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HIGH-YIELD BOOK REVIEWERS > REMBE - ELECTRO > Flashcards

REMBE - ELECTRO Flashcards

1
Q

Wavelength of short ultraviolet radiation is
a. 700-1500 mu
b. 1600-12,000 mu
c. 0.1-3 mm
d. 180-290 mu

A

D. It has lower heat output and is portable; long wave is 290-400 mu

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2
Q

wavelength of long ultrasound radiation is
a. 700-1500 m
b. 290-400 mu
c. 180-290 m
d. 0.1-3 mm

A

B. It has a higher heat output and is not portable; short wave is 180-220 mu.

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3
Q

What ultraviolet wavelength will produce reticuloendothelial stimulation?
a. 2600-2700 A
b. 2700-3000 À
C. 2900-4000 A
d. 2400-2600 À

A

C. the other wave lengths cause destruction of bacteria, formation of vitamin D, or erythema without pigmentation.

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4
Q

The magnitude of radiation flux at any particular point of the skin depends upon the
a. Cross-sectional diameter of the radiation beam
b. Distance of that point from the radiating element
c. Wavelength of the radiation
d. Source of the radiation

A

B. this is the Bunsen-Roscoe law of reciprocity

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5
Q

The major portion of radiation from long infrared is absorbed in the
a. Corium of the skin
b. Subcutaneous layers of the skin
c. Stratum corneum
d. Stratum mucosum

A

C. Short infrared penetrates to the subcutaneous tissue, while long infrared is more superficial.

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6
Q

The major advantage of infrared heat lamp is
a. It filters out harmful ultraviolet rays
b. Local metabolism is increased
c. Erythemia is produced
d. It emits radiation only (ultraviolet rays)

A

B. it increases metabolism, perspiration, vasodilation, and muscle relaxation.

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7
Q

The penetration of infrared radiation into skin tissue depends upon
a. Wavelength
b. Intensity of the source
c. Thickness of glass in the heat lamp
d. Wattage of the lamp

A

A. only wave lengths can cause penetration.

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8
Q

A natural source of infrared radiation is sunlight. Approximately what percentage of average sunlight is infrared radiation as compared to ultraviolet radiation?
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 70%

A

C. only 40% of the sun’s rays are ultraviolet; thus 60% are some type of infrared rays.

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9
Q

All of the following statements apply to short-wave infrared radiation EXCEPT:
a. Luminous infrared
b. Tungsten filament
c. 1500-12,000 m wavelength range
d. Penetrates as deeply as 10mm into skin tissue

A

C. These wave lengths involve ultraviolet radiation.

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10
Q

The primary effect of radiant energy on tissue is
a. Increase in circulation
b. Reduction of pain
c. Decrease in muscle spasm
d. Thermal

A

D. thermal is the primary effect while the other answers are a result of the thermal effect.

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11
Q

Mottled appearance on the skin after repeated heat radiation is called
a. Erythemia dosage
b. Erythemia ad lib
c. Erythemia ab igne
d. Erythema pigmentation

A

C. this is an undesirable mottled pigmentation from repeated exposure.

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12
Q

The normal polar formula for a galvanic current is
a. CCC-ACC-COC-AOC
b. CCC-COC-AOC-ACC
c. CCC-ACC-AOC-COC
d. CCC-AOC-ACC-COC

A

C. this means cathode closing contraction (CCC), anode closing contraction (ACC), anode opening closing
(AOC), and cathode opening contraction
(COC). The other answers are abnormal muscle tone.

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13
Q

All of the following take place during a full or total reaction of degeneration to a muscle following a peripheral nerve injury EXCEPT:
a. The longitudinal reaction is positive
b. There is decreased excitability to the galvanic current
c. There is no response to faradic stimulation
d. The chronaxie is decreased

A

D. The chronaxie is increased following a peripheral nerve injury, not decreased.

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14
Q

All of the following are ions with a positive charge and may be introduced into tissue with the positive pole of a direct current EXCEPT:
a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Histamine
d. Salicylic acid

A

D. Salicylic acid is negative

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15
Q

In iontophoresis, one should keep the current strength in relation to the size of the electrodes. Approximately what milliamperage of galvanic current may be used as a guide per square inch of electrode surface?
a. 0.5-1
b. 1-2
C. 2-4
d. 2-3

A

A. if you have a 3x3 inch pad, the normal milliampere of current for an average patient’s tolerance is from 6 to 9 miliamperes. By dividing 9 square inches in 9 milliamperes, you get 1.

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16
Q

Compare the use of histamine and mecholyl in common ion transfer by the continuous galvanic current. All of the following apply to mecholy EXCEPT
a. Produces a more intense local counterirritation
b. Deposited in deeper layers of the skin and is more gradually absorbed
c. Systemic effects occur as a rule and more often
d. Gives best results in joint affections, peptic ulcer disease, and in varicose
Ulcers

A

A. Mecholyl produces a more intense local hyperaemia, not a conterirritation.

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17
Q

For each degree Fahrenheit rise of body temperature, the pulse rate will increase about
a. 2 beats
b. 4 beats
c. 6 beats
d. 10 beats

A

D. due to the increase in circulation, a rise of the pulse rate in a ratio of 10 beats/degree rise in Fahrenheit.

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18
Q

An example of the transmission of heat by conduction is
a. Diathermy
b. Hot water bottle
c. Ultrasound
d. Microthermy

A

B. The other answers are either convection or radiation.

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19
Q

According to the temperature law of van’t Hoff, for every rise of 10°C the rate of oxidation is increased how many times?
a. Once
b. Twice c. 2.5
d. 3

A

C. this in turn causes temperature changes of even tenths of degree which will influence cellular oxidation.

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20
Q

The range of the wavelength for long -wave infrared radiation is approximately
a. 4000-8000 m
b. 4000-8000
c. 800-1500 m
d. 1500-12,000 m

A

D. Short wave infrared is 700-1500 mu;
the long is from 1500 to 12,000 mu.

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21
Q

Complications that may result from excess ultraviolet radiation are
a. Impetigo
b. Herpes simplex
c. Telangiectasia
d. All of the above

A

D. All of the answer are correct because of the susceptibility of the skin to infection

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22
Q

the galvanic-tetanus ratio of normal muscle is
a. 10-12 to 1
b. 1 to 1
c. Applicable only to denervated muscle
d. None of the above

A

A. 10-12 to 1; for enervated muscle the ratio is 1:1.

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23
Q

Increase in the chronaxie of a muscle signifies
a. Significant factor
b. Excitability of muscle decrease
c. Intensity
d. Constant current

A

B. If the chrnaxie is increased the muscle excitability is decreased; this is due to the fact that chronaxie is reciprocal of excitability.

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24
Q

The area of the body most sensitive to ultraviolet radiation is
a. Face
b. Hands
c. Feet
d. Arms

A

A. The most sensitive areas are the face chest, abdomen, and the back, followed by the feet and arms. Hands are less sensitive than other body parts.

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25
Q

Compare the characteristics of two luminous infrared generators, one of 150 watts and one of 1500 watts intensity. The latter will
a. Penetrate deeper into tissue
b. Emit radiation ranging from 1500 to 12,000 m
c. Emit short wave infrared radiation
d. Be less satisfactory to treat larger areas of the body

A

C. Does not feel as hot because it is a short-wave infrared.

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26
Q

Luminous infrared radiation
a. Penetrates more deeply into tissues with high wattage
b. Has a wavelength range of 1500-12,000 m
c. Has tungsten filaments as a source
d. Has a longer wavelength than non luminous infrared radiation

A

C. Has a tungsten filament and has a shorter wave length.

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27
Q

Whether local or general effects result from infrared radiation depends upon
a. Wavelength of radiation
b. Frequency of radiation
c. Intensity of radiation
d. Not a factor

A

C. the intensity and depth of radiation.

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28
Q

Which of the following apply to the clinical application of ultraviolet radiation?
a. Guide of dosage is the erythemal response of the patient
b. Standard skin burner distance is 30 inches
c. No erythemal dose should be administered until reaction from previous exposures has subsided
d. All of the above

A

D. all of the answers are correct.

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29
Q

The opposition offered by the electrical conductor to the flow of a current is represented by the
a. Ohm
b. Volt
c. Ampere
d. Farad

A

A. definition of an ohm.

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30
Q

Which of the following apply to positive ions?
a. Attracted to the anode
b. Produced by ionization of acids
c. Attracted to the cathode
d. Produces no ionization

A

C. A cathode is a negative pole and positive ions are attracted to negative poles.

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31
Q

The duration of the faradic impulse is about
a. 0.001 of a second
b. 1 megasecond
c. 0.01 of a second
d. Variable

A

A. one thousandth of a second; this is the standard tetanising current with each impulse having 1/1000 duration.

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32
Q

Electrical stimulation of enervated muscle
a. maintains part of its contractility and nutrition
b. does prevent atrophy
c. will produce an alternating contraction
d. maintains circulation

A

A. Muscle maintains its contractability even though the nerve may not because of the muscle’s motor parts.

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33
Q

when a muscle is in a state of partial reaction of degeneration, it responds to a tetanizing (faradic) current by
a. normal reaction
b. diminished response
c. no response
d. brisk contraction

A

B. The muscle in turn shows a diminished response during partial reaction of degeneration. Full reaction of degeneration shows no response.

34
Q

the tetanus-frequency of a denervated muscle is
a. 5-10/second
b. 30-50/second
c. Over 100/second
d. None of the above

A

A. It is 5-10 seconds as compared to 50 for a normal muscle.

35
Q

Qualitative changes in electrical reactions of muscle tissue are
a. Sluggish contraction
b. Hyperexcitability or hypoexcitability
c. Maximal contraction
d. A contraction which continues

A

A sluggish contractions are due to the reaction of degeneration of the muscle.

36
Q

The magnetron oscillator is a component of the
a. Short-wave diathermy
b. Ultrasound generator
c. Low-frequency generator
d. Microthermy

A

D. only the microwave diathermy has such an oscillator to produce the waves.

37
Q

Which of the following show the best conductivity of all tissues to an electrical current?
a. Skin
b. Tendon
c. Bone
d. Muscle

A

D. Muscle is the only one that will respond to an electrical current.

38
Q

A diaelectric substance is
a. A device for storing an electrical charge
b. A substance which is a good conductor of electricity
c. An electrolyte
d. An insulating substance allowing electrostatic induction across it

A

D. Definition of a dielectric substance.

39
Q

a full reaction of degeneration indicates which of the following conditions?
a. Lower motor neuron lesion
b. Upper motor neuron lesions
c. Recent CVA
d. Long-standing peripheral nerve injury

A

A. it is an electrical diagnostic tool that states if it is a lower motor neuron lesion by the way the muscle responds to electrical stimulation.

40
Q

Heating in an electromagnetic field
a. Produces eddy currents in conductive substances
b. Is a so-called current of capacity
C. Is less effective in vascular type of tissue
d. Is by a conduction current

A

A. it is the only field that produces eddy currents.

41
Q

High frequency (short wave diathermy) wavelength of 22 meters is
a. 27.12 MHz/second
b. 40 MHz/second
c. 13.56 Mhz/second
d. None of the above

A

C. Fow slow-wave diathermy of 22 meters, the MHz/second is 13.56.

42
Q

High frequency (short wave diathermy) wavelength of 11 meters is
a. 27.12 MHz/second
b. 40 MHz/second
c. 13.56 MHz/second
d. None of the above

A

A. as you reduce the meters, you double the MHz/second. Eleven meters has 27.12 MHz/second.

43
Q

A faradic coil
a. Is a device for the production of an induced current from an alternating current source
b. Contains a primary and a secondary coil
c. Produces an induced current less than the original current source
d. Contains a step-down transformer as one of its components

A

B. defines what a faradic coil is made or consists of.

44
Q

In iontophoresis, ions with a positive charge are introduced into the tissues with the positive pole of the direct current. Which of the following ions have a positive charge?
a. lodine
b. Histamine
c. Salicylic acid
d. Brass

A

B. histamine has a positive ion; the others have a negative ion.

45
Q

in stimulating enervated muscle, which of the following factors must be considered?
a. Intensity
b. Duration
c. Frequency
d. All of the above

A

D. all of the factors must be considered.

46
Q

The counterirritant effect produced by infrared radiation is best explained by
a. The increase in venous and arterial capillary pressure
b. A desensitization of superficial sensory nerves
c. The decrease of stimuli passing over sensory nerves
d. The sedative effect produced by mild heating

A

B. it desensitizes the superficial sensory nerves, before increase in circulation occurs.

47
Q

The unit of power is represented by the
a. Ohm
b. Volt
c. Ampere
d. Watt

A

D. definition of a watt.

48
Q

Which of the following changes are known as reaction of degeneration following a peripheral nerve injury?
a. Fatty degeneration of the muscle fibers
b. Atrophy of muscle cells
c. Degeneration of the nerve trunk
d. Changes in the electrical reaction of the muscle fibers

A

D. Reaction of degeneration deals with the changes in the electrical reaction of muscle.

49
Q

Pigmentation resulting from infrared radiation is
a. Homogeneous
b. Sharply bordered
c. mottled
d. Very light red

A

C. it is a mottled pigmentation from infrared; ultraviolet produces a small light red pigmentation.

50
Q

pigmentation resulting from ultraviolet radiation is
a. Homogeneous
b. Hereroneneous
c. Mottled
d. Dark red, spotted, or forms a network

A

A. it is homogeneous as compared to mottled for infrared.

51
Q

Ultrasound causes the greatest rise in temperature in tissues with
a. adipose
b. cartilage
c. tendon
d. protein

A

D. ultrasound causes a rise in temperature in muscle which is made of protein.

52
Q

when using ultrasound, cavitation can occur in which of the following?
a. After laminectomy
b. Carotid sinus
c. Infected wound
d. Plastic implants

A

A. After the surgical procedure of laminectomy; because of its ability to penetrate the spinal cord easily.

53
Q

Caviation from ultrasound in tissue layers can result from
a. Low intensity
b. Higher than therapeutic intensity
c. Therapeutic intensity
d. High intensity

A

B. Can cause cavitation with a high intensity setting.

54
Q

A patient complaining of a burning pain during ultrasound treatment indicates
a. Too much intensity
b. Too fast movement of sound head
c. Insufficient medium
d. Too much medium

A

C. Insufficient medium when using ultrasound can cause the sound head to remain in a spot too long.

55
Q

To increase the nerve conduction velocity while using ultrasound, what wattage do you use?
a. 2 w/cm2
b. 3 w/cm2
c. 1 w/cm2
d. 1.5 w/cm2

A

B. The wattage must be high or else the nerve conduction velocity will not increase.

56
Q

Ultrasound has what effect on membrane permeability?
a. No change
b. Alternating
c. Decrease
d. Increase

A

D. Ultrasound increases cell membrane permeability.

57
Q

Which of the following is an asymmetrical alternating current?
a. Square wave DC
b. Faradic impulse
c. Sine wave
d. Static wave

A

B. The faradic current is the only one that is asymmetrical.

58
Q

The conventional tens usage is based on what theory?
a. All or none
b. Open gate
c. Close gate
d. No gate

A

C. the close gate theory with reference to pain

59
Q

all of the following apply to chronaxie EXCEPT
a. it is represented by a point on the S-D curve
b. it is an index to muscle excitability
c. it is measured in milliseconds
d. it is represented by intensity

A

D. it is not represented by intensity of current.

60
Q

the rheobasic current for denervated muscle is
a. galvanic
b. faradic
c. sine
d. static

A

A. only galvanic current can be used for establishing a rheobase.

61
Q

when a motor nerve has been sectioned, the chronaxie
a. decreases
b. disappears
c. remains unaltered for a period of a week to 10 days
d. undergoes a longitudinal reaction

A

C. the chronaxie will not change for a weak to 10 days depending upon the degeneration process of the nerve.

62
Q

DuBois-Reymond’s law deals with
a. Rheobase
b. Chronaxie
c. Intensity of stimulus
d. Make-break law

A

C. this is the definition or meaning of the
law.

63
Q

Electrotonus causes the nerve irritability to
a. Decrease at cathode
b. Increase at cathode
c. Incrase at anode
d. No change at anode

A

B. to increase at the negative pole and increase at the positive pole; this is the definition of electrotonus.

64
Q

When the human skin absorbs ultraviolet radiation at the 2 mm level, the layer is called
a. Stratum granulosum
b. Statum spinosum
c. Basal cells
d. Stratum cornium

A

D. stratum-cornium is the layer of skin at the 2 mm level.

65
Q

In ultraviolet radiation, the intensity of radiation varies inversely with the square of the distance from the source. Which law applies?
a. Angulation of Rays law
b. Inverse square law
c. The law of Grotthus
d. DuBois-Reymond’s law

A

B. as the question states, it is inversely proportional; therefore, the answer must be the inrse quare law.

66
Q

All of the following statements apply to the reinforcing stimulus type sunlight lamps EXCEPT
a. Radiation below 2800 À is absorbed by the Corex D glass envelope
b. Radiation includes both ultraviolet and infrared
c. Produces ultraviolet effectiveness at 24 weeks
d. Requires no special electrical fixture

A
67
Q

Electromagnetic induction was discovered by
a. Joule
b. Isaac Newton
c. Galvanic
d. Faraday

A

D electromagnetic induction was discovered by Faraday.

68
Q

All of the following apply to a current of electricity EXCEPT
a. Heat is produced in all parts of the circuit
b. Chemical action is produced by a direct current
c. A magnetic needle is deflected when brought near a circuit when the current is flowing
d. Very rapid alternating currents produce no chemical effects

A

D. Current of electricity does not apply to very rapid alternating currents.

69
Q

When testing for the polarity of a direct current generator, all of the following statements occur EXCEPT
a. The pole which causes the most rapid bubbling is the anode
b. The pole which causes the most rapid bubbling is the cathode
c. The bubbles consist of hydrogen gas
d. The hydrogen ions have a positive charge

A

A. the pole which causes the most rapid bubbling is not the anode, but th cathode.

70
Q

All of the following items apply to short wave diathermy dosage EXCEPT
a. The heat sensation of the patient is the most effective guide to dosage
b. A rapid rise of heating is desirable
c. The meter does not register the amount of energy passing to the patient
d. The procedure must never cause pain during treatment

A

B. the desired effect is not a rapid rise of heat.

71
Q

All of the following apply to reaction of degeneration EXCEPT
a. The lesion is in the lower motor neuron
b. The stage of reaction of degeneration denotes the severity of the lesion
c. The stage of reaction of degeneration denotes the etiology of the lesion
d. It indicates an organic lesion

A

C. the stage of reaction of degeneration does not denote the etiology of a lesion.

72
Q

In a peripheral nerve lesion, there is no reaction of degeneration. This indicates that recovery will take place in
a. 2-4 weeks
b. 6-12 weeks
c. 6-12 months
d. It is a functional condition

A

A. if no reaction of degeneration has occurred in the first month, then there will be recovery. Reaction of degeneration occurs normally within the first 2 weeks.

73
Q

All of the following represent normal chronaxie values for skeletal muscle EXCEPT
a. 1/1000 second
b. 1 sigma
c. 1 millisecond
d. 1000 milliseconds

A

D. the normal range is from 0.1 to 200 milliseconds.

74
Q

The principal physical effect of iontophoresis by a direct current is an acid and alkaline reaction. The intensity of these reactions varies with the
a. Intensity of the current at each pole
b. Relative density of the current at each pole
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

C. both A and B are correct answers.

75
Q

In electromyography, denervated muscle would be indicated by
a. Fibrillation voltages (potentials)
b. Fasciculation voltages (potentials)
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

C. both A and B are correct answers.

76
Q

The minimal amount of current necessary to elicit threshold contraction of muscle is
a. Chronaxie
b. Rheobase
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

B. this is the definition of the rheobase.

77
Q

In a strength-duration curve, the variable factors are
a. Rheobase
b. Wave form
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

B. this is the variable factor ina S-D curve.

78
Q

There is no response to a faradic stimulation to muscle tissue in
a. Partial reaction of degeneration
b. Full reaction of degeneration
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

B. A full reaction of degeneration produces no response with stimulation.

79
Q

The primary effects of ultraviolet radiation on tissue is
a. Photochemical
b. Production of vitamin D
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

A. ultraviolet produces a photochemical reaction to the skin, not just production of vitamin D.

80
Q

The clinical effect of mild general body heating is
a. Decrease in blood pressure
b. Increase in pulse rate
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

C. both A and B are correct answers.

81
Q

In iontophoresis, vasodilating drugs would be used in
a. Rheumatic diseases
b. Peripheral vascular affections
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

C. both A and B are correct answers.

82
Q

A functional or hysterical paralysis will respond to
a. Galvanic current
b. Faradic current
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

C. both A and B are correct answers.

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