Diagnosis Of Viral Infections 1,2,3 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the classification of infective micro organisms by risk group.

A

-Risk group 1: no/low individual & community risk
-Risk group 2: moderate individual risk & low community risk
-Risk group 3: high individual risk, low community risk
>pathogen that causes serious human or animal disease but doesnt spread from one infected invidual to another
>effective T&P
-Risk group 4: high individual risk & community risk
>pathogen that causes serious human or animal disease that can be readily transmitted from one individual to another (directly/indirectly)
>NO effective T&P

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2
Q

Describe BSL4.

A

-max containment lab
-dangerous & exotic pathogens in risk group 4 like Ebola virus
-neg air pressure in lab room
-incoming & outgoing hair is HEPA filtered (high efficiency particulate air)
-sterilization thru double door auto claving system
-suit decontamination shower after leaving

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3
Q

Definitions!

A
  1. Biohazard
    -biological substances that pose a threat to health of living organisms
  2. Biosafety
    -containment principles, technologies, practices that are implemented to prevent unintentional exposure to pathogens & toxins (or accidental release)
  3. Aerosol
    -sm droplets of fluid that spread via air (viruses can be spread this way)
  4. Bio security
    -protection, control, & accountability for valuable biological materials (VBM) in labs to prevent their unauthorized access, loss, theft, misuse, diversion, or intentional release
  5. Assay
    -qual/quantitative measurement of a target entity/analyte like drug or bio molecule
  6. Gold standard test
    -diagnostic test considered to be most accurate & best avail under particular condition or set of conditions
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4
Q

Describe how the timing of sample collection is important for 3 different types of tests.

A
  1. Virus isolation
    -specimens collected soon after onset of symptoms bc max amount of titers of virus are present
    >chance of viral recovery is best during 1st 3d after onset & is reduced beyond 5d
  2. Serological test
    -2 blood specimen collected
    >1 during acute phase of illness
    >2 during convalescence period
  3. Molecular diagnostics
    -PCR
    -collected during early part of illness
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5
Q

Describe why transport & storage of samples are important.

A

-viral transport medium (VTM) = swabs
-to prevent spills
>triple packing system

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6
Q

Describe the different way to diagnose viral infections.

A
  1. CS
  2. Necropsy (gross eval)
  3. Histopathology
  4. Cultivation/isolation of virus in cells/tissue culture
  5. Inoculation in eggs
  6. Electron microscopy
    -virus in sample & virus that cant be grown in vitro
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7
Q

Describe the different types of electron microscopy.

A
  1. Negative stain
    -electron beam = stain absorbs electrons in higher amounts than the sample
    -parts of the viral particles that aren’t penetrated by the stain appear as electron lucent (low affinity, less electron density) VS opaque (high affinity, electron dense) background
    -fluid matrix must have approx 10^6-10^7 virions per ml to detect virus particles
  2. Scanning electron microscope
  3. Transmission electron microscope
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8
Q

Describe the differences between TEM & SEM.

A
  1. TEM
    -transmitted electrons
    -sees what’s inside or beyond the surface
    -2D images
    -ADV: high magnification & greater resolution
  2. SEM
    -scattered electrons
    -focuses on surface & composition
    -ADV: 3D images
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9
Q

Describe sensitivity VS specificity.

A
  1. Sensitivity
    -probability (%) that cases w the inf (determined by the result of the reference or gold standard test) will have a pos result using the test under eval
  2. Specificity
    -probability (%) that cases w/o inf (determined by result of the reference or gold standard test) will have a neg result using the test under eval
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10
Q

Describe collection of serum VS plasma.

A
  1. Serum = red top vacutainer tube
  2. Plasma = lavender top EDTA vacutainer tube
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11
Q

Describe the different types of serological assays for detection of viral infections.

A
  1. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
    -Direct ELISA
    -Indirect ELISA
    -Sandwich ELISA
    -Competitive ELISA
  2. Fluorescence antibody test (FAT)
  3. Immunohistochemistry
  4. Immunochromatography (lateral flow device)
  5. Agglutination
  6. Hemagglutination & inhibition test
  7. Agar gel immunodiffusion test
  8. Complement fixation test
  9. Neutralization assay
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12
Q

Describe the steps of ELISA.

A
  1. Antigen coated in a well
  2. Add antibody tagged w enzyme
  3. Antigen binds to enzyme tagged antibody
  4. Wash excess unbound antibodies
  5. Add substrate
  6. Enzyme tagged to antibody which is bound to antigen will change color of substrate
    >intensity of color indicates more pos reaction
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13
Q

Describe direct ELISA.

A

-antigens are immobilized & enzyme conjugated primary antibodies used to detect or quantify antigen conc
-specificity of primary antibody is imp

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14
Q

Describe indirect ELISA.

A

-primary antibodies aren’t labeled but instead detected w enzyme conjugated 2ndary antibodies that recog primary antibodies

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15
Q

Describe sandwich ELISA.

A

-antigen (meat) to be measured is bound between a layer of capture antibodies & a layer of detection antibodies
-2 antibodies (buns) critically chosen to prevent cross reactivity or competitions of binding sites

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16
Q

Describe competitive ELISA.

A

-dec in signal when compared to assay wells w purified antigen alone = presence of antigen in sample (pos result)

17
Q

Describe fluorescence antibody test.

A
  1. Direct FAT
    -labelled antibodies added onto sample (antigen)
    -visible fluorescence appears at the binding sites of the specific antibodies (antigen-antibody binding)
  2. Indirect FAT (IFAT)
    -secondary antibody labeled w fluorescent marker that recog the primary antibody bound to antigen
18
Q

Describe immunohistochemistry.

A

-antibody tagged w enzyme (horseradish peroxidase)
-enzyme reacts w substrate to make colored prod that can be visualized in the inf cell w light microscope

19
Q

Describe immunochromatography.

A

-form of point of care (POC) test that is simple to perform, easy to carry, & doesnt require special equipment

20
Q

Describe agglutination.

A

-using the property of specific antibodies to bind many antigens (antigens on pathogen, or antigen coated particles - latex beads) into single clumps to form lg complexes = easily precipitated
-precipitation can be microscopically or macroscopically visible

21
Q

Describe hemagglutination & hemagglutination inhibition test.

A

-relies on property of some pathogens (viruses) to non specifically agglutinate erythrocytes

22
Q

Describe agar gel immunodiffusion test.

A
23
Q

Describe the complement fixation test.

A
  1. Positive reaction
    -serum from patient has antibodies against virus A -> intact sheep RBCs settle at bottom = pos reaction
  2. Negative reaction
    -serum from patient is neg to virus A = it has no antibodies
    -hemolysis/destruction of sheep RBC = neg reaction
24
Q

Describe neutralization assay.

A

-loss of infectivity thru reaction of virus w specific antibody
-presence of unneutralized virus detected by reactions like CPE, hemabsorption/hemagglutination, plaque formation, disease
-virus & serum (antibodies) are mixed under appropriate condition & then inoculated into cell culture, eggs, animals = antigen-antibody reaction
-antibody bound virus (neutralized) becomes non infectious & cant make desired effects in eggs, cell lines, or animals

25
Q

Describe PCR and the steps.

A

amplification of viral genome/DNA
1. Desaturation
2. Annealing
3. Extension/elongation

26
Q

Describe real time/quantitative PCR.

A

-adv PCR that allows monitoring & quantification of inc accumulation of PCR products/nucleic acid load as the reaction progresses (useful to study virus loads in a patient)
1. Target specific probe labelled w fluorescent dye like the 5’nuclease TaqMan probes, molecular beacons, or FRET hybridization probes
2. Interacalating dyes like SYBR green used in conventional PCR reaction
>fluorescence emitted by excited fluorophore is visualized & analyzed
*<30 CT = higher pos reaction (high conc of viral genome in sample)

27
Q

Describe genome sequencing.

A

-DNA sequencing where the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule is elucidated/can be obtained & read

28
Q

Describe next generation sequencing.

A

-surveillance studies rely on NGS tech that are replacing conventional seq methods
-NGS like Illumina (Solexa) seq are cheaper, quicker, needs less DNA, high throughput, more accurate & reliable than Sanger sequencing

29
Q

Describe metagenomics.

A

-study of collective set of microbial pop in a sample by analyzing the sample entire nucleotide seq content
>method for random detection of existing & new pathogens
-amplify & seq of whole genome DNA/RNA in a sample -> filter & analysis of obtained data by comparing w genome database & using diff softwares
-NGS platforms = high throughput seq capacity used in these studies

30
Q

Describe the importance of genome sequencing.

A

IMP in surveillance studies:
1. Pathogen detection
2. Studies on genetic variation (genotyping, evolution, inter species transmissions of pathogens)
3. ID of novel & undiscovered strains
4. Development of diagnostics (genotyping primers, probes)
5. ID genes associated w drug resistance
6. Develop therapeutics
7. Judge efficacy of current vaccines & formulate new vaccine strat

31
Q

Describe phylogenetic analysis.

A

-use of virus genome seq data to study evolution of viruses & genetic relationships among viruses

32
Q

Describe microarrays.

A

-known DNA (probes), amplified by PCR/RT-PCR spotted onto glass or silicon chip
-target/sample DNA fluorescently labeled & hybridized/added to chip w DNA probes
-+ reactions between probe DNA & sample DNA (hybridization) gen a fluorescent signal from spot where probe DNA spotted in chip
*ADV: detect 100s of path in surveillance study & can be screened for simultaneously using single microarray chip