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HIGH-YIELD BOOK REVIEWERS > REMBE - PSYCH > Flashcards

REMBE - PSYCH Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following characteristics are exhibited by a passive-aggressive personally EXCEPT
a. Pouting
b. Stubbornness
c. Procrastination
d. Indecisiveness

A

D. Indecisiveness is a characteristic of a passive-dependent personality.

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2
Q

All of the following characteristics are exhibited by a passive-dependent personality EXCEPT
a. Lack of self-confidence
b. Indecisiveness
c. Emotional dependency
d. Pouting

A

D. Pouting is a characteristic of a passive-aggressive personality.

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3
Q

A patient who is oversuspicious, with delusions of persecution, is pathognomonic of
a. Paranoia
b. Hebephrenia
c. Catatonia
d. Passive-aggressive personality

A

A. Based on deep-seated mistrust of other persons and persecution by them;
this is a patient with paranoia.

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4
Q

The term used to describe a condition in which a person has abnormal fear of heights is
a. Agoraphobia
b. Acrophobia
c. Algophobia
d. Mysophobia

A

B. Definition of acrophobia.

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5
Q

Which of the following is the most serious or severe form of mental disease?
a. Psychoneurotic disorder
b. Psychophysiologic disorders
c. Psychotic disorders
d. Psychosomatic disorders

A

C. This is according to the classification on mental disorders. Treatment is the most difficult.

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6
Q

The earliest stage of development and associated appropriate behavior for the first year of life is
a. Oral period
b. Anal period
c. Genital period
d. Latency period

A

A. The year old child is mostly concerned with eating and depending upon parents; thus he is in the oral period.

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7
Q

The Bender Gestalt test can be used as
a. An individual motivator
b. A group IQ test
c. A measurement for verbal and abstract thinking
d. A projection test

A

D. This test does not measure IQ or abstract thinking. It measures visual motor thinking.

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8
Q

Avoidance learning by the patient is best described as
a. Not used for understanding neurotic behavior
b. Acts out his conflicts by aberrant behavior
c. The ego retains its reality-testing functions
d. Acquired from negative reinforcement

A

D. This is generally an adaptive reaction to threatening stimuli.

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9
Q

In comparing the hebephrenic type with catatonic type of schizophrenic reaction, the former includes
a. More frequent hallucinations
b. Less frequent regression
c. No dissociation between affect and identical content
d. Very aggressive and destructive behavior

A

B. Hebephrenia is characterized by disorganized thinking that is bizarre, and not positioning of the patient’s body.

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10
Q

A psychotic reaction in which there is severe disturbance in affect so that the moods of the individual may swing between hyperactivity and hypoactivity is called
a. Schizophrenic reaction
b. Paranoid reaction
c. Involutional psychotic reaction
d. Manic-depressive reaction

A

D. This is the definition of manic depression.

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11
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by
a. Male with multiple X chromosomes
b. Female with multiple X chromosomes
c. Female with less than two X chromosomes
d. Male with no X chromosomes

A

A. Male has more than two X chromosomes and a Y chromosome.

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12
Q

Which of the following defense mechanisms is utilized by a paranoid patient?
a. Sublimation
b. Projection
c. Regression
d. Rationalization

A

B. Paranoid personality patients use projection as a defense mechanism to ascribe hostility to others.

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13
Q

All of the following are characteristics of a dependent personality EXCEPT
a. Physically deficient
b. Emotional responses below par
c. Unable to see a problem through to a successful conclusion
d. Show poor judgment

A

A. These individuals are passive, lack confidence, and their indecisiveness causes others to assume responsibility. It has nothing to do with physical disability.

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14
Q

All of the following are classified as personality pattern disturbances EXCEPT
a. Inadequate personality
b. Schizoid personality
c. Paranoid personality
d. Emotionally unstable personality

A

D. Emotionally unstable personality is a personality disorder.

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15
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the paranoid personality?
a. Wide mood swings from elation to depression
b. Tendency for suspicion of the motivation of others
c. Extremely childish
d. Distortion in the passive and aggressive elements of the personality

A

B. Definition of a paranoid personality.

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT applicable to the defense mechanism of rationalization?
a. It is one of the most common defense mechanisms used by the ego
b. It is used to a certain extent by nearly everyone
c. This mechanism helps prevent distress from developing within the ego
d. The original affect for one object is transferred to another obiect

A

D. The answer is describing projection as the defense mechanism.

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17
Q

Which defense mechanism is being used by the ego when it reverts from a present level of psychosexual adjustment to a former more infantile level?
a. Isolation
b. Undoing
c. Regression
d. Displacement

A

C. Regression is one that reverts to previous successful developmental stage.

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18
Q

The defense mechanism that unconsciously transfers normal body movements to abnormal is called
a. Conversion
b. Rationalization
c. Regression
d. Isolation

A

A. This transfer is unconscious and is associated with hysterical paralysis.

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19
Q

All of the following statements are relevant to a neurosis or neurotic illness
EXCEPT
a. Less severe than a psychosis
b. Thinking processes may be impaired
c. Judgment is impaired
d. Regressive behavior and attitudes

A

D. Regressive behaviour is a psychic defense mechanism

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20
Q

All of the following etiological processes apply to the acute brain syndrome
EXCEPT
a. Cerebral thrombosis
b. Cardiac failure
c. Cerebral embolism
d. Cerebral arteriosclerosis

A

D. Cerebral arteriosclerosis is a chronic disease taking long periods of time to develop. The remaining answers indicate an acute or sudden onset of illness.

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21
Q

All of the following statements apply to schizophrenia EXCEPT:
a. Usually begins at about middle age
b. There is a break with reality
c. The onset may be sudden or it may be gradual
d. Unconscious material is no longer repressed by the ego

A

A. The onset is usually before middle age. All the other responses are symptoms of schizophrenia.

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22
Q

In comparing hypomania to the manic syndrome, the former
a. Is more severe
b. The disturbance is personality function is more marked
c. Is outgoing, flamboyant, reckless, and impulsive
d. There is more of a tendency for suicide

A

C. Describes the characteristics of hypomania versus mania, which is opposite.

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23
Q

All of the following statements describe a compulsive personality EXCEPT:
a. There is a lack of overt obsessions or compulsions
b. The individual is a perfectionist
c. There is general rigidity of the personalit
d. Tend to be suspicious of the motivation of others

A

D. The answer is a description of a paranoid disorder.

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24
Q

Conditioned response or respondent conditioning is the result of
a. Discrimination
b. Operant
c. Regression
d. Reinforcement

A

D. Conditioned response must be reinforced to be effective.

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25
Q

Operant conditioning is a process in which the behavior is
a. Introjected
b. Denied
c. Strengthened
d. Isolated

A

C. Operant conditioning is dependent on the strengthening of the behaviour to be modified.

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26
Q

The defense mechanism of reaction formation is quite closely related to
a. Undoing
b. Sublimation
c. Projection
d. Rationalization

A

A. Undoing is the opposite of an act; the same as action formation.

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27
Q

In considering petit mal disorders and similar psychomotor types, both have
a. The so-called aura
b. Brief duration
c. A tonic phase followed by a clonic phase
d. Amnesia for whatever occurred during the seizure

A

D. Both seizures will exhibit loss of memory, either temporary or for long periods of time.

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28
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a sensory disturbance developing as a conversion reaction?
a. Gradual onset
b. Stockinglike distribution over an extremity
c. A pattern of anesthesia following dermatome distribution
d. Produce no line of demarcation

A

B. The difference between actual anatomic disturbances and dysfunction is a stocking-like distribution over an extremity.

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29
Q

Which of the following personality disorders is LESS incapacitating to the individual’s adiustment?
a. Inadequate personality
b. Cyclothymic personality
c. Paranoid personality
d. Compulsive personality

A

D. These individuals can be highly productive at work and are sensitive to social criticism and can adjust to it.

30
Q

Which of the following conditions may lead to extreme violence in which maniacal crimes mav be committed?
a. Grand mal epilepsy
b. Petit mal epilepsy
c. Psychomotor equivalent
d. Manic-depressive psychosis, manic phase

A

C. The psychomotor equivalent: The individual maintains delusional convictions and will not face reality.

31
Q

Which of the following drugs assists schizophrenic individuals to function more effectivelv?
a. Lithium carbonate
b. Methylphenidate
c. Nortriptyline
d. Fluphenazine enanthine

A

D. It is a long-lasting depot antipsychotic medication. The other drugs are not as long-lasting.

32
Q

The difference between schizophrenic and schizophreniform disorders is
a. Age at onset
b. Duration of illness
c. Nature of symptoms
d. Absence of stress

A

B. The main difference is the duration of the illness; 6 months or more for the former, and less than 6 months for the latter.

33
Q

Purposeful forgetting of internal urgings or external events which would be painful for the ego is an example of
a. Sublimation
b. Projection
c. Rationalization
d. Repression

A

D. Definition of repression.

34
Q

An individual with symptoms of delusion for the past 8 months probably can be diagnosed as
a. Acute paranoid
b. Folie a deux
c. Paranoia
d. Schizophrenia

A

C. Paranoia involves chronic delusions for at least 6 months duration.

35
Q

The most frequent type of schizophrenic disorder admitted to the hospital is
a. Catatonic
b. Paranoid
c. Autistic
d. Hebephrenic

A

B. According to recent findings, paranoia is the most frequent schizophrenic disorder admitted to the hospital.

36
Q

The triad of wernicke’s syndrome includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. Clouded consciousness
b. Ophthalmoplegia
c. Amnesia
d. Ataxia

A

C. Amnesia is a result of Korsakoff’s syndrome, not Wernicke’s.

37
Q

The triad described by Korsakoff included all of the following EXCEPT
a. Amnesia
b. Confabulation
c. Ataxia
d. Peripheral neuropathy

A

C. Ataxia is a result of Wernicke’s syndrome, not Korsakoff’s syndrome.

38
Q

A psychoneurosis characterized by the presence of one or more unexplained, severe, or unrealistic fears is called
a. Dissociative reaction
b. Conversion reaction
c. Obsessive-compulsive reaction
d. Phobic reaction

A

D. Phobic disorders are characteristic of intense fear of some specific object, activity, or situation.

39
Q

A condition of pathological overeating is called
a.porphyria
b. dysphagia
c. enuresis bulimia

A

D. The other conditions deal with urination, speech, or congenital metabolic errors.

40
Q

Tourette’s disorder is characterized by
a. Barks, grunts, or snorts
b. Bed wetting
c. Sleep walking and terrors
d. Encopresis and colic

A

A. This disorder is characterized by unusual vocal sounds.

41
Q

Anorexia nervosa ll a disorder that causes
a. Severe vomiting
b. Severe weight gain
c. Severe weight loss
d. Severe diarrhea

A

C. A serious disorder that involves young women or girls who have an intense fear of becoming obese.

42
Q

A condition which, if untreated, results in mental retardation is
a. Pavor nocturnus
b. Phenylketonuria
c. Folie a deux
d. Pick’s disease

A

B. It is an amino acid disorder that, if left undetected at birth, will lead to mental retardation later in life.

43
Q

The ego
a. Exists at birth
b. Is undifferentiated as far as psyche structure is concerned
c. Assumes control of conscious activity
d. Is absorbed in the unconscious soon after birth

A

C. It is the only structure with conscious activity, but does have unconscious functions such as defense mechanism.

44
Q

That portion of the personality termed the superego is
a. Unconscious in its entirety
b. The reservoir of instincts
c. The intermediary between the unconscious and the outside world
d. The individual censorship mechanism between right and wrong

A

D. It identifies with ideals and authority.

45
Q

The chief mechanism whereby the superego enforces its demands upon the psyche is in the production of
a. Somatic illness
b. Anxiety
c. Guilt
d. Fear

A

C. It identifies heavily on guilt, so that persons perceives things as unacceptable.

46
Q

Which of the following symptoms is basic to every type of psychoneurosis?
a. Hysteria
b. Anxiety
c. Some type of somatic disturbance
d. Amnesia

A

B. Anxiety is regarded as the chief characteristic of all neurotic conditions because everyone experiences it.

47
Q

Personality disorders of children include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Chronic aggressive reaction
b. Juvenile delinquency
c. Passive-aggressive reaction
d. Anxiety reaction

A

Anxiety reaction is learned as defense mechanism such as fear, right from wrong, etc.

48
Q

Briquet’s disease is a form of
a. Hypochondria
b. Hallucination
c. Hebephrenia
d. Hysteria

A

This is a form of hysteria that deals with physical illness that is not present.

49
Q

Which is a characteristic of a dysthymic disorder?
a. Recurrent, mild moods of hypomania and depression
b. Poor response to psychotherapy
c. Absence of psychomotor symptoms
d. Chronic severe depression

A

D. Chronic depression is a characteristic of a dysthymic disorder. Recurrent periods of mild depression and hypomania are symptoms of cyclothymic disorders.

50
Q

Which of the following statements is true of uncomplicated bereavement?
a. Individuals affected consider it normal
b. It involves guilt feelings
c. It varies in duration by individual
d. All of the above

A

D. All of these are normal grief signs for a loved one.

51
Q

Characteristic of the cyclothymic personality include
a. Wide mood swings from elation to depression
b. Tendency of suspicion of the motivation of everyone
c. Extremely childish behavior
d. Distortion in the passive and aggressive elements of personality

A

A. Definition or signs of cyclothymic personality.

52
Q

Which of the following best describes tardive dyskinesia?
a. Misdiagnosed as psychomotor retardation
b. Persistent involuntary abnormal movements
c. Complication of lithium therapy
d. Best treated with anticholinergic medication

A

B. Definition and description of tardive dyskinesia.

53
Q

Which of the following conditions are diagnosed more often in men than in women?
a. Nutritional disorders
b. Mineral disorders
c. Affective disorders
d. Antisocial personality

A

D. Statistics have shown more men have an antisocial personality.

54
Q

All of the following are childhood adolescent adjustment disorders EXCEPT
a. Enuresis
b. Paranoid delusions
c. Pica
d. Nightmares

A

B. Paranoid delusion is a psychosis, not an adjustment disorder.

55
Q

The most common drug used by American teenagers is
a. Heroin
b. Marijuana
c. Alcohol
d. Speed

A

C. Alcohol is the most common drug. It is the easiest to obtain and is socially acceptable.

56
Q

After the first episode of schzophreniform disorder a patient usually experiences
a. Stages of exuberance
b. Paranoid reaction
c. Depression
d. Somatization disorder

A

C. It has been estimated that as high as
50% of patients have depression after schizophrenia.

57
Q

A defense mechanism by society as a whole which diverts unacceptable drives into socially acceptable channels is known as
a. Substitution
b. Rationalization
c. Sublimation
d. Incorporation

A

C. Sublimation is a permitted expression, although in disguised form.

58
Q

A psychotic patient is under the delusion that a certain part of his body is nonexistent. The term used to describe this condition is
a. Narcolepsy
b. Neologism
c. Nihilism
d. Autism

A

C. It is the definition of nihilism.

59
Q

A schizophrenic patient used stereotyped meaningless repetition of words. This is known as
a. Perseveration
b. Neologism
c. Narcolepsy
d. Verbigeration

A

D. Another word for verbigeration is
“word salad” when using incoherent syllables.

60
Q

Dysphagia is a term used to describe
a. Difficult or painful swallowing
b. Impaired or difficult speech
c. A person with disturbed orientation with respect to time, space, or place
d. A congenital defect of the spinal cord

A

A. Definition of dysphagia.

61
Q

Which of the following terms is used as a defense mechanism associated with depression?
a. Delusion
b. Denial introjection
c. Dependency

A

C. It is the opposite of projection.

62
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe the condition of a person who is unable to produce normal speech sounds?
a. Asthenia
b. Autism
c. Aphonia
d. Ataractic

A

C. Definition of normal speech sounds.

63
Q

An acute or chronic brain syndrome is characterized by impairment of all of the following components EXCEPT
a. Memory
b. Intellectual functions
c. Judgment
d. Speech

A

D. All the other answers are clinical symptoms of organic brain syndrome.

64
Q

A person with an organic brain disorder is unable to recognize familiar objects through visual, auditory, or somesthetic impressions and to interpret their significance.
The term used to describe this condition in genral is
a. Aphasia
b. Agnosia
c. Apraxia
d. Aphonia

A

B. Definition of the word agnosia.

65
Q

A stroke patient is unable to talk, to name common objects, or to formulate words because of brain damage. This condition is termed
a. Aphasia
b. Agnosia
c. Apraxia
d. Akathisa

A

A. Definition of the term aphasia.

66
Q

Defense mechanisms are used to resolve emotional conflict. All of the following are common defense mechanisms EXCEPT
a. Compensation
b. Identification
c. Projection
d. Depression

A

D. Depression is not a defense mechanism, but a diagnosis for a mental disorder.

67
Q

A syndrome that is affected by the use of drugs is
a. Hypnagogic imagery
b. Hypesthesia
c. latrogenic
d. Oligophrenia

A

C. Various syndromes are associated with different categories of drugs.

68
Q

A pathological preoccupation or morbid compulsion involving alcoholic beverages is called
a. Erogomania
b. Dipsomania
c. Nymphomania
d. Megalomania

A

B. Definition of dipsomania.

69
Q

Frequently in schizophrenia, a person may coin a new word or condense a combination of words that expresses a complex meaning related to his conflicts. These words or phrases are not readily understood by anyone else and are termed a
a. Neologism
b. Nihilism
c. Voyeurism
d. Narcissism

A

A. Definition of neologism.

70
Q

The term used to describe a condition of uncontrollable, excessive talking is
a. Libido
b. Logorrhea
c. Iatrogenic illness fugue

A

B. Definition of the term logorrhoea.

71
Q

About 25% of all first admissions to mental hospitals are classified as
a. Paranoid reaction
b. Schizophrenic reaction
c. Manic-depressive reaction
d. Involutional psychotic reaction

A

B. First-admission diagnosis of mental patients is schizophrenia.

72
Q

Approximately what percentage of patients in mental hospitals have a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
a. 10% or less
b. 10-20%
c. 20-30%
d. 40-50%

A

D. Recent survey of state and local mental hospitals showed at least 50% of the patients had schizophrenia.

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