Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A

A group of risk factors that increased the chance of CVD, Stroke, and Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the risk factors for metabolic syndrome?

A

-high blood sugar
-High blood pressure
-high triglycerides
-excess fat around waist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What criteria is needed to diagnose metabolic syndrome?

A

must meet 3 of the following
-waist size >40 in men >35 in women
-treating triglycerides >150
-HDL <40 in men <50 in women
-Blood pressure > 130/85
-Fasting blood sugar >100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Nissen Fundoplication?

A

Surgery to treat GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the greatest concern after surgery?

A

pneumothorax, patient will have absent breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What would you teach to prevent a GERD exacerbation?

A

-Do not eat late
-no spicy food
-do not lay flat
-no fatty foods
-no smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the risk of using a proton pump inhibitor (-prozle) long term?

A

may develop cdiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are your nursing interventions for Cdiff?

A

-Contact MD
-Check vitals
-treat fevers
-Give antibiotics
-place on contact precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a CEA test?

A

Measures chances of cancer returning
-high level of CEA in the blood indicates chance for return (even after being surgically removed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Your patient had GI surgery, what does post op care consist of?

A

-observe for bleeding
-monitor for infection
-auscultate for active bowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are signs of infection?

A

-redness
-warmth
-swelling
-drainage
-odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is IGm used to treat?

A

Active hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is IGg used to treat?

A

recovering/chronic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is hepatitis A transmitted?

A

Through fecal or oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is hepatitis B transmitted?

A

Through bodily fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do you educate to your patients with Hepatitis B?

A

-do not share personal hygiene products
-encourage rest
-eat small frequent meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the two types of cirrhosis?

A

alcoholic + nonalcoholic (fatty liver disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can your patient avoid cirrhosis?

A

-stop drinking alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute pancreatitis?

A

-Sudden abdominal pain
-n/v
-fever
-tachycardia
-hypotension
-hyperglycemia
-AMS
-rigid abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is grey turners sign?

A

subcutaneous discoloration of the flank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you assess a patient for grey turners sign?

A

turn the patient over to see if sides are grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is cullen’s sign?

A

Bruising around the belly button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can a UAP do in the middle of surgery?

A

gather and assist handing supplies
vitals
i/o
ambulate

24
Q

What can an LPN do?

A

-wound care
-medication (no iv meds)
-peg tube feeding

25
Q

What can an RN do?

A

Evaluate, Assess, Educate

26
Q

If a patient is NPO, and then upgraded, what diet is recommended?

A

Clear and cold liquids

27
Q

What is the best nursing intervention to return bowel function after surgery?

A

Ambulation

28
Q

Who should receive the flu vaccine that is inactivated?

A

-Elderly
-pregnant
-immunocompromised
-those with HIV

29
Q

What is allergic rhinitis?

A

inflammation of mucous membranes in nose

30
Q

How does your patient avoid allergic rhinitis?

A

-avoid triggers (pollen, pet dander, dust, etc)

31
Q

What kind of procedure is suctioning?

A

sterile procedure

32
Q

Who is more susceptible to influenza?

A

Smokers, they need vaccinated

33
Q

what are risk factors for larynx cancer?

A

smoking and alcohol use

34
Q

What should you teach your patient w/ acute sinusitis?

A

Take a hot shower
do not use nasal decongestants for longer than 3 days

35
Q

If the patient is unconscious what is the best positioning?

A

side lying

36
Q

If a patient has pneumonia, What is the best positioning?

A

Dependent lung down
(ex. if has left lobe pneumonia, place on right side)

37
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

nose bleed

38
Q

Nursing intervention for epistaxis?

A

Pinch nose, lean forward, apply ice

39
Q

What is given for oral fungal infection?

A

Nystatin (swish and swallow after given)

40
Q

How to screen for lung cancer?

A

get a CT scan

41
Q

When do we intubate a patient?

A

When respirators are very low or very high
(normal 12-20)

42
Q

What are nursing interventions for acute respiratory failure?

A

-elevate hob
-ambulate
-humidification

43
Q

What does humidification do?

A

keeps nasal cavities moist

44
Q

what are complications of ARDS?

A

Infection
SOB
Sepsis
Blood clots
acute renal failure
urine output <30ml/hr

45
Q

What are signs and symptoms of ARDs?

A

Sepsis signs, any changes to vitals organs such as heart, lungs or kidneys

46
Q

What is an early indicator for hypoxemia?

A

Mental status change

47
Q

What is the first nursing action for hypoxemia?

A

Check SPO2 level

48
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax?

A

Air building up in the lung due to a hole in the chest wall, putting pressure on the lung causing it to collapse

49
Q

What are signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax?

A

Tracheal deviation
absent breath sounds

50
Q

What is the treatment for tension pneumothorax?

A

Chest tube or needle decompression

51
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

Blood clot in the lung

52
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for pulmonary embolism?

A

Administer o2

53
Q

How do we prevent ventilator associated pneumonia?

A

hand hygiene
HOB 30-45°
Oral care w/ CHG
assess for extubation daily
stress ulcer prophylaxis
Venous Thromboembolism Prophylaxis

54
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Nifedipine (Procardia)?

A

It’s a calcium channel blocker that is used to treat pulmonary Hypertension

55
Q

When is an indicator that nifedipine could be given?

A

Patient is short of breath

56
Q

How do we evaluate the effectiveness of Procardia?

A

Patient states they can breathe better