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Global 6000 Vision Ground School > Exam > Flashcards

Exam Flashcards

1
Q

When will the RAT deploy without time delay?

A

If both engines are lost and the slat/flap handle is not in the 0/0 position.

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2
Q

With only one AC generator operating in flight, which AC busses remain powered?

A

AC BUS 1 and 4.

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3
Q

What system is used for cooling the engine oil?

A

FCOC (Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler)

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4
Q

How do the engine run switches shut off the fuel to the engines?

A

By closing the high pressure shut off valve (HPSOV).

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5
Q

With is the primary method used by FADEC to control engine power?

A

EPR

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6
Q

What is the rated static thrust of the BR710A2-20 engine at sea level to ISA+20?

A

14,750 lbs

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7
Q

What is the default engine synchronisation mode?

A

EPR.

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8
Q

During an engine start, the FADEC is using Channel A and Igniter 1. What FADEC channel and igniter will be used for the next engine start?

A

Channel B, Igniter 1.

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9
Q

Use of rated take-off EPR is limited to:

A

5 minutes AEO
10 minutes OEI

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10
Q

How is the use of cross-side frequencies displayed on the CTP?

A

Displayed in Amber.

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11
Q

For the ISI to provide LOC/GS deviation:

A

It must be tuned to Nav 2.

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12
Q

On the FMA, an active mode is which colour?

A

Green.

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13
Q

If both pilots are using the same ILS source:

A
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14
Q

What is the maximum radar range?

A

320nm (display 300nm).

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15
Q

What are the prohibited areas for the cursor on the Display Units?

A

Both PFDs and the permanent EICAS/Status page.

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16
Q

When will the Flight Director come into view on the PFD?

A

1 second after the nosewheel has lifted off the ground.

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17
Q

What happens if the display unit with EICAS (DU 2) fails?

A

EICAS/System page moves to the MFW of DU1.

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18
Q

What is indicated by the “MSG” soft key on the lower part of the DU showing yellow text on a grey background?

A

High priority message(s) are unread.

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19
Q

In the event of more than 1 page of CAS messages, what additional information is present on the CAS?

A

A text line is shown at the bottom of the CAS messages list when multiple pages exist.

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20
Q

How can an EMS CDU pilot selected test function be terminated?

A

By reselecting the associated activation key on the right hand side of the EMS CDU.

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21
Q

In accordance with the AFM, what is the load limit for the APU generator?

A

40kVa

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22
Q

External DC, when connected, feeds in to the:

A

APU Battery Direct bus.

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23
Q

What busses are shed during single TRU operation?

A

DC BUS 1 and 2

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24
Q

In flight with one generator available, which AC busses are powered, which ones are shed?

A

AC Bus 1 and 4 are powered.

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25
Q

The VFG’s are cooled:

A

By a conformal oil cooler.

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26
Q

DC power is generated / provided by:

A

Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU).

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27
Q

Whilst in cruise, a complete AC power failure occurs and the RAT automatically deploys. Which of the following is true?

A

The AC ESS bus will be powered along with the Battery Bus and DC ESS bus, the avionics and the APU batteries.

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28
Q

The main wheel well overheat detection is provided by:

A

A single loop heat detector.

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29
Q

Fire detection and extinguishing is provided for:

A

Both engines and the APU compartment.

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30
Q

In order to discharge the second fire bottle into the APU compartment…

A

The lockout release pin must be moved to the right to allow the handle to rotate.

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31
Q

After pulling an engine fire discharge handle, which shutoff valves or generators are commanded to a closed or offline condition?

A

Fuel shutoff
Hydraulic shutoff
Pneumatic shutoff
AC power shutoff
Fire extinguishing

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32
Q

What functions are carried out when an APU FIRE DISCHARGE handle is pulled to the armed position?

A

Ignition shutoff
Fuel shutoff
Power shutoff
Bleed shutoff
Bottles armed

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33
Q

In case of an APU fire, the APU will…

A

Shut down automatically via FADEC.

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34
Q

Engine fire detection is provided by:

A

A dual loop sensing element.

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35
Q

A Main Wheel Well Overheat when detected will give:

A

EICAS message and aural warning.

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36
Q

A pilot activated fire test is initiated from the…

A

EMS CDU.

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37
Q

To prevent accidental engine shutdown and fire extinguisher discharge:

A

Handles are maintained in their stowed position by internal springs and a solenoid operated locking mechanism.

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38
Q

What is the role of the hydraulic RAT accumulator?

A

To maintain constant reservoir pressure in the event that hydraulic System 3 ACMP’s are inoperative.

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39
Q

What is the maximum tailwind permitted for engine ground starting?

A

20kts

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40
Q

What is the maximum permitted airspeed for Flap 16?

A

210KIAS

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41
Q

What is the maximum ITT that must not be exceeded during engine start on the ground and inflight?

A

700 / 850 degrees

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42
Q

At what altitude must the flight spoilers be retracted?

A

300ft AGL

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43
Q

What is the maximum permitted airspeed for Flap 30?

A

185KIAS

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44
Q

What is the MTOW?

A

98,000lbs

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45
Q

What is the MRW?

A

98,250lbs

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46
Q

What is the MLW?

A

78,600lbs

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47
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start?

A

-40 degrees

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48
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for turbulence penetration?

A

300KIAS / 0.8M

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49
Q

What is the maximum altitude for take-off and landing?

A

10,000ft

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50
Q

What is the procedure for take-off above MLW near bodies of water?

A

Outflow Valve 2 Closed and One Pack Off

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51
Q

What is the max ITT at MCT?

A

860 degrees

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52
Q

What is the minimum engine speed during icing conditions?

A

76% N2

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53
Q

What is the tyre speed limit?

A

183kts

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54
Q

Static ground operations of engines is prohibited in the range:

A

66-80% N1

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55
Q

Operation of the oil replenishment system is prohibited below:

A

-12 degrees

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56
Q

What is the service ceiling of the Global 6000?

A

51,000ft

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57
Q

What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for take-off?

A

+5 degrees

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58
Q

What is VLE?

A

250KIAS

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59
Q

What is VLO?

A

200KIAS

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60
Q

When a hydraulic “B” pump is commanded on, what is the minimum time is will run for?

A

5 minutes

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61
Q

What hydraulic systems are used to retract the landing gear?

A

Systems 2 and 3

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62
Q

Where is brake pressure displayed?

A

Hydraulic Synoptic Page

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63
Q

Which wheels does the parking/emergency brake act?

A

All main wheels.

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64
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the left aileron?

A

Systems 1 and 3

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65
Q

If the APU is shut down normally on the ground, how long is the cool down period?

A

60 seconds

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66
Q

If there is an APU fire on the ground, what will happen

A

FADEC will shut down automatically.

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67
Q

What must the pilot do if the APU is to be used to power a bus above 37,000ft?

A

Turn off the associated hydraulic pump.
(Bus+Pump=4 except 3A)

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68
Q

What is the maximum altitude for bleed air extraction from the APU?

A

30,000ft

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69
Q

What is the wingspan?

A

94ft

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70
Q

What is the aircraft length?

A

99ft 5in

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71
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 turn?

A

Global 6000: 68ft
Global 5000: 65ft 4in

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72
Q

What is the aural warning priority of the following items:
TAWS, TCAS, STALL, OTHER

A

Stall, TAWS, TCAS, Other

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73
Q

How far does the trend vector predict?

A

10 seconds

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74
Q

How is the slip indicator represented?

A

Trapezium

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75
Q

What is the FMS source priority?

A

Onside FMS, FMS 3, Cross-side FMS

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76
Q

What are the 4 MSG soft key colours?

A

Amber: Unread messages of high priority
White: Unread messages or less priority
Black: All messages have been read
Grey: No messages

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77
Q

What is the HAL for RNP APPCH?

A

RNP 0.3

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78
Q

What are the operating parameters of the weather radar?

A

320nm range (300nm display)
120 degree azimuth (40 degree per second)
+/- 32 degree tilt

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79
Q

When are TCAS RA’s prohibited?

A

Prevented below 1100ft AGL on climb and below 900ft AGL during descent.

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80
Q

When is TAWS Mode 7 (Windshear) active?

A

On takeoff and landing from 10 to 1500ft AGL.

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81
Q

When will Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) automatically engage?

A

When the autopilot is engaged above FL250 and the cabin altitude is above 14,500ft.

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82
Q

What is the nominal pressure of the hydraulic systems?

A

3000 psi

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83
Q

With the relevant hydraulic B pump in AUTO, when will they automatically start?

A

Slats/flaps are not in the IN/0 position and motion is stopped.
Low pressure is sensed (<1800 psi).

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84
Q

What is the maximum number of starts per hour for the APU?

A

3

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85
Q

What is the sequence of events when the APU DISCHARGE handle is pulled?

A

Ignition shutoff
Fuel shutoff
Generator power shutoff
Bleed air shutoff
Arms fire bottles

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86
Q

With a CWC above 20kts, are there any limitations?

A

Do not exceed 66% N1 below 30KIAS.

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87
Q

What is the engine start sequence?

A

Ignition
Fuel flow
Light off
Ignition off
SAV closes
Generator online

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88
Q

Where does the MLG receive its hydraulic power from for operation?

A

Systems 2 and 3 for extension/retraction and System 3 for Gear Doors.

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89
Q

Which of the following statements regarding auto brake is true:

A

Auto brake will engage with WOW from the MLG and the nosewheel in the air.

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90
Q

Which hydraulic systems are used to keep the gear in the uplock position?

A

Hydraulics are not used for uplock. It is completed by a mechanical uplock and all hydraulic pressure is removed when gear is up and locked.

91
Q

After positioning the gear down via manual gear release, the nosewheel steering:

A

Operates in free caster mode.

92
Q

How are the 8 MFS operated?

A

Electronically controlled and hydraulically actuated by single PCUs.

93
Q

What is the purpose of the ROLL SPLRS PLT CONT switch?

A

To allow full control of MFS following a failure or jam of the controls.

94
Q

A FUEL IMBALANCE appears on EICAS with wing tanks that hold less than 19,450lbs of fuel. What is the max imbalance?

A

1100lbs

95
Q

How is the centre tank fuel transfer completed?

A

Automatically.

96
Q

How are the engine fuel shut off valves operated?

A

By pulling the FIRE DISCHARGE handle.

97
Q

An amber EICAS message of “FUEL IMBALANCE” appears. What does this mean?

A

Imbalance of 1100lbs.

98
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity for a go around?

A

600lbs

99
Q

Is fuel dumping available?

A

No.

100
Q

What is the correct engine fuel burn sequence?

A

Wing to 93%, centre to 0%. Wing to 5500lbs, aft tank to 0%.

101
Q

What fuel system information is displayed on the primary EICAS page?

A

Tank quantity, total quantity, fuel flow.

102
Q

During gravity refuelling, which tank cannot be refuelled?

A

Aft auxiliary tank.

103
Q

What is required when fuelling the aft tank separately?

A

Each wing must contain 4000lbs.

104
Q

Where is brake pressure displayed?

A

Systems Hydraulic Synoptic Page

105
Q

Where is brake temperature displayed?

A

Status Page

106
Q

On take off roll your aileron trim is out of the limit. What warnings will you get as you advance the thrust levers?

A

NO TAKEOFF aural alert.
CONFIG ALL TRIM on EICAS.

107
Q

What is indicated by an Amber hydraulic SOV on the synoptic page?

A

The valve has failed.

108
Q

What is the most preferable configuration for holding?

A

Clean.

109
Q

How is the overheat detection in the MLG bay detected?

A

Single loop detector.

110
Q

How is fuel transferred to the engines?

A

Directly from the feed tanks.

111
Q

What is the role of the hydraulic RAT accumulator?

A

To maintain a constant reservoir pressure in the event that System 3 ACMPs are inoperative.

112
Q

Under what conditions should the PRVs in the fuel tank NOT be operated?

A

When wing tank > 11,800lbs or centre tank > 8,000lbs.

113
Q

When will the recirculating of fuel automatically start?

A

Above 34,000ft when either; one temperature shows -20 degrees or the average of all temperatures is less than -9 degrees.

114
Q

What is the green band of the THS?

A

-4.5 to 11 units.

115
Q

What is the maximum altitude for slat/flap operation?

A

18,000ft.

116
Q

Describe the secondary flight controls:

A

Stabiliser
MFS (4 per wing)
Slats (4 per wing)
Flaps (3 per wing)
Ground spoilers (2 per wing)

117
Q

How is the proper positioning of the HUD monitored?

A

By an infrared optical alignment sensor.

118
Q

What is the value of each mark on the speed trend indicator?

A

5kts

119
Q

What is thermal crossover?

A

When there is less contrast due to less temperature difference between objects due to the time of day (normally after sunrise and sunset).

120
Q

How do you turn on the EVS?

A

By pushing the HUD rotary knob in.

121
Q

What are the target speeds for departure and climb?

A

200kts until 2,500ft AGL, 250kts below 10,000ft, 300kts above 10,000ft.

122
Q

What is the purpose of the Down Lock Release switch on the landing gear control panel?

A

To override the gear lever solenoid lock following a malfunction in flight.

123
Q

Which of the following will not disconnect the autopilot?

A

Manual activation of the aileron trim.

124
Q

TO mode commands the FD to a fixed pitch attitude of___ degrees during two engine operations and ___ during one engine inoperative operations.

A

17.5 and 13 degrees.

125
Q

Which statement is true regarding the AFCS?

A

In the event of an AP channel failure, the priority will automatically switch over to the other channel.

126
Q

After positioning the gear down via manual release, the nosewheel steering:

A

Will operate in free caster mode.

127
Q

What is the required airspeed with a L(R) REVERSER UNLKD EICAS message?

A

Less than 170kts.

128
Q

Where is the cowl anti-ice bleed source?

A

5th stage compressor

129
Q

Whilst addressing an engine fire situation, how long must you wait after firing the first bottle to fire the second?

A

45 seconds

130
Q

When both pilots are using their normal ADC sources, what colour will the annunciation be in the top right of their PFD?

A

There will be no annunciation.

131
Q

What is the visual eye reference for landing approach height?

A

15ft 6in

132
Q

What is the minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?

A

-40 degrees

133
Q

What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU for air conditioning?

A

45 degrees

134
Q

What is the APU shutdown RPM requirement before turning off the BATT MASTER switch?

A

< 70%

135
Q

What are the sources of aircraft generated AC power?

A

4 VFG’s
1 APU generator
1 RAT

136
Q

What does the AVAIL light on the EXT AC switch on the overhead panel indicate?

A

Indicates the correct: phase, voltage and frequency of power is connected and available.

137
Q

In an emergency, how long will the aircraft batteries provide DC power for?

A

15 minutes minimum.

138
Q

Can a thermal circuit breaker be reset via the EMS CDU?

A

No. Only physically reset at its location.

139
Q

In cruise, when does the RAT automatically deploy?

A

14 seconds after loss of all AC power.

140
Q

At what speed on the approach does the RAT generator go offline?

A

147kts

141
Q

How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated?

A

Mechanically controlled and hydraulically actuated.

142
Q

Under which two conditions will the stabiliser in motion aural clacker sound?

A

Trim runaway
Stab trim switch held for an extended period

143
Q

During landing, when will the ground spoilers deploy?

A

Throttles idle and two of the following:
RA < 7ft
One MLG WOW
One wheel speed > 16kts

144
Q

What is the AFM limitation for the fuel XFEED SOV?

A

Closed for take-off and landing.

145
Q

What is the C of G range for the aircraft.

A

20-41% MAC

146
Q

When must cowl anti-ice be switched on?

A

When visible moisture is present and OAT < +10 degrees.

147
Q

When must wing anti-ice be switched on?

A

When visible moisture is present and OAT < +5 degrees.

148
Q

What is the minimum fuel required for use of the centre fuel tank?

A

500lbs

149
Q

Why must manual operation of the wing transfer system be monitored?

A

No automatic shutdown or overfill protection is provided.

150
Q

What is the power source for the refuel/refuel panel?

A

APU battery direct bus

151
Q

How is hydraulic fluid cooler prior to returning to the applicable reservoir?

A

Heat exchangers in the left and right wing fuel tanks.

152
Q

How are the brakes controlled?

A

Electronically controlled, hydraulically actuated.

153
Q

How is WOW sensing accomplished?

A

Two proximity sensors on each main and nose gear assembly.

154
Q

How is normal extension and retraction of the landing gear controlled?

A

By the LGECU.

155
Q

What are the nosewheel steering limits for the tiller and rudder?

A

Tiller +/- 75 degrees
Rudder +/- 7.5 degrees

156
Q

With the auto brake set, what two conditions must be met to activate the system?

A

Both MLG WOW for > 5 seconds or wheel spin up > 50kts, and;
Ground spoilers commanded to deploy

157
Q

What is the maximum operating speed above and below 8000ft?

A

< 8000ft: 300kts
> 8000ft: 340kts

158
Q

Whilst flying in icing conditions, a failure is detected in the wing anti ice system. With the wing cross-bleed in AUTO:

A

The wing cross bleed valve opens and the relevant wing anti ice valve closes automatically.

159
Q

What is the maximum permitted cabin diff pressure during taxi and take-off?

A

0.1psi

160
Q

What is the maximum altitude approved for use of the AUX PRESS system?

A

41,000ft

161
Q

From which stages of the compressor is bleed air extracted for the ECS?

A

5th and 8th

162
Q

What is the cowl anti-ice bleed source?

A

5th stage of the HP compressor.

163
Q

What is the maximum ground time operating with a failed avionics fan and ECS OFF?

A

30 minutes

164
Q

Above what altitude will the CABIN ALT caution message display?

A

8,200ft

165
Q

Above what altitude will the CABIN ALT warning message display?

A

9000ft

166
Q

With respect to the CPCS, if the landing elevation is manually entered:

A

The CPCS remains in AUTO mode.

167
Q

What is the max cabin altitude at 51,000ft?

A

5,670ft

168
Q

What is the max cabin altitude at 45,000ft?

A

4,500ft

169
Q

What is the max relief diff pressure?

A

-0.5 to 10.73psi

170
Q

How many modes does the CPC have?

A

2: Primary (Predictive) and Secondary (Reactive)

171
Q

The emergency lighting system power supply has a maximum duration of:

A

Approximately 20 minutes

172
Q

How long does it take to turn off the nosewheel compartment lights?

A

20 mins

173
Q

What one condition will only cause the seatbelt signs to illuminate?

A

Slats/flaps are not in zero degree position

174
Q

During ground operation, how is the primary navigation light protected from overheating?

A

Thermal switch integrated for automatic switching to secondary navigation lights.

175
Q

How are the service lights operation controlled?

A

Individual switches near the respective lighted areas.

176
Q

What happens if MAN position only is selected from the LDG ELEV - MAN/FMS switch located on the pressurisation panel?

A

An EICAS message is displayed until an UP or DN selection is received.

177
Q

What is the max differential pressure permitted during touchdown?

A

1.0 psi

178
Q

With the L ENG BLEED and R ENG BLEED in the ON position:

A

BMC’s control bleed pressure.

179
Q

During take-off, the use of wing and cowl anti-ice systems:

A

Are not permitted in AUTO mode, only ON/OFF.

180
Q

When a TRIM AIR LEAK is detected, the BMC’s and the ACSC will automatically close:

A

The hot air shutoff valve (HASOV) and trim valve.

181
Q

During manual temperature control operations, the pack discharge temperature range to be maintained is:

A

5 to 60 degrees.

182
Q

What are the memory items for: APU FIRE

A

APU OFF
APU DISCHARGE HANDLE PULL
(AFTER 10 SECS) TURN HANDLE
(AFTER 60 SECS) UNLOCK HANDLE AND TURN

For APU FIRE on the ground, disregard timings.

183
Q

What are the memory items for: CONFIG AUTOPILOT

A

Discontinue take-off roll.

184
Q

What are the memory items for: STALL RECOVERY

A

A/P DISCONNECT
REDUCE PITCH
MAX THRUST
SPOILERS RETRACTED
WINGS LEVEL

185
Q

What are the memory items for: UNRELIABLE AIRSPEED

A

DISCONNECT A/P, A/T AND FD
PITCH (<10,000ft: 12.5, >10,000ft: 7.5)
MAX THRUST
SPOILERS RETRACTED
GEAR UP
SLATS/FLAPS IN/0
CLIMB ABOVE MSA

186
Q

What are the memory items for: GROUND PROXIMITY

A

MAX THRUST/TOGA BUTTON
SPOILERS RETRACTED
A/P DISCONNECT
PITCH MAX PRACTICAL

187
Q

What are the memory items for: WINDSHEAR

A

MAX THRUST/TOGA
SPOILERS RETRACTED
A/P DISCONNECT
PITCH FOR ESCAPE GUIDANCE

188
Q

What are the memory items for: EMER PWR ONLY

A

RESET GENERATOR 1 AT A RIME (OFF/RESET)

189
Q

What are the memory items for: LOSS OF ALL DC POWER

A

EMER DC PWR OVERRIDE

190
Q

What are the memory items for: DUAL ENGINE OUT

A

DEPLOY RAT
MAX 200KIAS

191
Q

What are the memory items for: ENGINE FIRE

A

THRUST LEVER IDLE
ENGINE RUN OFF
ENGINE DISCHARGE HANDLE PULL
(AFTER 10 SECS) ENGINE DISCHARGE HANDLE TURN
(AFTER 45 SECS) ENGINE DISCHARGE HANDLE TURN OPPOSITE

For ENGINE FIRE on the ground, disregard timing restrictions.

192
Q

What are the memory items for: REVERSER UNLKD

A

THRUST LEVER IDLE
ENGINE RUN OFF
MAX 170KIAS

193
Q

When do the passenger masks deploy with PASSENGER OXYGEN set to NORM?

A

14,500 // +500ft, -750ft

194
Q

When do the emergency lights come on with the EMER LIGHTS switch set to ARM?

A

When there is no power to the DC ESS BUS.

195
Q

What will happen if the passenger oxygen masks are deployed?

A

Passenger signs (no smoking and seatbelts) will automatically come on.

196
Q

What is the designation/name of the engines?

A

BR710A2-20

197
Q

What are the starter cranking limits?

A

3 minutes on, 15 seconds off
3 minutes on, 15 seconds off
3 minutes on, 15 minutes off

198
Q

How is the engine protected from overspeed?

A

When the EEC recognised N1 or N2 overspeed value, it closes the HPSOV.

199
Q

How is EPR calculated?

A

Ratio of engine inlet total pressure and engine exhaust total pressure.

200
Q

When should rotorbow be expected?

A

Between 20 minutes and 5 hours of previous engine shutdown.

201
Q

What are the two auto start air envelopes and associated speeds?

A

ATS ENVELOPE < 249kts
WINDMILL ENVELOPE >249kts

202
Q

What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?

A

Unusual Attitude, Stall Warning, Windshear Avoidance

203
Q

What is the steepest approach angle for approach?

A

3.5 degrees without AFM supplements

204
Q

What is the “pitch target box” (take-off reference box) removed?

A

Upon selection of any vertical mode.

205
Q

On the ground, what two parameters are required for autothrottle to engage if armed?

A

Speed < 60kts and TLA > 23 degrees

206
Q

What are the three conditions for EDM to automatically engage?

A

Autopilot Engaged
Altitude > 25,000ft
Cabin altitude > 14,500ft

207
Q

What is the purpose of the EVENT button on the forward auxiliary control panel on the centre pedestal?

A

To flag a particular event within the FDR.

208
Q

What message displays whilst the EVS CLEAR switch is activated?

A

EVS CLR displays in the upper right corner of the HUD.

209
Q

Which systems provide the TAS and GS data?

A

TAS provided by ADC.
GS provided by FMS.

210
Q

What is the green arrow on the left wing of the FPV?

A

Flight path acceleration cue.

211
Q

What does the speed error tape on the left wing of the FPV show?

A

Difference in selected and indicated speed up to 15 kts. Each mark is 5kts.

212
Q

What determines the master FMS?

A

Flight director coupled side selection.

213
Q

What are the memory items for: POST SHUTDOWN ENGINE TAIL PIPE FIRE

A

ENGINE RUN OFF
(IF BLEED AIR AVAILABLE) ENGINE CRANK (UNTIL FIRE OUT OR ITT<150)
(IF BLEED AIR UNAVAILABLE) EMERGENCY EVACUATION

214
Q

What are the memory items for: EMERGENCY DESCENT

A

MASK DON AND ESTABLISH COMMS
PASSENGER OXYGEN OVERRIDE
PASSENGER SIGNS ON
EMERGENCY LIGHTS ON
INITIATE DESCENT (9,000ft or MSA, whichever is higher)
THRUST LEVER IDLE
SPOILERS FULL THEN MAX

215
Q

What are the memory items for: CONFIG TRIM/FLAPS/SPOILERS

A

DISCONTINUE TAKEOFF

216
Q

What are the memory items for: STABILISER TRIM RUNAWAY

A

MASTER DISC PRESS AND HOLD
STAB CH1&2 OFF
RELEASE MASTER DISC

217
Q

What are the memory items for: EMERGENCY EVACUATION

A

PARKING BRAKE
COMMAND EVACUATION
GND LIFT DUMP OFF
SPOILERS RETRACTED
ENGINES OFF
APU OFF
DISCHARGE HANDLES PULL
INITIATE EVACUATION
BATT MASTER OFF

@COMMAND EVACUATION (COPILOT ACTIONS)
INFORM ATC
EMER DEPRESS ON
EMER LIGHTS ON

218
Q

What are the memory items for: BRAKE OVHT

A

AIRSPEED < 200 KIAS
GEAR DOWN

219
Q

What are the memory items for: MLG BAY OVERHEAT

A

MAX SPEED 200kts
GEAR DOWN

220
Q

What are the memory items for: NORM BRAKE FAIL

A

SLOWLY PULL EMERGENCY BRAKE

221
Q

What are the memory items for: SMOKE or FIRE

A

OXYGEN MASKS DON AND ESTABLISH COMMS
PACK CONTROL HIGH
BLEED/AIR CON RECIRC OFF
PRESSURISATION MANUAL / MAN ALT UP

222
Q

After an RTO, what is the minimum cooling time?

A

15 minutes

223
Q

When will an OXYGEN LO QTY caution appear?

A

When quantity < 75% (1400psi).

Global 6000 Vision Ground School (11 decks)

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