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BACTE - FINALS > Fastidious > Flashcards

Fastidious Flashcards

1
Q

Genera that belong to the family Pasteurellaceae

A

Haemophilus
Actinibacillus
Pasteurella
Aggregatibacter

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2
Q

Known to cause zoonotic infections

A

Pasteurella
Brucella
Francisella

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3
Q

Indigenous human flora and have been implicated in cases or bacterial endocarditis

A

Haemophilus
Aggregatibacter
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella

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4
Q

Characteristics of Haemophilus

A

Non-motile
Facultative anaerobic
Oxidase positive
Catalase positive
Nitrate reductase positive

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5
Q

Haemophilus is derived from the Greek word meaning _____

A

Blood-lover

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6
Q

Haemophilus sp. obtains X factor from _____ and V factor from _____

A

Blood Agar Plate (BAP)
V factor-producing organisms

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7
Q

Other organisms that produces B factor as products of metabolism

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria spp.

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8
Q

All clinically important Haemophilus species may demonstrate satellitism except for

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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9
Q

Erroneously implicated in the influenza pandemic of 1889-1890

A

H. influenza

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10
Q

Has an anti-phagocytic and anti-complementary property

A

Capsule

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11
Q

Virulence factos of H.influenzae

A

Capsule
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) proteases
Adherence mechanism
Outer membrane proteins and lipopolysaccharide

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12
Q

The serologic grouping of H. influenzae into six antigenically distinct types which are the:

A

A, B, C, D, E, and F

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13
Q

Implicated in invasive infections such as meningitis in children.

A

Serotype B

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14
Q

An enzyme capable of breaking down secretory IgA that protects the mucosal surfaces

A

Immunoglobulin A (IgA) proteases

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15
Q

Lacks adherent properties which explains its tendency to cause systemic infections

A

Serotype B

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16
Q

Two patterns of disease under H. influenzae

A
  1. Invasive and systemic disease by encapsulated strains
  2. Localized infection by non-typable H. influenzae or NTHi (unencapsulated strains)
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17
Q

Examples of invasive disease:

A

Septicemia
Meningitis
Arthritis
Epiglottitis
Tracheitis
Pneumonia

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18
Q

Examples of localized infection:

A

Conjunctivitis
Sinusitis
Otitis media with effusion (middle ear infections)

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19
Q

Haemophilus influenzae serotype b (Hib) in children

A

Meningitis

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20
Q

Rapid onset, acute inflammation, intense edema of the epiglottis

A

Epiglottitis

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21
Q

May cause complete airway obstruction

A

Epiglottitis

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22
Q

Epiglottitis occurs in children between what ages?

A

2 to 4 years old

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23
Q

Life threatening disease in children; Can arise after an acute, viral respiratory infection

A

Bacterial tracheitis

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24
Q

Observed in conjunctivitis exudates from Egyptians by Koch in 1883

A

H. aegypticus (Koch-Weeks Bacillus)

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25
Q

H. aegypticus is associated with _____

A

Pinkeye conjunctivitis

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26
Q

H. aegypticus is observed in conjunctivitis exudates from Egyptians by _____ in _____

A

Koch
1883

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27
Q

Agent of chancroid (soft chancre), a type of genital ulcer disease

A

H. ducreyi

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28
Q

Infects mucosal epithelium, genital and nongenital skin, and regional lymph nodes

A

H. ducreyi

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29
Q

H. ducreyi incubation period

A

4 to 14 days

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30
Q

Endocarditis of insidious onset. In which no signs and symptoms are seen before becoming apparent

A

H. parainfluenzae

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31
Q

Pharyngitis

A

H. parahaemolyticus

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32
Q

Specimens for Haemophilus spp.

A

Blood, CSF, middle ear exudate, joint fluids, respiratory tract specimen, swabs from conjunctiva, vaginal swabs, and abscess drainage

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33
Q

For the isolation of H. ducreyi, the site should be cleaned with _____ moistened with _____

A

Sterile gauze
Sterile saline

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34
Q

A swab pre moistened with _____ saline is used to collect material from the ulcer

A

Sterile phosphate buffered saline

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35
Q

H. influenza grow on _____

A

Chocolate Agar Plate (CAP)

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36
Q

For respiratory specimens, CAP supplemented with _____ can be used

A

Bacitracin

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37
Q

Milligrams required for bacitracin to be supplemented with CAP

A

300 mg/L

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38
Q

For H. aegypticus and H. ducreyi, CAP is supplemented with _____

A

1% Iso-VitaleX or Vitox

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39
Q

For _____ and _____, CAP is supplemented with 1% Iso-VitaleX or Vitox

A

H. aegypticus
H. ducreyi

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40
Q

Chemical supplements intended to nourish fastidious organisms

A

Vitox

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41
Q

Chocolate agar plate is a commonly used medium incubated between _____ and _____ in an atmosphere of 5% to 10% carbon dioxide (CO2)

A

33 degree Celsius and 37 degree Celsius

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42
Q

Chocolate agar plate is a commonly used medium incubated between 33°C and 37°C in an atmosphere of _____ to _____ carbon dioxide (CO2)

A

5% to 10%

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43
Q

In contrast to other species Haemophilus ducreyi grows best at _____

A

33 degree Celsius

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44
Q

In contrast to other species _____ grows best at 33°C

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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45
Q

Colonies of H. influenzae on CAP appear:

A

Translucent, tannish, moist, smooth and convex, with distinct odor

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46
Q

H. ducreyi appears as:

A

Small, flat, smooth, nonmucoid, transparent to opaque colonies or appears tan or yellow

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47
Q

Capsules of _____ may be observed in gram-stained smears, as clear, non-staining halo surrounding the bacteria

A

H. influenzae

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48
Q

Appear as pale staining gram-negative coccobacilli arranged singly or in groups

A

H. ducreyi

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49
Q

Used to differentiate heme-producing species of Haemophilus

A

Porphyrin Test

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50
Q

Principle of Porphyrin Test

A

Tests the ability of the organism to convert d-aminolevulinic acid (d-ALA) into porphyrins or porphobilinogens

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51
Q

Detection of porphobilinogen is detected by addition of _____

A

Kovacs’ reagent

52
Q

Porphyrins can be detected using an _____ with a wavelength of about 360 nm

A

Ultraviolet light

53
Q

Porphyrins can be detected using an ultraviolet light with a wavelength of about _____

A

360nm

54
Q

Risk factors for infective (bacterial) endocarditis include:

A

Tooth extraction, history of endocarditis, gingival surgery, heart valve surgery, and mitral valve prolapse

55
Q

Found in dental plaque and gingival scrapings

A

Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

56
Q

Describe the colonies of Aggregatibacter aphrophilus:

A

Convex, granular, and yellow with an opaque zone near the center on CAP

57
Q

The most frequently isolated member of the HACEK group that is seen in cases of endocarditis.

A

Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

58
Q

Infected patients of Aggregatibacter aphrophilus typically present with;

A

Fever, congestive heart failure, and embolism

59
Q

Small bacilli to coccoid gram-negative bacilli that are nonmotile

A

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

60
Q

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is isolated from:

A

Blood, lung tissue, abscesses of the mouth and brain

61
Q

Implicated in endocarditis and periodontitis

A

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

62
Q

An infection of the gums that may exacerbate into destruction of the bones that support the teeth

A

Periodontitis

63
Q

Pleomorphic, nonmotile, fastidious, gram-negative bacillus

A

Cardiobacterium hominis

64
Q

Form rosettes or flower like symmetries or patterns agar depression, swellings, long filaments, or sticklike structure in yeast extract

A

Cardiobacterium hominis

65
Q

Normal flora, of the nose mouth and throat and has been implicated in endocarditis following oral infections or dental procedures

A

Cardiobacterium hominis

66
Q

Normal flora of the oral cavity and infections, typically occur after trauma such as human bites

A

Eikenella corrodens

67
Q

Implicated in periodontitis, meningitis, empyema, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, arthritis, and postoperative tissue infections

A

Eikenella corrodens

68
Q

Fastidious, gram-negative coccobacilli that grows best in increased carbon dioxide with hemin

A

Eikenella corrodens

69
Q

Eikenella corrodens risk factors:

A

Poor oral hygiene and oral surgery

70
Q

Members are coccobacillary to short bacilli with squared ends that occur in pairs or short chains

A

Kingella

71
Q

Grows on Thayer-Martin agar and can resemble Neisseria spp.

A

Kingella

72
Q

Kingella grows on _____ and can resemble Neisseria spp.

A

Thayer-Martin agar

73
Q

Kingella grows on Thayer-Martin agar and can resemble _____

A

Neisseria spp.

74
Q

Associated with bacteremia and abscesses

A

K. dinitrificans

75
Q

An important pathogen in pediatric population, causing degenerative joint and bone infection or osteoarthritis in children younger than three years

A

K. kingae

76
Q

Soul glucose non-fermenter

A

Eikenella corrodens

77
Q

The most common isolate of Pasteurella

A

P. multocida

78
Q

Describe the colonies of Pasteurella

A

Gram negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic coccobacilli that appear ovoid, filamentous or as bacilli

79
Q

Pasteurella grows on _____ and _____, but not on _____

A

BAP and CAP
MAC

80
Q

Produces non hemolytic colonies that may appear mucoid after 24 hours, followed by the production of a narrow green-to-brown halo around the colony after 48 hours, with a characteristic mushroom smell

A

P. multocida

81
Q

Also known as Undulant fever, Mediterranean, Crimean, and Malta fevers

A

Brucella

82
Q

Brucella is also known as _____

A

Undulant fever, Mediterranean, Crimean, and Malta fevers

83
Q

The organism can gain entry to the body through aerosols, percutaneous or oral routes. Transmission through sexual contact and breastfeeding has also been reported.

A

Brucella

84
Q

There are three stages of brucellosis infection:

A
  1. Acute infection
  2. Subchronic or undulant form
  3. Chronic form
85
Q

Nonspecific symptoms (such as fever, malaise, headache, anorexia, myalgia, and back pain), occurs within 1-4 weeks of exposure

A

Acute infection

86
Q

Undulating fevers (characterized by normal temperatures in the morning followed by high temperatures in the afternoon and evening), arthritis, and epididymo orchitis (inflammation of the epididymis and testis).

A

Subchronic or undulant form

87
Q

Depression, arthritis, and chronic fatigue syndrome. The chronic form commonly manifests 1 year after exposure with symptoms.

A

Chronic form

88
Q

Four commonly isolated species of Brucella

A

B. melitensis
B. abortus
B. suis
B. canis

89
Q

The preferred sample for isolation for Brucella spp.

A

Blood
Bone marrow

90
Q

Capnophilic member of the genus Brucella

A

B. abortus

91
Q

Implicated in most human infections; the causative agent of tularemia

A

F. tularensis

92
Q

A zoonotic disease also known as rabbit fever, deer fly fever, lemming fever, and water rat trappers’ disease

A

Tularemia

93
Q

The most common form of the disease is characterized by ulcers at the site of inoculation and enlargement of the regional lymph nodes

A

Ulceroglandular

94
Q

Appear as small, nonmotile, non-spore forming, gram-negative bacilli or coccoid bacteria that are strictly aerobic

A

Francisella

95
Q

Agar where Francisella can grow

A

Chocolate agar, Modified Thayer-Martin, and Buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar

96
Q

The infectious dose of Francisella is about _____ making it highly infectious

A

50 organisms

97
Q

Ubiquitous gram-negative bacilli

A

Legionella

98
Q

Legionella is responsible for _____ of community acquired pneumonia

A

2 to 15%

99
Q

Febrile disease with pneumonia

A

Legionnaire’s disease

100
Q

Legionnaire’s disease incubation period

A

2-10 days

101
Q

Characterized by dry cough, fever, headache, and myalgia

A

Legionnaire’s disease

102
Q

Bacteremia, kidney failure, liver disorders, diarrhea, and central nervous system abnormalities can also be present

A

Legionnaire’s disease

103
Q

Incubation period of Pontiac fever

A

2 days

104
Q

Flu-like symptoms, these include fever headache and myalgia that resolves without medical intervention legionella can be present

A

Pontiac fever

105
Q

Primary mode of transmission of Legionella

A

Inhalation of aerosolized water particles

106
Q

Specimens for diagnosis of Legionella spp.

A

Sputum and bronchial washing

107
Q

Detection of Legionella antigen in urine specimen using radioimmunoassay and enzyme immunoassay. What is this test?

A

Urine Antigen Test

108
Q

Fluorescein isothiocyanate labeled antibodies bind to antigens on the cell surface, and the Ag-Ab complexes are detected using a fluorescent microscope. What is this test?

A

Direct Fluorescent Antibody test

109
Q

Primary human pathogens of Bordetella

A

B. pertussis and B. parapertussis

110
Q

Causes whooping cough or pertussis

A

Bordetella

111
Q

An opportunistic pathogen, causing respiratory and wound infection

A

B. bronchiseptica

112
Q

Small, gram-negative, aerobic bacilli or coccobacilli

A

Bordetella

113
Q

Obligate aerobes that grow at 35-37 degrees

A

Bordetella

114
Q

Bordetella are obligate aerobes that grow at _____

A

35 to 37 degree Celsius

115
Q

Bordetella spp. that exhibits motility

A

B. bronchiseptica

116
Q

Virulence factors of B. pertussis and B. parapertussis

A
  1. Filamentous hemagglutinin and pertactin
  2. Pertussis toxin
  3. Tracheal cytotoxin
117
Q

Used to facilitate attachment to epithelial cell

A

Filamentous hemagglutinin and pertactin

118
Q

Interferes with signal transduction within cells

A

Pertussis toxin

119
Q

Promotes cell death

A

Tracheal cytotoxin

120
Q

Three phases of disease of B. pertussis and B. parapertussis

A
  1. Catarrhal phase
  2. Paroxysmal phase
  3. Convalescent phase
121
Q

– Nonspecific signs such as sneezing, cough, runny nose, and conjunctivitis can be present; infection is highly communicable.
- Respiratory distress can be seen in infants

A

Catarrhal phase

122
Q

Sudden onset of sever, repetitive coughing followed by the characteristic “whoop” at the end of the coughing spell

A

Paroxysmal phase

123
Q

Decrease in frequency and severity of coughing spells; patients recover within weeks or months

A

Convalescent phase

124
Q

● A human disease with no animal reservoir or vector
● Acquired through respiratory droplet or direct contact with secretions
● One of the most highly communicable diseases of childhood
● Adults may or may not experience respiratory symptoms

A

Pertussis

125
Q

● Respiratory tract pathogen of animals including dogs, in which it causes kennel cough
● Humans can acquire disease, such as those who have contact with animals or the immunosuppressed

A

B. bronchiseptica

126
Q

Specimen of choice for Brucella spp.

A

Nasopharyngeal aspirates or swab

BACTE - FINALS (5 decks)

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