one to be comfortable within the confines of a building. This comfort is not usually achieved by the fixed setting of thermostats but through careful design and planning.

A

Thermal Comfort

58
Q

These substances are indoor air pollutants or chemical compounds that exist as vapor or gases at normal temperatures and are carbon-based molecules typically used as solvents in products such as household cleaners, paints, inks and dyes.

A

Volatile Organic Compound (VOC)

59
Q

Health complaints such as nasal congestion, headache, irritated eyes, lethargy and tiredness, which are difficult to medically diagnose but are present in individuals when they are within a building and disappear or diminish once they leave the building.

A

Sick Building Syndrome (SBS)

60
Q

Water that has been used and contaminated. Wastewater must be purified before being used again or before being returned to the environment.

A

Wastewater

61
Q

BP344: Range above the floor for comfortable reach

A

0.70-1.2m AFL

62
Q

BP344: minimum reach from room corners

A

0.4m

63
Q

RA 4726

A

Condominium Act of the Philippines

64
Q

RA 4726: An interest in real property consisting of a separate interest in a unit in a building.

A

Condominium

65
Q

RA 10066: A cultural property found locally which is 100 years in age, more or less, the production of which has ceased.

A

Antique

66
Q

RA 10066: Any place containing fossils, artifacts, and other cultural, geological, botanical, zoological materials which depict and document culturally relevant, paleontological, prehistoric or historic events.

A

Archaeological Area

67
Q

Architectural and engineering structures with notable historical and cultural significance.

A

Built Heritage

68
Q

All the processes and measures of maintaining the cultural significance of a cultural property.

A

Conservation

69
Q

A cultural property with historical value and traditional production including antiques and natural history specimens with significant value.

A

Tangible Cultural Property

70
Q

Action taken to correct deterioration and alterations.

A

Restoration

71
Q

A unique cultural property found locally, processing outstanding historical, cultural, artistic and or scientific value.

A

National Cultural Treasure

72
Q

A cultural property having exceptional cultural, artistic and historical significance to the Philippines. Deemed by the National Museum or the National Historical Institute.

A

Important Cultural Property (IPC)

73
Q

A street name which has been in existence for at least 50 years.

A

Historical Street Name

74
Q

Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines

A

RA 8293

75
Q

Any new construction which increases the height or area of an existing structure.

A

Addition

76
Q

A building subordinated to the main building within the same lot. Ex. servants quarters, garage, laundry, etc.

A

Accessory Building

77
Q

A portion of a building used for gathering together 50 or more persons for such purposes as deliberation, workshop, entertainment, amusement or awaiting transportation.

A

Assembly Building/Hall

78
Q

A written order to the contractor issued by the owner after the execution of the Contract, authorizing a variation.

A

Change Order

79
Q

This includes earthquake, flood, typhoon and other accidents which human precedence could not foresee or prevent.

A

Act of God or Force Majeure

80
Q

The substitution or replacement of an existing obligation or contract with a new one, with the mutual agreement of the parties involved.

A

Novation

81
Q

A written additional information or document issued by the client prior to the closing date for the receipt of Bids, which is made an integral part of the Tender and Contract Documents.

A

Addendum

82
Q

Refers to all documents provided or made available to prospective bidders which include the Invitation to bid and a copy of the contract, then are signed with the Owner.

A

Tender Documents

83
Q

The binding resolution of disputes by one or more neutral persons as a substitute for judicial proceedings.

A

Arbitration

84
Q

The additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before bidding date.

A

Bid Bulletin

85
Q

The furnishings of all labor materials, convenient to the successful completion of works imposed in the contract.

A

Contract Work

86
Q

The period of time allowed by the client for the delay suffered by the contractor for due to causes beyond his control.

A

Contract Time Extension

87
Q

Stipulated period of time within which the contractor shall complete contract works.

A

Original Contract Time

88
Q

An agreement which the owner of a credit transfers the credit to another.

A

Deed of Assignment

89
Q

The period allowed to the Contractor by the client in addition to the stipulated Contract Period necessitated by a duly issued extra work or change order.

A

Additional Contract Time

90
Q

__ is to purchase and or fabricate, deliver to the job site or other location;

__ means to build in, mount in positions, connect or apply any object specified ready for the intended use.

A

Furnish; Install

91
Q

The act of ending or canceling a contract before its agreed-upon completion.

A

Termination

92
Q

The amount of credit extended by a bank to cover the projected expenditures for the project in the amount prescribed by the client.

A

Credit Line

93
Q

Notice published by the owner or invitation issued to prospective bidders, giving information as to the nature of the proposed project, conditions for the issuance of Contract documents, date of bidding and information. Gives the contractor a general idea of the extent of the project.

A

Advertisement or Invitation to Bid

94
Q

Permanent structures constructed and completed in accordance with the contract document.

A

Permanent Works

95
Q

A contract provision setting forth the damages a party must pay in the event of breach.

A

Penalty Clause

96
Q

Unit prices of lump sums or other sums named in the Notice of Award to be paid to the Contractor in consideration of the implementation of works.

A

Contract Price

97
Q

Duly perfected and approved Contract Agreement.

A

Contract Documents

98
Q

A written notice to the contractor of the date on which he is to begin the prosecution of works.

A

Notice to Proceed

99
Q

A right enforceable against specific property to secure payment of an obligation.

A

Lien

100
Q

Notice published by the owner giving information as to the nature of the proposed project, conditions for the issuance of contract documents and date of bidding.

A

Invitation to Bid

101
Q

List of instructions stipulating the manner on how bids are to be prepared and the conditions for the award of the contractor.

A

Instruction to Bidders

102
Q

A proposal or expression of willingness to enter into a contract.

A

Offer

103
Q

A proposal or expression of willingness to enter into a contract.

A

Offer

104
Q

It is the conformity of wills and with reference to contracts. Manifested by the meeting of the offer and the acceptance upon the thing and the cause.

A

Consent

105
Q

The agreement or assent to the terms of an offer, resulting in the formation of a contract.

A

Acceptance

106
Q

The state of being void or invalid from the beginning.

A

Nullity

107
Q

The fulfillment or execution of an obligation as agreed upon in a contract.

A

Performance

108
Q

Description in detail of the works to be executed, character, quality of materials and workmanship.

A

Specifications

109
Q

A legal duty or responsibility to perform an act or refrain from doing something.

A

Obligation

110
Q

A bond furnished by the contractor as guaranty to the quality of materials and equipment installed, and workmanship performed.

A

Guarantee Bond

111
Q

A duly registered and licensed contractor who acts on behalf of the contractor.

A

Sub-contractor

112
Q

Printed documents stipulating the procedural and administrative aspects of the contract.

A

General Conditions

113
Q

Refers to the payment of the final progress billing and all approved claims.

A

Final Payment

114
Q

Additional labor, materials supplied necessary to complete the works but were not originally covered by the contract.

A

Extra Work

115
Q

Refers to any acceptable form of bond accompanying the Bid submitted by the bidder as a guarantee that the bidder will enter into the Contract with the Owner of the construction of work.

A

Bid Bond

116
Q

Information, advice or notification pertinent to the project delivered in person or registered mail to an individual or firm.

A

Written Notice

117
Q

A listing of the different parts of the work indicating each part and its corresponding value.

A

Breakdown of Work and Corresponding Value

118
Q

Means to furnish and install.

A

Provide

119
Q

The act of confirming or validating a contract or action that was initially defective or unauthorized.

A

Ratification

120
Q

The person ordering the project for execution.

A

Owner

121
Q

Instructions that are issued prior to bidding to supplement or modify the drawings, specification and general conditions of the contract.

A

Special Provisions

122
Q

The written offer of the bidder submitted in the prescribed form in response to the Invitation to bid and tender documents issued by the client.

A

Bid or Tender

also refers to a signed offer or proposal to undertake a contract submitted by a bidder in response to and in consonance with the requirements of the Bidding Documents.

123
Q

Medium used for gauging and controlling construction activities.

A

Bar Chart

124
Q

The difference between scheduled and actual accomplishment indicated in percentage, positive or negative.

A

Slippage

125
Q

The person or firm which issues the bond required of the contractor.

A

Surety Party

126
Q

Refers to a signed offer or proposal to undertake a contract submitted by a bidder in response to and in consonance with the requirements of the Bidding Documents.

A

Bid or tender

also The written offer of the bidder submitted in the prescribed form in response to the Invitation to bid and tender documents issued by the client.

127
Q

Additional information issued as an addition to the provisions of the specifications.

A

Supplementary Specifications

128
Q

The contract between the owner and contractor undertaking the project described in the contract documents and all the general and special provisions pertaining to the work.

A

Agreement

129
Q

Outline specification enumerating the type of materials required to be used by the contractor for the work.

A

Schedule of Materials and Finishes

130
Q

Permits a more realistic analysis of the daily problems that end to delayed work; details in normal sequence the various steps to be taken by each trade, from commencement to conclusion

Select one:
a. Critical path method
b. Performance review
c. Bar chart
d. Option to extend

A

a. Critical path method

131
Q

What is the type of contract a Construction Project Manager signs up with provisions of a fee that is adjusted by “sharing” formulas applied to the difference between final allowable cases and the target costs?

A

Cost plus adjusted fee (CPAF)

132
Q

Any total change or modification in construction or occupancy based or the requirements of the client/Owner

A

Renovation

Interior Design Board Review (11 decks)

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