UNIT EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Lymphocytosis; high protein; low glucose; cryotococcal antigen (+)
A. Bacterial meningitis
C. Fungal meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
D. Tubercular meningitis

A

C. Fungal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At what pH can the sediments be best preserved in the urine?
A. Acidic
B. Alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Any pH

A

A. acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lymphocytosis; high protein; low glucose <45mg/dl; pellicle formation (+)
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. Fungal meningitis
D. Tubercular meningitis

A

D. Tubercular meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following sediment findings is NORMAL
A. Presence of waxy casts
B. Presence of tissue fragments
C. Presence of atypical mononuclears
D. Presence of few dysmorphic eryhtrocytes

A

C. Presence of a typical mononuclears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What color is NOT associated with a xanthochromic CSF?
A. Red
B. Yellow-green
C. Brown
D. Orange

A

C. Brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sternheimer-Malbin is used in which of the following:
A. Stone analysis
B. Staining of urine sediments
C. Visualization of genitourinary tract
D. Urine protein determination

A

B. Staining of urine sediments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which normal epithelial cell is commonly interfering when doing urine sediment examination?
    A. Squamous
    B. Transitional
    C. Renal tubular
    D. Urothelial
A

A. Squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is the unique characteristics of Calcium oxalate?
A. Four-sided, flat, yellow or red-brown; lemon-shaped or oval
B. Small, colorless octahedral; rarely dumbbells, ovoid or long forms
C. Yellow-brown spheres with striations and hornlike projections
D. Colorless granules or spheres; form pairs of fours

A

B. Small, colorless octahedral; rarely dumbbells, ovoid or long forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do you call a hyaline cast with a tapering end?
A. Mucus thread
B. Cylindroid
C. Renal fiber
D. Waxy cast

A

B. Cylindroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is tested on the CSF whereby the color of CSF is compared to distilled water using a white background after the sample is centrifuged.
A. Menigitis
B. Xanthochromia
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hyperbilirubinemia

A

B. Xanthochromia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What disorder is the cause of xanthochromia?
A. Meningeal abscess
B. Subdural hemorrhage
C. Polyneuritis
D. Meningitis

A

B. Subdural hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about squamous epithelial cells
A. It originated from the distal 1/3 of the urethra
B. It originated from the PCT and DCT
C. It originated from the bleeding of glomerulus
D. It originated from the bladder of transitional carcinoma patients

A

A. It originated from the distal 1/3 of the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Squamous epithelial cells are
A. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm
B. 40-200um; round to pear-shaped; binucleated
C. large, flat cells with folded margins; abundant cytoplasm
D. 7-9um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus

A

C. large, flat cells with folded margins; abundant cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most important indication for CSF collection?
A. Infectious meningitis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Polyneutritis
D. Alzheimer’s disease

A

A. Infectious meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Glomerular bleeding can be diagnosed by seeing under the microscope RBCs which vary in size, have bizarre shapes or are fragmented that is termed
as___________RBCs
A. Crenated
B. Dysmorphic
C. Anisotropic
D. Dismorphic

A

B. Dysmorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Intact transitional epithelial cells are from
A. the PCT and DCT
B. the bleeding of glomerulus
C. the distal 1/3 of the urethra
D. the renal pelvis to the proximal 2/3 of urethra

A

D. the renal pelvis to the proximal 2/3 of urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fragmented urothelial cells are
A. from the distal 1/3 of the urethra
B. from the bladder of transitional carcinoma patients
C. from the bleeding of glomerulus
D. from the PCT and DCT

A

B. from the bladder of transitional carcinoma patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which following is the unique characteristic of renal epithelial cells?
A. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm
B. 40-200um; round to pear-shaped; binucleated
C. large, flat cells with folded margins; abundant cytoplasm
D. 7-9um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus

A

A. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Because formed elements tend to settle in urine, one should do which of the following before starting routine urinalysis?
A. shake vigorously the urine sample
B. centrifuge the urine sample
C. mix thoroughly the urine specimen
D. proceed with macroscopic exam immediately

A

C. mix thoroughly the urine specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What renal disorder is characterized by detection of fat droplets, oval fat bodies and fatty acids?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute tubular necrosis

A

C. Nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dysmorphic RBCs are from
A. the bleeding of glomerulus
B. the distal 1/3 of the urethra
C. the PCT and DCT
D. the renal pelvis to the proximal 2/3 of urethra

A

A. the bleeding of glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which method of examining sediments in urine is best in identifying mucus, hyaline casts and platelets?
A. Brightfield microscopy
B. Darkfield microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
D. Polarizing microscopy

A

C. Phase-contrast microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which test is the most important in diagnosing multiple sclerosis?
A. Protein test
B. Bacterial culture
C. Immunoassay
D. Cell count

A

A. Protein test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What CNS disease is associated with F2-isoprostanes?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. Behcet’s syndrome
D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob

A

B. Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What might cause the urine to be smoky in appearance?
A. PMN
B. Erythrocytes
C. Bacteriuria
D. Cylindruria

A

B. Erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which specific protein is the most abundant in normal CSF?
A. Albumin
B. Prealbumin
C. Transferrin
D. Immunoglobulin G

A

A. Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

7-9um; distorted cells of varied shapes; not nucleated
A. Squamous epithelial cells
B. Transitional epithelial cell
C. Renal epithelial cells
D. Dysmorphic RBCs

A

D. Dysmorphic RBCs

28
Q

Neutrophilia, markedly high protein; glucose <40mg/dl; high opening pressure
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. Fungal meningitis
D. Tubercular meningitis

A

A. Bacterial meningitis

29
Q

What is the constant finding when urinary stones are present in the genitourinary tract?
A. Hemoglobinuria
B. Hemosiderinuria
C. Hematuria
D. Proteinuria

A

A. Hemoglobinuria

30
Q

In urine sediment examination, which elements are reported per high power field?
A. RBCs
B. WBCs
C. Casts
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

31
Q

Which of the following is NOT detected using the dipstick?
A. Blood
B. Crystals
C. Leukocytes
D. Bacteria

A

B. Crystals

32
Q

Which of the following is always present and reliable indicators of renal disease?
A. Hematuria and Pyuria
B. Oil droplets and Moderate Bacteria
C. Proteinuria and Cylindruria
D. Plenty epithelial cells and Cloudy character

A

C. Proteinuria and Cylindruria

33
Q

The procedure of wet urinalysis starts with the
A. urine collection and transport C.
B. sample identification
C. sediment assessment
D.chemical testing

A

B. sample identification

34
Q

Clot formation will interfere with which of the following tests?
A. Differential count
B. Protein test
C.Glucose test
D.Culture

A

A. Differential count

35
Q

Which crystal description is found in normal alkaline urine?
A. envelope crystal
B. coffin lid crystal
C. whetstone crystal
D. wheat sheaves

A

B. coffin lid crystal

36
Q

The urine volume needed in sediment examination is at least 10-15 ml. The most common reason why it CANNOT be satisfied is when the patient
A. is a pediatric patient
B. has a polyuria due to diabetes
C. has glomerulonephritis
D. is having anuria

A

D. is having anuria

37
Q

Which CNS disorder is NOT characterized by eosinophilia?
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Fungal meningitis
C. Parasitic infection
D. Acute polyneuritis

A

A. Bacterial meningitis

38
Q

What is the most reliable method for differential cell counts in CSF?
A. Filtration
B. Direct smear
C. Cytocentrifuge
D. Flow cytometer

A

C. Cytocentrifuge

39
Q

Four-sided, flat, yellow or red-brown; lemon-shaped or oval is the unique characteristic of? *
A. Uric Acid crystal
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Ammonium biurate

A

A. Uric Acid crystal

40
Q

Which aminoaciduria causes a caramelized odor in urine?
A. PKU
B. Tyrosinuria
C. MSUD
D. Alkaptonuria

A

C. MSUD

41
Q

What is the usual time and relative centrifugal force for centrifugation of urine specimens?
A. 5 minutes at 450g
B. 15 minutes at 450g
C. 10 minutes at 540g
D. 5 minutes at 550g

A

A. 5 minutes at 450g

42
Q

Which is TRUE regarding transitional epithelial cells (intact)
A. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm
B. 40-200um; round to pear-shaped; binucleated
C. large, flat cells with folded margins; abundant cytoplasm
D. 7-9um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus

A

D. 7-9um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus

43
Q

What substance in CSF is measured using turbidimetric method with trichloroacetic acid or SSA?
A. Glucose
B. Lactate
C. Total protein
D. Chloride

A

C. Total protein

44
Q

What WBC is the most abundant in a normal CSF in adult?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocyte
C. Monocyte
D. Plasma cell

A

B. Lymphocyte

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT characterized by decreased CSF pressure?
A. Obesity
B. Dehydration
C. Circulatory collapse
D. CSF leakage

A

A. Obesity

46
Q

When sediment structures have similar refractive index with the urine, they are best seen
A. using subdued illumination
B. using very bright illumination
C. using bright illumination
D. any of the aforementioned

A

A. using subdued illumination

47
Q

All cylindrical structures called casts have characteristic
A. Hyaline form & inclusions
B. Regular shape & pointed ends
C. Parallel sides & rounded ends
D. Low refractive index & blunt ends

A

C.Parallel sides & rounded ends

48
Q

Which of the following cells originated from PCT and DCT?
A. Squamous epithelial cells
B. Transitional epithelial cells
C. Renal epithelial cells
D. Dysmosrphic RBCs

A

C. Renal epithelial cells

49
Q

Which of the following will NOT cause turbidity in CSF?
A. High glucose
B. High protein
C. Presence of fat
D. High cell counts

A

A. High glucose

50
Q

Which of the following is the unique characteristics of Calcium carbonate?
A. Four-sided, flat, yellow or red-brown; lemon-shaped or oval
B. Small, colorless octahedral; rarely dumbbells, ovoid or long forms
C. Yellow-brown spheres with striations and hornlike projections
D. Colorless granules or spheres; form pairs of fours

A

D. Colorless granules or spheres; form pairs of fours

51
Q

Associated with HIV infect; spirochetal meningitis
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Fungal meningitis
C. Tubercular meningitis
D. Syphilitic meningitis

A

D. Syphilitic meningitis

52
Q

What is the presence of casts in urine called?
A. Casturia
B. Cylinduria
C. Proteinuria
D. Cylindruria

A

D. Cylindruria

53
Q

Which substance CANNOT diffuse freely via blood-brain barrier
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Urea
D. Creatinine

A

A. Protein

54
Q

Lymphocytosis; normal opening pressure, glucose and lactate; (+) RT-PCR testing is the characteristic of?
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. Fungal meningitis
D. Tubercular meningitis

A

B. Viral meningitis

55
Q

The microscopic evaluation of this sediment structure in urine requires 10 low power fields
A. Hyaline casts
B. WBCs
C. RBCs
D. Squamous epithelial cells

A

A. Hyaline casts

56
Q

Why should a CSF cell count be performed not after 30 minutes to 1 hour after collection?
A. the cells will aggregate
B. the cells will change form
C. the cell will lyse
D. contaminants will appear

A

C. the cell will lyse

57
Q

Gram stain is beneficial in establishing which CNS disorder?
A. Viral meningitis
B. Fungal meningitis
C. Bacterial meningitis
D. Tubercular meningitis

A

C. Bacterial meningitis

58
Q

Which variable is NOT related or important to urine sediment examination?
A. Urine volume that is centrifuged
B. Amount of sediment examined
C. Time and speed of centrifugation
D. Urine specific gravity and osmolality

A

D. Urine specific gravity and osmolality

59
Q

Urine sediments are also interchangeably termed
A. Total solids
B. Formed elements
C. Renal deposits
D. Urine structures

A

B. Formed elements

60
Q

Which CSF substance is 60% of the same substance in plasma?
A. Total protein
B. Lactate
C. Glucose
D. Albumin

A

C. Glucose

61
Q

Which of the following urine sediment examination findings is NOT normal?
A. 0-5 WBCs/hpf
B. 0-2 RBCs/hpf
C. 0-2 hyaline casts/lpf
D. 0-2 renal cells/hpf

A

D. 0-2 renal cells/hpf

62
Q

Which of the following is the unique characteristics of Ammonium biurate?
A. Four-sided, flat, yellow or red-brown; lemon-shaped or oval
B. Small, colorless octahedral; rarely dumbbells, ovoid or long forms
C. Yellow-brown spheres with striations and hornlike projections
D. Colorless granules or spheres; form pairs of fours

A

C. Yellow-brown spheres with striations and hornlike projections

63
Q

Cells from the collecting ducts are
A. 7-9um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus
B. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm
C. 12-20um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus
D. 40-200um; round to pear-shaped; binucleated

A

C. 12-20um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus

64
Q

What is the principal WBC that is found in pyuria?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Plasma cells
D. Mononuclears

A

A. Neutrophils

65
Q

What is the reference range for CSF total protein?
A. 15-45 g/dl
B. 20-40 g/dl
C. 15-45 mg/dl
D. 15-45 mg/L

A

C. 15-45 mg/dl