Haemolytic Crash Course Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these is the most concerning for an acute leukaemia:

A. Neutrophil count of 12

B. 10cm splenomegaly

C. Microcytic anaemia

D. Blast cells present on blood film examination

E. Cervical lymphadenopathy

A

D. Blast cells present on blood film examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can cause a high platelet count? (5)

A
  • Acute infection
  • Chronic inflammation
  • Malignancy (5-10%)
  • Essential thrombocytopenia
  • Polycythaemia rubra vera

Patients who are well with no inflammation or infection should be investigated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of these blood differentials is most in keeping with CML?

A

1
Chronic leukaemias always have a high WCC (excluding 3 + 4)

With CML would expect a high neutrophil count (excluding 2)

High platelet, eosinophil + basophil count is in keeping with CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rank these in order of Ann-Arbor staging (top stage 1- bottom stage 4)

A. Cervical lymphadenopathy + BM infiltration

B. Mediastinal + axillary lymphadenopathy

C. Inguinal + Cervical lymphadenopathy

D. A single enlarged lymph node in the axilla

A

D. Single enlarged LN in axilla

B. Mediastinal + axillary lymphadenopathy

C. Inguinal + Cervical lymphadenopathy

A. Cervical lymphadenopathy + BM infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A patient with newly diagnosed Burkitt Lymphoma has these blood results 6h after chemotherapy

Creatinine 200 (baseline 90)

Urea 14.4 (baseline 6)

K+ 7.1 (3.5-5.5)

Na+ 140 (135-145)

Ca2+ 1.81 (2.2-2.6)

Phosphate 1-1.6)

Uric acid 800 (<400)

What is the diagnosis?

What is the treatment?
A

Diagnosis: Tumour lysis syndrome

Tx: Resburicase (depletes uric acid levels), treat K+, renal replacement therapy

Use Allopurinol to prevent this or Resburicase in high risk patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What investigations are needed for a patient with an IgG lambda paraprotein of 25g/l discovered on a routine blood test?

A

Anyone with a IgA paraprotein >10 or IgG paraprotein >15 get referred to haematology clinic

Imaging to look for bone lesions + BM biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

55M with no PMH presents with fatigue to his GP. Bloods show

WCC 7 

Hb 90

MCV 95

Na 140

K 4.0

Creatinine 90

Calcium 2.5

Serum electrophoresis shows an IgG kappa paraprotein of 37g/l

Full body MRI shows no lytic lesions 

BM aspirate shows a clonal population of plasma cells, 15% of marrow cells

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute Leukaemia

B. Multiple Myeloma

C. Smouldering Myeloma

D. MGUS

E. Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinaemia
A

B. Multiple Myeloma

Paraprotein >30 means it can only be multiple myeloma or smouldering myeloma

CRAB Sx: fatigue and Hb of 90 (with no other cause) confirms dx of MM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

55M presents with 2/52 hx of fatigue and easy bruising to his GP. Bloods show

WCC 27 

Hb 90

Plt 30 

Na 140

K 4.0

Creatinine 90

Calcium 2.5

Blood film shows presence of blasts, with 27% blasts in marrow

Flow cytometry shows a clonal population of cells expressing CD34, CD19 + TdT

Cytogenic analysis shows the presence of t(9;22)

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

B. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

C. Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukaemia

D. Adult T-cell Leukaemia-lymphoma

E. Burkitt’s lymphoma
A

B. Acute lymphoblastiic leukaemia

Any % >20% blasts in BM defines acute leukaemia

CD19: B cell marker

TdT: Lymphoid precursor marker

t(9;22): seen in CML, but also ~1/3 cases of ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. 55M presents with 2/52 hx of fatigue and easy bruising to his GP. Bloods showWCC 27Hb 90Plt 30Na 140K 4.0Creatinine 90Calcium 2.5Blood film shows presence of blasts, with 27% blasts in marrowFlow cytometry shows a clonal population of cells expressing CD34, MPO

What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
B. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
C. Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukaemia
D. Adult T-cell Leukaemia-lymphoma
E. Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

Auer Rod

MPO: myeloid cell marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

25M presents to GP after 4/52 hx of intermittent fevers + drenching night sweats. Blood results show:

WCC 7 

Hb 120

Plt 300 

Na 140

K 4.0

Creatinine 90

Calcium 2.5

Examination reveals cervical lymphadenopathy , which is biopsied. On biopsy there are multinucleated cells. What is the diagnosis?

A. Mantle Cell lymphoma

B. Disseminated tuberculosis

C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

D. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

E. Burkitt’s Lymphoma
A

D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Reed Sternburg cell on biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. A 50F presents to GP with left sided abdominal pain. Examination reveals palpable splenomegaly. Blood tests:WCC 30Hb 110Platelets 500Neutrophils 20Monocytes 0.7 (<1)

A blood film shows left shifted granulocytes.

Urgent FISH shows presence of BCR-ABL1 fusion gene. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia 

B. Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukaemia

C. Myelodysplastic syndrome

D. Essential Thrombocythaemia 

E. Myelofibrosis
A

CML

Left shifted granulocytes and BCR-ABL1 fusion gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give 3 clinical manifestations of BM failure

A

Anaemia: SOB, Chest pain on exertion, fatigue

Thrombocytopenia: easy bruising, petechial rashes, spontaneous bleeding e.g. epistaxis

Neutropenia: frequent or severe infections inc. opportunistic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In which type of leukaemias is splenomegaly more common?

A

LESS common in ACUTE than chronic leukaemias (as takes a long time for spleen to enlarge that much)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give 5 potential features of AML on presentation

A

Bone pain

Occassional mild lymphadenopathy

Fevers from disease

Rarer: gum infiltrates, skin

Pancytopenia: May have elevated WCC- but low neutrophil count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In which type of leukaemia is there less burden in the BM?

A

Chronic
Slower proliferation
(thus less anaemia, thrombocytopenia + neutropenia, but will develop eventually given enough time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How may chronic leukaemias be differentiated on examination?

A

CLL: Lymphadenopathy + Splenomegaly

CML: Splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How may chronic leukaemias be differentiated on examination?

A

CLL: Lymphadenopathy + Splenomegaly

CML: Splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is leukostasis? What can this result in? (4)

A

Haematological emergency

High WCC causes blood to be viscous + end organ damage:
Retinopathy
Pulmonary infiltrates
Bleeding
Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment for leukostasis?

A

Leukaphoresis or chemo/ steroids

20
Q

Give 6 features that may present in a question about ALL

A
  • Often 2-5y
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Bone pain/ limp
  • Fevers
  • CNS Sx (up to 10%)
  • Testicular swelling (rare but specific)
21
Q

How would ALL present in an adult?

A

BM failure
Bone pain, splenomegaly
Lymphadenopathy

22
Q

What will be seen on a blood test in acute lymphoid leukaemia?

A

High WCC (but not always)
Anaemia
Thrombocytopenia

Some analysers flag blasts as lymphocytes

23
Q

What will be seen on blood film in ALL?

A

High nuclear : cytoplasmic ratio
Lymphoblasts larger than RBCs (normal lymphocytes same size as RBCs)
Blasts often have tails/ blebs of cytoplasm

24
Q

What can be used to distinguish between ALL and AML?

A

Immunophenotyping (looking at markers expressed)

25
Q

Give 2 markers of immaturity which are seen in ALL

A

CD34
TdT

26
Q

Which markers are expressed by B cells in ALL?

A

CD19
CD20
CD22

27
Q

Which markers are expressed by T cells in ALL?

A

CD3
CD4
CD8

28
Q

Which mutation may be associated with ALL? What % of adults have this? Which targeted treatment can be used against this?

A

BCR-ABL1 t(9;22)
20-30% of ALL in adults
(same mutation that causes CML)

Imatinib

29
Q

What is the chemo treatment for ALL?

A

Induction: chemo + steroids
Consolidation: high dose, multi-drug
Maintenance: 2y in F + adults, 3y in M

Consider allo-SCT if high risk of relapse

30
Q

Name 3 targeted treatments in ALL

A

Nelarabine (T-ALL)
CAR-T cells
Blinatumumab (B-ALL)

31
Q

Give 5 poor prognostic factors for ALL

A

Age < 2y or > 10y
WBC > 20 * 10^9/l at dx
T or B cell surface markers
Non-Caucasian
Male sex

32
Q

What supportive treatment is given in ALL?

A

Blood products
Abx prophylaxis
Allopurinol, Fluid + Electrolytes to prevent TLS

33
Q

Give 4 features to look for in a question about AML

A
  • Incidence INCREASES with age
  • Might have had pre-existing myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
  • Sx of cytopenias
  • May have hx of chemotherapy, though mostly idiopathic
34
Q

What will be seen on blood test in AML? (6)

A
  • Anaemia: due to BM suppression
  • Leukocytosis: high no. circulating white cells
  • Thrombocytopenia: due to BM suppression
  • Neutropenia: lack of mature white cells due to excess of blasts
  • High no. circulating blasts
  • Normal INR: normal for AML
35
Q

What may be seen on a blood film in AML?

A

AUER RODS
A single Auer rod is enough to diagnose AML (or MDS), but sometimes there are lots

Not all AML patients have Auer rods

Granules

36
Q

What markers are expressed in AML? (4)

A

MPO = myeloid cells
CD13
CD33
CD117

37
Q

Which marker is expressed in both ALL and AML? What is this indicative of?

A

CD34
Precursor/ stem cells

38
Q

What targeted treatment can be used for acute promyelocytic leukaemia? What is the MOA?

A

ATRA
All-trans-retinoic acid
Forces cells to differentiate, stops proliferation

39
Q

Which chemotherapy drugs are often used in AML?

A

Induction: Daunorubicin + Cytarabine
Consolidation: Cytarabine

Consider allo-SCT if high risk of relapse

40
Q

Which drugs may be used in older patients with AML?

A

Azacytidine
+/-
Venetoclax

41
Q

Name 3 targeted treatments in AML

A

Midostaurin: FLT3 mutations Gemtuzumab: CD33 immunotherapy Enasidenib: IDH mutations

42
Q

What are 4 types of myeloproliferative neoplasm?

A

Essential Thrombocytopenia
Polycythaemia Vera
Myelofibrosis
Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

43
Q

Give 3 features of essential thrombocytopenia

A

Platelet count >450 consistently with no other cause
Increased risk thrombotic events (arterial + venous)
Small risk of transformation to myelofibrosis or AML

44
Q

Give 3 mutations seen in essential thrombocytopenia

A

JAK2
CALR
MPL

45
Q

What treatment is required for essential thrombocytopenia?

A

Aspirin (reduce stroke risk)
Hydroxycarbamide (to lower count)

46
Q

What is seen on blood film in essential thrombocytopenia?

A

Large platelets + megakaryocyte fragments