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microbiology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Symbionts that harm or live at the expense of their host

A

parasitic organisms

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2
Q

Microbes frequently found on or within the bodies of healthy persons:

A

commensal organsims

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3
Q

Commensal organisms may also be referred to as:

A

normal microbiota

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4
Q

What makes up the vast majority of normal flora?

A

bacteria

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5
Q

Colonization of ___ occurs rapidly after birth

A

bacteria

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6
Q

Locations in which large amounts of bacteria reside:

A
  1. skin (esp. moist areas)
  2. respiratory tract (nose and oropharynx)
  3. digestive tract (mouth & large intestine)
  4. urinary tract (anterior parts of urethra)
  5. genital system (vagina)
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7
Q

locations in which small amounts of bacteria reside:

A

remainder of respiratory and digestive tracts

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8
Q

Locations in the body in which NO bacteria are present (sterile):

A

blood, CSF, synovial fluid, and deep tissue

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9
Q

Normal flora found all over:

A

resident organisms

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10
Q

Resides in an area for a limited time:

A

transient organisms

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11
Q

Growth or multiplication of parasite on or within host:

A

infection

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12
Q

Disease resulting from infection:

A

infectious disease

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13
Q

Any parasitic organisms that cause infectious disease:

A

Parasite

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14
Q

Causes disease by DIRECT interaction with host:

A

primary (frank) pathogen

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15
Q

Causes disease only under certain circumstances (such as after antibiotic tx)

A

opportunistic pathogen

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16
Q

ability of a parasite to cause disease:

A

pathogenicity

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17
Q

any component of a pathogenic micro that is required fro or that potentiates its ability to cause disease:

A

virulence factor

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18
Q

Pathogenicity and virulence depend on:

A

the host

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19
Q

What are the steps in an infectious disease:

A
  1. encounter
  2. entry
  3. spread
  4. multiplication
  5. damage
  6. outcome
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20
Q

What are three types of encounters with a pathogen?

A
  1. exogenous
  2. endogenous
  3. congenital
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21
Q

When a pathogen is externally derives (such as a sneeze)

A

exogenous encounter

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22
Q

When a pathogen is internally derived (such as a change in immunity/health; already inside)

A

endogenous enconter

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23
Q

When a pathogen is picked up during birth (such as HIV from mother to fetus)

A

congenital encounter

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24
Q

What are two forms of entry of a pathogen?

A
  1. ingress
  2. penetration
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25
Q

Entry of a pathogen via inhalation or ingestion:

A

ingress

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26
Q

Entry of microbes through epithelial directly (via attachment and internalization):

A

penetration

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27
Q

Insect bites, cuts and wounds, organ transplants, and blood transfusions are all examples of what type of pathogenic entry into the host?

A

penetration

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28
Q

What are three components to the spread of a pathogen:

A
  1. lateral propagation vs. dissemination
  2. anatomical factors
  3. active participation by microbes
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29
Q

Spread of a pathogen to neighboring tissues:

A

lateral propagation

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30
Q

Spread of a pathogen to distant sites:

A

dissemination

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31
Q

What are the two components to the multiplication of a pathogen when causing an infectious disease?

A
  1. environmental factors
  2. subversion of host defenses
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32
Q

Damage inflicted by an infectious disease can be cause by:

A
  1. direct damage
  2. immune response
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33
Q

What are the outcomes of an infectious disease?

A
  1. microbe wins
  2. host wins
  3. they learn to coexist
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34
Q

If an infection comes from our normal flora, the source of infection is considered:

A

endogenous

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35
Q

Overgrowth of particular bacteria in gingival crevices:

A

periodontitis

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36
Q

When defenses are lowered and micro aspirations of pneumococci occur:

A

pneumococcal pneumonia

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37
Q

Catheter-associated infections are typically a result of:

A

staphylococci

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38
Q

What do the following have in common:

  • periodontitis
  • pneumococcal pneumonia
  • catheter-associated infections:
A

All have endogenous source of infection- normal flora actin up

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39
Q

What are the roles of normal flora?

A
  1. immune stimulation
  2. keeping out pathogens
  3. assist in nutrition
  4. source of carcinogens vs. detoxification of carcinogens
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40
Q

Normal oral flora include:

A

bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses

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41
Q

How many different species are estimated to be present in the oral cavity?

A

over 500

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42
Q

What are the different oral habitats?

A
  1. buccal mucosa
  2. dorsum of tongue
  3. tooth surfaces
  4. crevicular epithelium
  5. dental appliances
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43
Q

Issues for microbial cells include:

A
  1. nutritional fluxes
  2. maintaining occupancy
  3. resistance to damage
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44
Q

List all of the factors modulating oral microbial growth:

A
  1. anatomical features that create areas that are difficult to clean
  2. saliva
  3. gingival crevicular fluid
  4. microbial factors
  5. local pH
  6. redox potential
  7. antimicrobial therapy
  8. diet
  9. iatrogenic factors
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45
Q

____ are an absolute require for all living organisms

A

membranes

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46
Q

describe the plasma membrane:

A
  • highly organized
  • asymmetric
  • flexible
  • dynamic
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47
Q

The lipid components of the plasma membrane form a:

A

lipid bilayer

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48
Q

The polar end of the lipids in the lipid bilayer are ____, while the non polar ends of the lipids in the lipid bilayer are ____.

A

polar –> hydrophilic

nonpolar–> hydrophobic

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49
Q

Proteins that are loosely associated with the plasma membrane that can easily be removed:

A

peripheral proteins

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50
Q

Proteins that are embedded within the membrane that are not easily removed:

A

integral proteins

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51
Q

bacteria version of cholesterol that provides rigidity:

A

bacteriohopanetetrol

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52
Q

Functions of the plasma membrane include:

A
  1. separation of cell from environment
  2. selectively permeable barrier
  3. location of crucial metabolic processes
  4. detection & response to chemicals via receptor molecules
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53
Q

granules of organic and inorganic materials that are stockpiled by the cell for future use:

A

inclusion bodies

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54
Q

some inclusion bodies are enclosed by a:

A

single layered membrane

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55
Q

The single layered membrane that encloses some inclusion bodies: (2)

A
  1. vary in composition
  2. some made of proteins, others of lipids
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56
Q

Complex structures consisting of protein and RNA:

A

ribosomes

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57
Q

Sites of protein synthesis:

A

ribosomes

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58
Q

Compare the size of eukaryotic and prokaryotic ribosomes:

A

prokaryotic ribosomes are smaller

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59
Q

Size of prokaryotic ribosome:

Size of eukaryotic ribosome:

A

70s; 80s

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60
Q

Irregularly shaped region in bacteria in which a chromosome resides:

A

nucleoid

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61
Q

Is the nucleoid membrane bound?

A

no

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62
Q

In cells, what do the nucleoid projections indicate?

A

cells are actively growing; DNA being actively transcribed

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63
Q

Describe a prokaryotic chromosome:

A
  • closed, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that is looped and coiled extensively
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64
Q

Proteins that help to fold prokaryotic chromosomes:

A

nucleoid proteins

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65
Q

Describe some unusual circumstances of nuceloids:

A
  1. more than one chromosome
  2. LINEAR double stranded DNA
  3. membrane-delimited nucleoids
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66
Q

Small, closed, circular DNA molecules that exist and replicate independently of the chromosome:

A

plasmids

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67
Q

Plasmids are NOT required for:

A

growth and reproduction

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68
Q

Plasmids may carry genes that confer ____ such as ____.

A

selective advantage; drug resistance

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69
Q

Rigid structure that lies outside the plasma membrane:

A

prokaryotic cell wall

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70
Q

List the functions of the prokaryotic cell wall:

A
  1. provides characteristic shape to cell
  2. protects the cell from osmotic lysis
  3. may contribute to pathogenicity
  4. may protect cell from toxic substances
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71
Q

Bacteria are divided into two major groups based on:

A

response to staining (rx due to cell wall structure)

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72
Q

Gram positive cells stain:

A

purple

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73
Q

Gram negative cells stain:

A

pink

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74
Q

In a gram positive cell, the cell wall is composed of:

A

primarily of peptidoglycan

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75
Q

Cells that contain large amounts of techoic acids:

A

gram positive cells

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76
Q

polymers of glycerol or ribitol joined by phosphate groups

A

techoic acid

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77
Q

Space between plasma membrane and cell wall:

A

periplasmic space

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78
Q

Gram positive bacteria secrete:

A

exoenzymes

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79
Q

In gram positive bacteria, the exoenzymes serve as the ____ do for gram negative bacteria

A

periplasmic enzymes

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80
Q

Cell wall that consists of a thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane:

A

gram negative bacteria

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81
Q

The outer membrane in gram negative bacteria is composed of:

A

lipids, lipoproteins, LPSs

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82
Q

NO techoic acid present:

A

gram negative bacteria

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83
Q

What type of bacteria are more permeable?

A

Gram-negative

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84
Q

space between plasma membrane and outer membrane in bacteria:

A

periplasmic space

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85
Q

In gram negative bacteria, what is contained within the periplasm?

A

periplasmic enzymes

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86
Q

What are roles of periplasmic enzymes?

A
  • nutrient acquisition
  • electron transport
  • peptidoglycan synthesis
  • modification of toxic compounds
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87
Q

Describe the structure of peptidoglycan:

A
  • polysaccharide formed from two peptidoglycan subunits
  • two alternating sugars form backbone
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88
Q

What two alternating sugars form the backbone in peptidoglycan?

A

N-acteylglucosamine (NAG); N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

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89
Q

Within the peptidoglycan structure, _____ have a direct link between peptide chains, while ____ contain a peptide inter bridge (Gly) between side chains

A

Gram-negative bacteria; Gram positive bacteria

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90
Q

This image is showing a ____ cell wall

A

gram-positive

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91
Q

what is under the thick peptidoglycan layer in a gram-positive cell wall?

A

single membrane bilayer

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92
Q

This image is showing a ___ cell wall

A

gram negative

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93
Q

In a gram-negative cells, there is a ____ structure with each being a bilayer.

A

double membrane structure

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94
Q

Connect outer membrane to peptidoglycan in gram-negative bacteria:

A

Braun’s lipoproteins

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95
Q

Sites of direct contact between plasma membrane and outer membrane in gram negative bacteria:

A

adhesion sites

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96
Q

Substances may move DIRECTLY into gram negative bacteria via:

A

adhesion sites

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97
Q

What are the three components of a lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?

A
  1. lipid A
  2. core polysaccharide
  3. o-side chain (O-antigen)
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98
Q

Component of the LPS that inserts into the outer membrane structure for stabilization & can also act as an endotoxin:

A

Lipid A

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99
Q

The lipid A component of the lPS inserts into:

A

the outer membrane

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100
Q

Component of the LPS that contributes to the negative charge on the cell surface:

A

Core polysaccharide

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101
Q

What does the negative charge contributed by the core polysaccharide portion of LPS function to do?

A

avoids/masks host defenses

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102
Q

What two components does the core polysaccharide portion of the LPS contain?

A

keto-deoxyoctoenic acid and heptose

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103
Q

Portion of the LPS that provides protection from host defenses:

A

O-side chain

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104
Q

What component of the LPS is visible to our immune system:

A

O-antigen

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105
Q

Which membrane in more permeable in a gram-negative cell?

A

outer membrane

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106
Q

Why is the outer membrane of a gram-negative cell more permeable than the plasma membrane?

A

due to presence of porin proteins and transporter proteins

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107
Q

Form channels in the outer membrane through which small molecules can pass:

A

porin proteins

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108
Q

Layer outside of the cell wall that is well-organized, not easily removed from the cell, and takes the shape of the underlying cell

A

capsule

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109
Q

Layer outside of the cell wall that is similar to the capsules except diffuse, unorganized, and easily removed

A

slime layer

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110
Q

Capsules and slime layers are both referred to as:

A

glycocalyx

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111
Q

network of polysaccharides extending from the cell surface:

A

glycocalyx

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112
Q

What are the functions of the glycocalyx? (4)

A
  1. protection from viral infection or predation by bacteria
  2. protection from chemicals in environment
  3. motility of gliding bacteria
  4. protection against osmotic stress
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113
Q

Short, thin, hairlike, proteinaceous appendages (1000/cell)

A

fimbriae

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114
Q

What is the function of fimbriae?

A

mediate attachment to cell surfaces

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115
Q

Similar to fimbriae except longer, thicker, and less numerous (1-10/cell)

A

sex pili

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116
Q

What are sex pili required for?

A

mating; transfer of genetic material

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117
Q

What is the function of flagella?

A

motility

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118
Q

List the arrangements of flagella:

A
  1. monotrichous
  2. polar flagellum
  3. amphiptrichous
  4. lophotrichous
  5. peritrichous
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119
Q

One flagellum:

A

monotrichous

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120
Q

Flagellum at end of cell:

A

polar flagellum

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121
Q

One flagellum at each end of cell:

A

amphitrichous

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122
Q

cluster of flagella at one or both ends of cell:

A

lophotrichous

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123
Q

flagellum spread over entire surface of cell

A

peritrichous

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124
Q

Describe the flagellum ultrastructure:

A
  • filament
  • basal body
  • hook
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125
Q

Portion of flagellum that projects out of cell surface

A

filament

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126
Q

Portion of flagellum that is anchored within the plasma membrane or within both plasma & outer membrane

A

basal body

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127
Q

portion of the flagellum that is a protein components that gives a bend to the structure:

A

hook

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128
Q

dormant form created when a bacterium encounters environmentally challenging conditions that make it difficult for the cell to keep growing

A

endospore

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129
Q

The bacterial endospore is resistant to numerous harsh environmental conditions such as:

A
  • heat
  • radiation
  • chemicals
  • desiccation
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130
Q

Overview of eukaryotic cells include:

A
  1. membrane-delimited nuclei
  2. membrane-bound organelles that perform specific functions
  3. more structurally complex than prokaryotic cell
  4. generally larger than prokaryotic cell
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131
Q

Elements required in large amounts:

A

macroelements

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132
Q

List the macroelements required for microbial physiology that are cell components of carbs, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids:

A
  1. carbon
  2. oxygen
  3. nitrogen
  4. hydrogen
  5. sulfur
  6. phosphorus
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133
Q

The macroelements required for microbial physiology make up components of:

A
  1. carbohydrates
  2. lipids
  3. proteins
  4. nucleic acids
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134
Q

List the macroelements required for microbial physiology that exist as cations and play many roles including cofactors of enzymes:

A
  1. potassium
  2. calcium
  3. magnesium
  4. iron
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135
Q

List the trace elements required for microbial physiology:

A
  1. manganese
  2. zinc
  3. cobalt
  4. molybdenum
  5. nickel
  6. copper
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136
Q

Trace elements are mainly needed as:

A

cofactors of enzymes

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137
Q

components required for ALL organism survival:

A
  1. source of energy
  2. source of reducing equivalents (electron donors)
  3. source of carbon
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138
Q

Organisms that utilize light as a source of energy:

A

phototrophs

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139
Q

Organisms that oxidize organic or inorganic compounds as a source of energy:

A

chemotrophs

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140
Q

Organisms need electron donors for:

A
  1. ETC (energy producton)
  2. Redox reactions (energy production)
  3. Biosynthesis (in autotrophs from CO2)
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141
Q

utilize INORGANIC molecules as a source of reducing agent:

A

lithotrophs

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142
Q

utilize ORGANIC molecules as a source of reducing agent:

A

organotrophs

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143
Q

Utilize CO2 as the main/only source of carbon:

A

autotrophs

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144
Q

Utilize reduced, preformed organic molecules (such as glucose) for source of carbon:

A

heterotrophs

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145
Q

due to the the source of carbon utilized, most pathogenic bacteria are considered:

A

heterotrophs

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146
Q
  • light energy source
  • Inorganic electron donor
  • CO2 carbon source
A

photolithotrophic autotrophy

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147
Q
  • light energy source
  • organic electron donor
  • organic carbon source
A

photoorganotrophic heterotrophy

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148
Q
  • chemical energy source
  • inorganic electron donor
  • CO2 carbon source
A

chemolithotrophic autotrophy

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149
Q
  • chemical energy source
  • organic electron donor
  • organic carbon source
A

chemoorganotrophic heterotrophy (all pathogens)

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150
Q

Other nutrient sources required for bacteria include:

A
  • nitrogen source
  • phosphate source
  • sulfur source
  • growth factors
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151
Q

List where bacteria may get their source of nitrogen from:

A

amino acids, ammonia or nitrate (NO3-)

A few may obtain nitrogen from N2 (atmospheric nitrogen)

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152
Q

List where bacteria may get their source of phosphate from:

A

inorganic phosphate (PO4^3-)

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153
Q

List where bacteria may get their source of sulfur from:

A

sulfate (SO4^2-), or reduced sulfur (cysteine)

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154
Q

List where bacteria may get their growth factors from:

A

amino acids, purines and pyrimidines, & vitamins (small organic molecules)

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155
Q
  • perform aerobic respiration only
  • final electron acceptor is oxygen (reduced to H20)
A

strict aerobes

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156
Q
  • perform anaerobic respiration
  • final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule (such as nitrate of Fe3+)
A

strict anaerobe

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157
Q
  • perform fermentation
  • final electron acceptor is an organic molecule (such as pyruvate reduced to lactate or acetyl-coA reduced to ethanol)
A

strict anaerobe

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158
Q
  • can perform respiration & fermentation
  • most medically relevant bacteria
A

facultative anaerobe

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159
Q

Final electron acceptor of strict aerobes:

A

oxygen (reduced to H2O)

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160
Q

Final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule

A

strict anaerobe that performs anaerobic respiration

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161
Q

Final electron acceptor is an organic molecule:

A

strict anaerobe perfomring fermentation

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162
Q

Give an example of a facultative anaerobe and explain:

A

E. coli- can survive on a Petri dish (aerobic), and can survive in the intestines (anaerobic)

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163
Q

The respiratory chain of E. coli occurs in ______ ; for us it occurs in the _____.

A

membrane of cell; mitochondria

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164
Q

Unique to the oral cavity and requires a certain amount of CO2 in addition to oxygen

A

Capnophillic

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165
Q

List the gram positive bacteria in the oral cavity:

A
  1. streptococcus
  2. peptostreptococcus
  3. actinomyces
  4. lactobacillus
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166
Q

List the shapes of the following gram-positive oral bacteria:

  1. streptococcus
  2. peptostreptococcus
  3. actinomyces
  4. lactobacillus
A
  1. cocci
  2. cocci
  3. rods
  4. rods
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167
Q

List the oxygen requirements for the following gram-positive oral bacteria:

  1. streptococcus
  2. peptostreptococcus
  3. actinomyces
  4. lactobacillus
A
  1. facultative anaerobes
  2. strict anaerobes
  3. strict/facultative anaerobes
  4. facultative anaerobes
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168
Q

List the gram-negative bacteria found in the oral cavity:

A
  1. veillonella
  2. aggrgatibacter
  3. capnocytophaga
  4. porphyromonas
  5. prevotella
  6. fusobacterium
  7. spirochetes
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169
Q

List the shapes of the following gram-negative oral bacteria:

  1. veillonella
  2. aggrgatibacter
  3. capnocytophaga
  4. porphyromonas
  5. prevotella
  6. fusobacterium
  7. spirochetes
A
  1. cocci
    2-6. rods
  2. spirals
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170
Q

List the oxygen requirements of the following gram-negative oral bacteria:

  1. veillonella
  2. aggrgatibacter
  3. capnocytophaga
  4. porphyromonas
  5. prevotella
  6. fusobacterium
  7. spirochetes
A
  1. strict anaerobes
  2. capnophillic
  3. capnophillic
    4-7. strict anaerobes
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171
Q
  • move from higher concentration to lower concentration
  • NO ENERGY requirements
A

facilitated diffusion

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172
Q

What is facilitated diffusion uptake driven by?

A

intracellular use of the compound

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173
Q

Compare the rate of facilitated diffusion vs. passive diffusion:

A

facilitated diffusion is much faster

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174
Q

What happens to the rate of facilitated diffusion as the concentration gets smaller:

A

as concentration gets smaller, the rate gets smaller, however the rate is more magnified at smaller concentrations

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175
Q

Carrier proteins embedded in the plasma membrane:

A

permeases

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176
Q

An active transport mechanism in which transported substances are chemically altered during the process:

A

group translocation

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177
Q

Group translocation may also be called:

A

phosphorylation-linked transport or phosphotransferase system

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178
Q

An example of group translocation would be:

A

glucose –> glucose-6-phosphate

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179
Q

system that moves a phosphate group and covalently links it to a transporter molecule; very common within bacterial cells:

A

group translocation

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180
Q

Where does the phosphate bond come from in group translocation and what does this serve as:

A

phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP); energy source

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181
Q

Some ____ & ____ are transported via group translocation

A

sugars & cariogenic bacteria

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182
Q

Energy is used to drive accumulation of a substance, which remains unchanged by the transport process:

A

active transport

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183
Q

Form of active transport that uses proton motive force (gradient of protons) by coupling to an energetically unfavorable transport event (concentration of a substance against a gradient)

A

Ion-driven transport systems

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184
Q

Give an example of a molecule that would use ion-driven transport systems:

A

amino acids

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185
Q

Coupling energetically favorable + unfavorable processes:

A

symport

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186
Q

Form of active transport that use membrane proteins that form a channel and drive substances through the channel using the energy from ATP hydrolysis:

A

binding protein-dependent transport systems

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187
Q

Give an example of a molecule that would use binding protein-dependent transport systems:

A

sugars & aminoacids

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188
Q

In all active transport mechanisms the transport processes use carriers that:

A

can become saturated

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189
Q

ferric iron is very ____, so ____ is difficult.

A

insoluble; uptake

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190
Q

Because ferric iron is insoluble and difficult to uptake, microorganisms use ____ to aid in the uptake.

A

siderophores

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191
Q

Describe the process of ferric iron uptake in microorganisms:

A

siderophore complexes with ferric iron and the entire complex is then transported into the cell

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192
Q

E. coli can grown on greater than 30 different ___ compounds, using each to obtain ____ , ____ & ____.

A

Organic compounds; carbon, H+/electrons, and energy

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193
Q

Bacteria that can use several hundred compounds to obtain carbon, reducing agents, and energy:

A

pseudomonas

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194
Q

_______ organisms have complex needs and can only grow in association with the human body or in complex culture medium (example: blood agar)

A

nutritionally fastidious

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195
Q

Given and example of a nutritionally fastidious bacteria:

A

staphylococci and streptococci

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196
Q

Have to replicate within living cells, but unlike viruses, they can carry out metabolic processes

A

obligate intracellular parasites

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197
Q

Give an example of a bacteria that is an obligate intracellular parasite:

A

chlamydia

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198
Q

Microbial growth in the real world is considered:

A

suboptimal

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199
Q

Different organisms have ___ growth rates

A

variable

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200
Q

What is a factor that protects bacteria?

A

stress responses

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201
Q

bacteria can still cause damage to the host when not growing through

A
  • toxin production
  • immunogenic processes
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202
Q

Mechanisms of adaption of bacteria function to:

A
  1. maximize efficiency in using energy and resources
  2. respond to changes
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203
Q

What are the results of regulation by microorganisms:

A
  1. pathways can be switched on or off
  2. pathways can be turned up or down
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204
Q

How is control among microorganisms established:

A
  1. enzyme activity
  2. number of enzyme molecules
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205
Q

All enzymes have ____ for catalysis, but some enzymes have ____ for regulation.

A

active sites; allosteric sites

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206
Q

____ sites bind regulatory molecules

A

allosteric sites

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207
Q

Describe the binding of a regulatory molecule to an allosteric site:

A
  1. noncovalent
  2. reversible
  3. affect activity of enzyme
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208
Q

Positive effectors ____ activity; while negative effectors ____ activity of an enzyme.

A

increase; decrease

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209
Q

In allosteric regulation: the higher concentration of regulatory molecules=

A

more activity

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210
Q

In allosteric regulation, effectors act to:

A
  1. change affinity of enzyme for substrate
  2. change vmax (rate of reaction)
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211
Q

Results in premature termination of transcription of mRNA:

A

attentuation

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212
Q

In attenuation, the ___ becomes stalled in the ___ of the mRNA (upstream of the coding region on the enzyme)

A

ribosome; attenuator region

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213
Q

During attenuation, even though transcription is not complete, what can occur and why?

A

translation can begin because transcription and translation occur simultaneously in bacteria

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214
Q

During attenuation, ____ are important for mRNA folding.

A

secondary structures (hairpin)

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215
Q

An example of a secondary structure used for mRNA folding during attenuation:

A

hairpin

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216
Q

In attenuation, what happens when leucine is present?

A

When leucine is present, leucine-rich region allows ribosome to read and translate A and B regions, causing formation of a C-D hairpin strucutre

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217
Q

In attenuation when leucine is present and a C-D hairpin is formed, this causes:

A

the RNA polymerase to dissociate from the DNA, terminating transcription

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218
Q

In attenuation when leucine is present and a C-D hairpin is formed, this causes termination of transcription, ultimately:

A

preventing the cell from making the enzyme to create more leucine

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219
Q

In attenuation, what happens when leucine is absent?

A

When leucine is absent, a high demand for leucine tRNA causes the ribosome to stall, allowing for formation of B-C hairpin structure

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220
Q

In attenuation when leucine is absent and a B-C hairpin has formed this allows for:

A

transcription to occur

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221
Q

In attenuation when leucine is absent and a B-C hairpin has formed, this allows for transcription to occur and ultimately:

A

RNA polymerase will transcribe the rest of the operon and produce more leucine

222
Q

In attenuation if abundant leucine is present, the ribosome:

A

reads through leucine-rich region

223
Q

In attenuation if no leucine is present, the ribosome:

A

stalls with high demand for leucine tRNA

224
Q

Controlling the NUMBER of enzymes can be accomplished through:

A

attenuation

225
Q

Controlling the initiation of transcription can be accomplished through:

A

catabolic & anabolic pathways

226
Q

Controlling transcription initiation in a catabolic pathway is accomplished through:

A

gene induction (by inducer)

227
Q

When controlling transcription initiation, when lactose is absent:

A

repressor molecule binds to operator region

228
Q

When controlling transcription initiation, when lactose is absent and the repressor molecule binds to operator region this:

A

prevents RNA polymerase from beginning transcription process

229
Q

When a repressor is bound to the operator region and preventing RNA polymerase from binding:

A

NO mRNA or enzymes are produced

230
Q

Describe what occurs in a catabolic pathway when lactose is absent:

A

Repressor molecule binds to operator region, preventing RNA polymerase from beginning transcription = no mRNA or enzymes produced

231
Q

Describe what occurs in a catabolic pathways when lactose is present:

A

Inducer molecule binds to/inactivates the repressor and stops it from binding to the operator region = increased transcription

232
Q

When lactose is present in a catabolic pathway, resulting in increased transcription, ultimately:

A

enzymes are produced to break down lactose for sugars

233
Q

Catabolic pathways: ______

Anabolic pathways: _______

A

gene induction (by inducer); gene repression (by corepressor)

234
Q

Controlling transcription initiation in anabolic pathways is accomplished through:

A

gene repression (by corepressor)

235
Q

Anabolic pathways use of gene repression via a corepressor is considered the:

A

default- mRNA is produced

236
Q

When is gene repression via a corepressor turned on in anabolic pathways?

A

when tryptophan (end-product) is at very high levels

237
Q

Discuss what happens in an anabolic pathway when tryptophan is at very high levels:

A

tryptophan will act as corepressor by binding to repressor, allowing it to bind to operator site

238
Q

When tryptophan (at high levels) acts as a corepressor, this ultimately:

A

inhibits transcription

239
Q

Genetic complementation is a genetic approach to studying:

A

bacteria pathogenesis

240
Q

In our study, we studied Yersina psudotuberculosis genes that confer ____ on ____.

A

invasiveness on E. coli

241
Q

List the first 4 steps of genetic complementation:

A
  1. Isolate DNA and cut into restriction fragments
  2. Splice (insert) donor DNA into the plasmid
  3. Introduce into recipient
  4. Enrich for invasive clones
242
Q

In step 3 of genetic complementation “introduce into recipient”, why are we introducing the Y. Psuedotubercolisis plasmid into E. coli?

A

Because E. coli is not invasive, so if we can cause it to become invasive with fragments of yersinia DNA, we can identify the invasive gene

243
Q

In genetic complementation, when we introduce the DNA into the recipient (E.coli), the plasmids will:

A

divide and replicate right along with E.coli

244
Q

In step 4 of genetic complementation “Enrich for invasive clones”, what is the goal?

A

goal is to screen different Yersinia genes to determine which one can invade a mammalian cell

245
Q

In step 4 of genetic complementation “Enrich for invasive clones”:

Certain ____ that have acquired a plasmid with the ___ gene for ____ will enter the mammalian cells

A

E. coli; Yersinia gene for invasiveness

246
Q

In step 4 of genetic complementation “enrich for invasive clones”

What is added to kill all the E. coli cells that are outside the mammalian cells and why?

A

Gentamicin (antibiotic) is added to kill all E. coli cells that are outside the mammalian cells (because those did not invade)

247
Q

In step 4 of genetic complementation “Enrich for invasive clones”

After the antibiotic is added to kill the non-invasive E. coli, what occurs next?

A

Mammalian cells are then washed off, lysed, and their contents (including any E. coli that invaded), are plated onto antibiotic petrie dish

248
Q

In step 4 of genetic complementation “Enrich for invasive clones”,

After the mammalian cells are washed, lysed. They then are plated onto antibiotic petrie dish. What does this allow for?

A

This process allows for positive selection of the cells that contain the invasive gene/ antibiotic-resistance

249
Q

In genetic complementation process, after the positive selection of the cells that contain the invasive gene/ antibiotic-resistance, what next occurs? (4 steps)

A
  1. generate DNA sequence = INV gene
  2. deduce protein coding region= invasin protein
  3. manipulate (mutate) gene further
  4. reintroduce into Yersinia
250
Q

During genetic complementation process when manipulating gene further and reintroducing into yersinia, what is the first step to accomplish this?

A
  1. Inv gene is cloned into suicide plasmid for yersinia
251
Q

During genetic complementation process when manipulating gene further and reintroducing into yersinia, following the Inv gene being cloned into a suicide plasmid for yersinia, what occurs next?

A

a majority of the INV gene on suicide plasmid is replaced with a kanamycin-resistance gene (Km^r)

252
Q

During genetic complementation, when reintroducing the manipulated/mutated gene back into yersinia, the Inv on the suicide plasmid may be replaced with the Km^r gene. What will this mutation result in?

A

Loss-of-function mutation

253
Q

During genetic complementation, when reintroducing the manipulated/mutated gene back into yersinia, the Inv on the suicide plasmid may be replaced with the Km^r gene resulting in a loss of function mutation, What will then be done with the plasmids containing the mutated copies?

A

suicide plasmids containing inv loss-of-function mutation is transferred from E. coli to yersinia

254
Q

In genetic complementation when the suicide plasmid containing the inv loss-of- function mutations are transferred from E. coli to Yersinia, the suicide plasmid will:

A

replicate in E.coli but NOT replicate in Yersinia (so plasmids lost after next cell division)

255
Q

In genetic complementation, in the final steps, what is needed to replace the INV gene in yersinia chromosome with the loss-of-function Inv allele from the plasmid?

A

Double recombination event

256
Q

What is ultimately the final step of genetic complementation with yersinia?

A

Test Yersinia INV mutatnts and show that they DO NOT invade (due to loss-of-function mutation)

257
Q

Genetic complementation is used to study:

A

bacteria pathogenesis

258
Q

move from place to place within a genome; jumping genes:

A

transposons

259
Q

Insertion of a transposon in a gene often creates a:

A

loss of function mutation

260
Q

What marks the site of mutation in transposon-based methods?

A

transposon

261
Q

Unlike simple transposons, composite transposons contain:

A

separate IS elements at either end and intervening genes in between

262
Q

The intervening genes in between the IS elements in composite transposons are often responsible for:

A

drug resistance

263
Q

Tn-phoA is an example of:

A

engineered transposon

264
Q

Tn-phoA mutagenesis identifies ____ in vibrio cholera

A

virulence genes

265
Q

Transposon-based methods function to identify:

A

virulence factors

266
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, experimenters are looking for vibrio genes that are: (2)

A
  1. exported into perioplasm
  2. expressed under certain physiologic conditions
267
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, experimenters are looking for vibrio genes under what physiologic conditions?

A

@ pH 6.5 and high osmolarity

268
Q

What its the first step in Tn-phoA mutagenesis?

A
  1. introduce Tn-phoA on a suicide plasmid
269
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, when we introduce Tn-phoA on a suicide plasmid, the transposon may:

A

jump into vibrio chromosome (transposition)

270
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, after Tn-PhoA is introduced on a suicide plasmid, we use ____ to select for cells containing a transposon (as some transposons jumped into the Vibrio chromosome)

A

Kanamycin

271
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, what is required for colonies to grow?

A

kanamycin-resistance

272
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, the third step is to screen for blue colonies, what are we looking for?

A

phoA+ gene

273
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, phoA encodes the enzyme:

A

periplasmic phosphatase

274
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, the expression of phoA gene depends on:

A

fusion of reading frame to an adjacent gene (V. cholera) AFTER transposition

275
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, expression of phoA gene depends on fusion of the reading Fram to an adjacent gene (vibrio cholera) AFTER transposition. What does this fusion do?

A

This fusion tells the protein to go into the periplasm

276
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, why do we see a blue color only if the cell was exported into the periplasm?

A

PhoA enzyme will cut the X-P dye to produce a blue color ONLY if the cell was exported

277
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, PhoA is expressed ____ of bacterial cells.

A

outside

278
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, within the blue colonies, ______ is no longer present

A

Tn-phoA plasmid

279
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, after screening for blue colonies (phoA +), what is measured in the next step?

A

Measure phoA activity after growth in liquid medium

280
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, after measuring phoA activity following growth in a liquid medium, we will ONLY select for bacteria that have have ____ activity at pH 6.5 and _____ osmolarity while having ____ activity at pH 8.0 and ___ osmolarity.

A

high; high

low; low

281
Q

The final step in Tn-phoA mutagenesis is to:

A

test virulence in mouse model

282
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, what should we expect to see when testing virulence in a mouse model?

A

Expect to see DECREASED virulence, because the transposon creates a loss-of-function mutation

283
Q

What is used in the mouse model for typhoid fever?

A

signature tagged mutagenesis

284
Q

Examines individual bacteria for a desirable trait:

A

genetic SCREEN

285
Q

only bacteria with desirable trait grow:

A

genetic SELECTION

286
Q

Genetic screening is based on:

A

phenotype (color, something you can see)

287
Q

Genetic selection is based on:

A

what survives vs. what dies (antibiotic resistance)

288
Q

Signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for typhoid fever) is a ____ for a ____trait. Inability to grow in spleen.

A

screen; negative trait

289
Q

What is the negative trait that is screened for in the signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for typhoid fever)

A

inability to grow in the spleen

290
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for typhoid fever) by screening for a negative trait (inability to grow in spleen), we are looking for:

A

mutants of salmonella that CAN’T infect a mouse

291
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for typhoid fever): What is put into each transposon?

A

Km^r marker + DNA sequence tag (tiny variable region)

292
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for typhoid fever), what is responsible for creating slight differences between the transposons?

A

PCR

293
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for typhoid fever), After PCR of transposons, All the transposons are transferred into:

A

salmonella genome

294
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for typhoid fever), All transposons are transferred into the salmonella genome by using a ____ that moves ____ from E. coli into salmonella

A

suicide plasmid; mini-Tn5

295
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for typhoid fever), All transposons are transferred into the salmonella genome by using suicide plasmid that moves mini-Tn5 from:

A

E.coli to salmonella

296
Q

In signature tagged mutagenesis: If transposition has occurred, all will have:

A

kanamycin resistance

297
Q

In signature tagged mutagenesis: What do we select for after all transposons are transferred into the salmonella genome?

A

Kanamycin resistance

298
Q

In signature tagged mutagenesis, selecting for kanamycin resistance will create:

A

a library of salmonella mutants that each contain a unique mini Tn5 insertion

299
Q

In signature tagged mutagenesis, what do we inject the mouse with?

A

Pooled mutants

300
Q

In signature tagged mutagenesis, once mouse is injected with pooled mutants, we then:

A

recover bacteria from the spleen

301
Q

In signature tagged mutagenesis, what do we do with the recovered bacteria from the spleen and why?

A

place recovered bacteria on a kanamycin dish to identify those with transposon insertions

302
Q

In signature tagged mutagenesis- What are the DNA sequence tags (variable region) used for?

A

used to compare the input and recovered pools of bacteria

303
Q

In signature tagged mutagenesis, what do the blank spots in the covered pool blot represent?

A

bacteria mutants that did NOT grow in mice

304
Q

In signature tagged mutagenesis, the mutants NOT recovered are:

A

avirulent

305
Q

IVET:

A

In-Vivo Expression Technology

306
Q

What mechanism is used in IVET?

A

Promotor trapping

307
Q

In IVET we are looking for genes of salmonella that are:

A

expressed in infection but not in the lab

308
Q

What is the first step of IVET?

A
  1. Put fragments of salmonella DNA into plasmid with PurA, LacZ, and ampicillin resistant gene
309
Q

What type of plasmid is used in the first step of IVET?

A

Suicide plasmid

310
Q

In IVET in the first step, what happens to the suicide plasmid?

A

undergoes double recombination

311
Q

In IVET following the creation of a suicide plasmid containing salmonella, PurA, LacZ, and Ampicillin resistant gene, we engineer the bacteria further by inserting:

A

Loss-of-function PurA mutant

312
Q

In IVET after further engineering the bacteria with a loss-of-function PurA mutant, what occurs?

A

Integration of plasmid onto chromosomes

313
Q

In IVET after integration of plasmid onto the chromosomes, what is the following step>

A

Screen for PurA by injecting pool of fusions into mouse

314
Q

In IVET once the mice have been injected with the pool of fusions, we then:

A

recover bacteria from spleen of mouse

315
Q

In IVET, the bacteria recovered from mouse spleen must have:

A

functional promoter fused to PurA-LacZ operon because they were able to be recovered

316
Q

Gene use to identify virulence genes that are transcriptionally active in the mouse: (IVET)

A

PurA

317
Q

In IVET, the gene used to select for salmonella bacteria that contain the plasmid inserted within their genome

A

Ampicillin Resistance Gene

318
Q

In IVET, after the bacteria have been recovered from the spleen, _____ is screened for in-vitro

A

LacZY

319
Q

In IVET, the gene used to identify virulence genes that are not expressed during laboratory growth

A

LacZY

320
Q

In IVET, ______ do NOT contain LacZ protein.

A

Light-colored colonies

321
Q

In IVET, the light colored colonies that do NOT contain LacZ protein are the ones that are:

A

linked to a promotor expressed in infection (in mouse) but NOT in lab

322
Q

DFIT

A

Differential Fluorescence Induction Technique

323
Q

In DFIT what are we looking for?

A

Looking to identify genes continuing potential macrophage survival factors

324
Q

(DFIT) _____ can survive within macrophages while ____ cannot.

A

Pathogenic salmonella; normal salmonella

325
Q

In DFIT, fragments of ___ chromosome are placed into ____.

A

salmonella; GFP-fusion plasmid

326
Q

(DFIT):

GFP can only be expressed if:

A

It is inserted next to a gene with an open reading Fram and promoter

327
Q

In the second step of DFIT, macrophages are infected with transformed GFP salmonella and separated by:

A

fluorescence activated cell sorting (FACS)

328
Q

In DFIT, what happens to the macrophages with fluorescent bacteria after separation via FACS?

A

They are lysed, grown on media, and then sorted again by FACS

329
Q

In DFIT, why are cells ran through FACS a second time?

A

In order to identify bacterial cells that do NOT fluoresce on their own

330
Q

In the final step of DFIT, what are we looking for?

A

bacterial cells that fluoresce within macrophages from the bacterial cell population that did not fluoresce when growing on their own in lab environment

331
Q

IVIAT:

A

In vivo-induced antigen technology

332
Q

IVIAT is an _____ approach

A

antibody-based

333
Q

Uses patient serum to identify genes of bacterial pathogens expressed during infection

A

IVIAT

334
Q

In IVIAT, what do antibodies typically respond to?

A

antibodies typically respond to protein on the surface or secreted by bacteria

335
Q

In IVIAT, why do only some of the pathogen proteins react with patient serum?

A

Because only a subset of the pathogen proteins are secreted or expressed on the bacterial cell surface

336
Q

In IVIAT, what vector is used?

A

bacteriophage

337
Q

In IVIAT, the bacteriophages are placed into:

A

E.coli

338
Q

In IVIAT, when the bacteriophages are put into & replicate in E. coli, what results?

A

zones of clearing

339
Q

In IVIAT, what causes the zones of clearing?

A

Clear areas remain after local population of bacteria are lysed

340
Q

In IVIAT, in addition to the zones of clearing, what else is present following the replication of bacteriophages in E. coli?

A

phage derby (plaque) and Recombinate bacterial proteins

341
Q

In IVIAT, we remove intact E. coli because some antibodies will bind to the E. coli, we don’t want those antibodies, we only want:

A

antibodies for Tb

342
Q

In IVIAT, we must remove antibodies from patient serum because antibodies will bind to each phase plaque replicate, generating a signal from all plaques, which would appear as:

A

black spots

343
Q

In IVIAT, once you remove antibodies, the remaining serum is:

A

incubated with plaques on membrane filter

344
Q

In IVIAT, the TB antigens will turn:

A

Black

345
Q

In the microarray scheme, genes encoding potential virulence factors are identified by identifying:

A

genes whose mRNAs are expressed at different levels in bacteria growth in the lab compared to bacteria isolated from a patient

346
Q

In the microarray scheme we convert ____ to ___, label with ____, and then mix ___ with array on glass slide.

A

RNA to DNA; fluorescent dye; copy-DNA

347
Q

In the microarray scheme, PCR can be used to:

A

amplify individual coding regions of particular bacterial genome

348
Q

Microarray Scheme:

Signal for a gene that has increased expression during infection:

A

Green fluorescent signal

349
Q

Microarray Scheme:

Green fluorescent signal = singal for a gene that has increased expression during infection =

A

Cy3> Cy5

350
Q

Microarray Scheme:

Signal for “house-keeping” gene expressed at the same level in choler both during an infection and during growth in lab

A

Yellow fluorescent signal

351
Q

Microarray Scheme:

Yellow fluorescent signal = signal for “house-keeping” gene expressed at the same level in choler both during an infection and during growth in lab =

A

Cy3= Cy5

352
Q

Microarray Scheme:

Signal for a gene that has an increased expression during growth in laboratory

A

Red fluorescent signal

353
Q

Microarray Scheme:

Red fluorescent signal =signal for a gene that has an increased expression during growth in laboratory =

A

Cy5 > Cy3

354
Q

Chemical compounds used to treat disease

A

chemotherapeutic agent

355
Q

Destroy pathogenic microbes or inhibit their growth within host:

A

antimicrobials

356
Q

Destroy or inhibit bacteria; a class of a chemotherapeutic agent:

A

antibiotics

357
Q

Most antibiotics are _____ or their ____.

A

microbial products; derivatives

358
Q

When bacteria produces material to kill each other and we those materials to kill bacteria:

A

germ warfare

359
Q

What are some bacterial sources of antibiotics?

A
  1. streptomyces
  2. micromonospora
  3. bacillus
360
Q

What are some fungal sources of antibiotics?

A
  1. penicillium
  2. cephalosporium
361
Q

What are the four general characteristics of ANTIMICROBIAL drugs?

A
  1. selective toxicity
  2. therapeutic dose
  3. toxic dose
  4. therapeutic index
362
Q

The ability of a drug to kill or inhibit a pathogen while damaging host as little as possible:

A

selective toxicity

363
Q

Drug level required for clinical treatment:

A

therapeutic dose

364
Q

Drug level at which drug becomes too toxic for patient: (i.e., produces side effects)

A

toxic dose

365
Q

Ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose:

A

therapeutic index

366
Q

What are the four general characteristics of ANTIBIOTICS?

A
  1. bactericidal
  2. bacteriostatic
  3. broad spectrum
  4. narrow spectrum
367
Q

Kill bacteria:

A

bactericidal

368
Q

inhibit growth of bacteria:

A

bacteriostatic

369
Q

attack many different bacteria (gram positive and negative)

A

Broad-spectrum

370
Q

attack many different bacteria (gram positive and negative)

A

Broad-spectrumA

371
Q

Attack only a few different bacteria:

A

narrow-spectrum

372
Q

How is the effectiveness of antimicrobial drug therapy expressed?

A
  1. minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)
  2. Minimal bacteriocidal concentration (MBC)
373
Q

Lowest concentration of drug that inhibits growth of pathogen:

A

minimal inhibitory concentration

374
Q

Lowest concentration of drug that kills pathogen:

A

Minimal bactericidal concentration

375
Q

What are the two techniques used to determine MIC and MBC?

A
  1. Dilution Susceptibility Test
  2. Disk Diffusion Test
376
Q

Involves inoculating media containing various concentrations of drug:

A

Dilution susceptibility test

377
Q

In a dilution susceptibility test, how do we know which is the MIC?

A

broth or agar with lowest concentration showing no growth

378
Q

To introduce an infective agent or vaccine into organism/medium to produce immunity:

A

Inoculate

379
Q

In a dilution susceptibility test, how do we know which is the MBC:

A

Broth from which microbe cannot be recovered

380
Q

In a dilution susceptibility test, if broth is used, tube showing ____ can be subcultured into drug-free medium

A

no growth

381
Q

Process in which disks impregnated with specific drugs are placed on agar plates inoculated with test microbe

A

disk diffusion test

382
Q

How does a disk diffusion test work?

A

drug diffuses from disk into agar, establishing concentration gradient

383
Q

In a disk diffusion test, what signifies no growth?

A

clear zones of inhibition around disk

384
Q

What is the standardized method for carrying out disk diffusion tests?

A

Kirby-bauer method

385
Q

In the Kirby-bauer method for carrying out a disk diffusion test, sensitivity and resistance are determined using tables that relate:

A

zone diameter to degree of microbial resistance

386
Q

In the Kirby-Bauer Method for carrying out disk diffusion test, the table values are plotted and used to determine if:

A

concentration of drug reached in body will be effective

387
Q

In the Kirby-Bauer method for carrying out disk diffusion test, the zone of inhibition depends on:

A

how effective the antibiotic is at stopping the bacterial growth

388
Q

In the kirby-bauer method for carrying out disk diffusion test, a larger zone of inhibition =

A

smaller MIC

389
Q

In the kirby-bauer method for carrying out disk diffusion test, designations are based on studies to establish:

A

the levels a drug can safety reach in the human bod

390
Q

In the kirby-bauer method for carrying out disk diffusion test, what is considered RESISTANT:

What does this mean?

A

Less than 12 mm ; weaker antibiotic, requires higher concentration to stop growth

391
Q

In the kirby-bauer method for carrying out disk diffusion test, what is considered SENSITIVE and what does this mean?

A

greater than 17mm; a stronger antibiotic

392
Q

In order to be considered effective in the blood, concentration of drug at infection side must be:

A

Greater than or equal to the MIC

393
Q

Describe the growth of colonies if antibiotics are effective:

A

No colonies will grow

394
Q

What can be used to determine the concentration of drug in blood? (5)

A

Microbiological, chemical, immunological, enzymatic, or chromatographic assays

395
Q

What are the three factors influencing the effectiveness of antimicrobial drugs?

A
  1. ability of drug to reach site of infection
  2. ability of drug to reach concentrations in the body that exceed MIC of pathogen
  3. Susceptibility of pathogen to the drug
396
Q

The ability of the drug to reach site of infection depends in part on:

A

mode of administration

397
Q

What are the three modes of administration of drugs?

A
  1. oral
  2. topical
  3. parenteral routes
398
Q

What does parenteral routes of drug administration mean?

A

non-oral routes of administration

399
Q

Orally administered drugs must be able to overcome:

A

stomach acid- some drugs are destroyed by this

400
Q

What are two cases in which drugs can be exluded?

A
  1. blood clots
  2. necrotic tissue
401
Q

The ability of a drug to reach concentrations in the body that exceed MIC of pathogen depend on:

A
  1. amount administered
  2. route of administration
  3. speed of uptake
  4. rate of clearance (elimination) from body
402
Q

When discussing the susceptibility of a pathogen to drug:

A drug requires ___ to be effective

A

bacterial cell growth

403
Q

How soon a drug stops bacterial growth:

A

speed of action

404
Q

When discussing the mechanism of action of antimicrobial agents, the agent can impact the pathogen by targeting:

A

some function necessary for its reproduction or survival

405
Q

Mechanism of action of antimicrobial agent:

Ideal, target function is:

A

very specific to pathogen

406
Q

Mechanism of action of antimicrobial agent:

If targeted function is very specific to pathogen this means:

A

high therapeutic index

407
Q

What are four mechanisms of action of antimicrobial agents?

A
  1. disruption of bacterial cell wall
  2. inhibition of protein synthesis
  3. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  4. antimetabolites
408
Q

Disruption of bacterial cell wall:

____ is unique to bacteria:

A

peptidoglycan

409
Q

Disruption of bacterial cell wall:

Many antibiotics target this pathway:

A

peptidoglycan synthesis

410
Q
A
411
Q

Disruption of bacterial cell wall:

Acts as a carrier and links to NAM prior to addition of peptide side chain

A

Uridine Diphosphate (UDP)

412
Q

Steps to peptidoglycan synthesis:

  1. Peptidoglycan repeat unit forms in ____
  2. Repeat unit then transported across membrane by ____.
  3. Repeat unit attached to ____ .
  4. Cross-links formed by ___ .
A
  1. cytoplasm
  2. bactoprenol (lipid)
  3. growing peptidoglycan chain
  4. transpeptidation
413
Q

The exchange of one peptide bond for another:

A

transpeptidation

414
Q

Inhibits transpeptidation:

A

B-Lactam antibiotics

415
Q

What is an example of a B-lactamase inhibitor?

A
  • clavulanic acid
  • sulbactam
  • tazobactum
416
Q

Are not antibiotics but help B-lactam antibiotics by preventing their degredation by B-lactamases:

A

B-lactamase inhibitor

417
Q

Enzymes produced by some bacteria that are resistant to B-lactam antibiotics

A

B-lactamases

418
Q

Used in combination with B-lactam antibiotics:

A

B-lactamase inhibitor

419
Q

The first combination of B-lactam antibiotic + B-lactamase inhibitors:

Specifically what was used?

A

Augmentin

amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

420
Q

Binds terminal D-Ala-D-Ala and sterically inhibits the addition of peptidoglycan subunits to the cell wall

A

vancomycin

421
Q

Vancomycin binding to existing peptidoglycan chains inhibits the:

A

transpeptidation reaction that cross-links the chains

422
Q

Important for the treatment of antibiotic resistant staph and enterococcal infections:

A

vancomycin

423
Q

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems & Monobactams
are all:

A

B-Lactams

424
Q

Vancomycin & Teichoplanin are both

A

Glycopeptides

425
Q

Bacitracin & Polymixins are both:

A

Polypeptides

426
Q

Polypeptides, Glycopeptides, and B-Lactams are all responsible for:

A

disrupting cell wall

427
Q

Second line treatment for mycobacterium tuberculosis:

A

Cycloserine

428
Q

Sulfonamides, Trimethoprim, Dapsone, P-aminosalicyclic acid are all:

A

anti-metabolites

429
Q

Unlike bacteria, humans do not make ____, we require it in our diet

A

folic acid

430
Q

Antimetabolites act to inhibit ___ in bacteria

A

folic acid synthesis

431
Q

Once resistance originates in a population, it can be transmitted to other bacteria via:

A
  1. new mutations
  2. pre-existing resistance genes
432
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Hydrolysis of B-Lactam ring by B-lactamase:

Plasmidborne?

A

Penicillins & Cephalosporins

yes

433
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Change in penicillin-binding protein:

Plasmidborne?

A

Methicillin

No

434
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Efflux pump pushes drug out of cell:

Plasmidborne?

A

Tetracyclines

yes

435
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Mutations in 23S rRNA:

Plasmidborne?

A

Oxazolidinones

no

436
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Mutations in genes encoding DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

Plasmidborne?

A

Quinolones

No

437
Q

Resistance mechanisms: How do bacteria resist antibiotics?

A
  1. impermeable barrier
  2. target modification
  3. antibiotic modification
  4. efflux pump mechanism
438
Q

Resistance mechanism in which the bacterial cell membrane develops an impermeable barrier which blocked antibiotics:

A

impermeable barrier

439
Q

Resistance mechanism in which modification of components of the bacteria which are targeted by the antibiotic, meaning the antibiotic can no longer bind properly to its target in order to destroy the bacteria:

A

target modification

440
Q

Resistance mechanism in which the cell produces substances, usually an enzyme that inactivate the antibiotic before it can harm the bacteria:

A

antibiotic modification

441
Q

Resistance mechanism in which the antibiotic is actively pumped out of the bacteria so that it cannot harm the bacteria:

A

efflux pump

442
Q

Genetic elements involved in resistance gene dissemination include:

A
  1. plasmids
  2. transducing bacteriophage
  3. bacterial chromosomal genes
  4. transposons
  5. Integrons
443
Q

Genetic elements involved in resistance gene dissemination:

Some plasmids can promote their own transfer by:

A

conjugation

444
Q

Genetic elements involved in resistance gene dissemination:

Some transducing bacteriophage can package non-phage DNA resulting in transfer by:

A

transduction

445
Q

Genetic elements involved in resistance gene dissemination:

Bacterial chromosomal genes can undergo ___ or transfer by ____.

A

mutations; transformation

446
Q

Development and spread of drug-resistant pathogens caused by drug treatment, which destroys sensitive strains:

A

superinfection

447
Q

What steps can be taken to prevent emergence of drug resistance?

A
  1. give drug in high concentrations
  2. give 2 or more drugs at the same time
  3. use drugs only when necessary
448
Q

What are two possible future solutions for preventing emergence of drug resistance?

A
  1. continued development of new drugs
  2. use of bacteriophages to treat bacterial disease
449
Q

Common organisms in superinfections include:

A
  1. C-diff
  2. MDR gram negative rods
  3. MRSA
  4. candida
450
Q

Resistance to infectious disease:

A

immunity

451
Q

Collection of cells, tissues, and molecules that mediate resistance to infections

A

immune system

452
Q

Coordinated reaction of the immune system to infectious microbes

A

immune response

453
Q

study of the immune system, including its responses to microbial pathogens and damaged tissues and its role in disease

A

immunology

454
Q

Immune response that acts immediately

A

Innate

455
Q

Immune response that is NOT antigen specific

A

Innate

456
Q

Innate immune response recognizes ____ that are shared by many different microbes, as well as _____.

A

PAMPs & DAMPS

457
Q

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns:

A

PAMPs

458
Q

Damage Associated Molecular Patterns:

A

DAMPs

459
Q

Genes encoding pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) are present in the:

A

germ line

460
Q

Genes encoding receptors that recognize PAMPs are present in the germ line and do not under go:

A

somatic recombination or hyper mutation

461
Q

In response to infection, innate immune cells do NOT undergo:

A

clonal expansion

462
Q

Immune charaterized by no memory and cells that are not reactive to self:

A

Innate

463
Q

The adaptive immune system requires ___ before it is effective

A

days to weeks

464
Q

The adaptive immune system is highly:

A

antigen-specific

465
Q

The adaptive immune system recognizes ____ on ____ of _____

A

specific epitopes; specific proteins; specific pathogens

466
Q

In the adaptive immune system, functional genes encoding antigen receptors are:

A

NOT present in the germ line

467
Q

In the adaptive immune system, functional antigen receptor genes are generated by ___ and ___ of germ line genes during maturation of B cells and T cells.

A

somatic recombination & mutation

468
Q

In the adaptive immune system, the functional antigen receptor genes that are generated by somatic recombination and mutation of germ line genes, are produced:

A

prior to exposure to any antigens

469
Q

In the adaptive immune response, clonal selection and proliferation of B and T lymphocytes specific for particular antigens occurs:

A

following exposure to those antigens

470
Q

The adaptive immune response is ____ to self

A

non-reactive

471
Q

Gives rise to immunologic memory:

A

adaptive immune system

472
Q

Innate or Adaptive:

Provide initial defense against infections

A

innnate

473
Q

Innate or Adaptive:

Develops later and is mediated by lymphocytes and their products

A

Adaptive

474
Q

Innate or Adaptive:

Some mechanisms (epithelial barriers) prevent infections

A

Innate

475
Q

Innate or Adaptive:

Other mechanisms (phagocytes, NK cells, complement system) eliminate microbes

A

Innate

476
Q

Innate or Adaptive:

Involves humoral and cell-mediated immunity

A

adaptive

477
Q

B-lymphocytes secrete antibodies that block infections and eliminate extracellular microbes:

A

Humoral immunity

478
Q

____ secrete antibodies that block infections and eliminate extracellular microbes

A

B-lymphocytes

479
Q

T-lymphocytes eradicate intracellular microbes

A

Cell-mediated immunity

480
Q

T-lymphocytes eradicate ____ microbes (in cell-mediated immunity)

A

intracellular

481
Q

Eliminate phagocytosed (ingested) microbes

A

Helper T cells

482
Q

Kill infected cells and eliminate reservoirs of infection:

A

Cytotoxic T cells

483
Q

Feature of adaptive immunity which ensures that distinct antigen elicit specific responses

A

specificity

484
Q

Feature of adaptive immunity that enables the immune system to respond to a large variety of antigens

A

diversity

485
Q

Feature of adaptive immunity that increases number of antigen-specific lymphocytes from a small number of naive lymphocytes:

A

clonal expansion

486
Q

Lymphocyte clones with diverse receptors arise in primary lymphoid organs:

A

clonal selection

487
Q

In clonal selection, lymphocyte clones with diverse receptors arise in:

A

primary lymphoid organs

488
Q

A population of lymphocytes with identical antigen receptors (sam specificity); all derived from the same precursor cell:

A

Clone

489
Q

In clonal selection, clones of mature lymphocytes specific for many antigens enter:

A

lymphoid tissue

490
Q

In clonal selection, after entering lymphoid tissues, antigen-specific clones are activated by:

A

antigens

491
Q

In clonal selection, what occurs when antigen-specific clones are activated by antigens?

A

stimulation of proliferation & differentiation of that clone

492
Q

The secondary response to a specific antigen is:

A

large and more rapid (due to memory)

493
Q

The primary response to a one antigen is:

A

different than to a different antigen (specificity)

494
Q

Antigen recognition of B lymphocytes:

A

soluble or cell surface antigens

495
Q

Effector function of ______ includes:

Secretion of antibodies:
- neutralization of microbe
- phagocytosis
- complement activation

A

B-lymphocytes

496
Q

Antigen recognition of helper T cells:

A

antigens on surfaces of APC

497
Q

The effector function of ____ includes:

Secretion of cytokines:
- activation of macrophages
- inflammation
- activation of T & B lymphocytes

A

helper T-cells

498
Q

Antigen recognition of cytotoxic T-cells:

A

Antigens in infected cells

499
Q

The effector function of ____ includes:

Killing of infected cells

A

Cytotoxic T cells

500
Q

Regulatory T cells function to:

A

Surpress immune response

501
Q

Antigen recognition of of natural killer cells:

A

Recognize change on surface of infected cells

502
Q

Natural killer cells respond by:

A

killing infected cell

503
Q

After lymphocytes are activated by antigen, ____ cells migrate towards each other and meet at the edge of follicle

A

B & T cells

504
Q

After lymphocytes are activated by antigen, B & T Cells migrate towards each other and meet at the edge of follicle and there, helper T cells interact with and help B cells:

A

differentiate into antibody producing cells

505
Q
  • innate defensive mechanisms to keep out microbes
  • if defensive barriers are crossed = inflammation & antiviral mechanisms
A

Early innate immune response

506
Q

Secreted antibodies, phagocytes & helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells:

A

adaptive immune response

507
Q

Includes microbial antigen from vaccine or infection

A

active immunity

508
Q

Is active immunity specific? Does it cause memory?

A

Yes & Yes

509
Q

Includes serum antibodies from immune individual administered to uninfected individual:

A

passive immunity

510
Q

Is passive immunity specific? Does it cause memory?

A

Yes and yes

511
Q

In innate immunity, specificity is based on:

A

PAMPs and DAMPs

512
Q

In adaptive immunity, specificity is based on:

A

structural details of microbial molecules (antigens)

513
Q

The receptors of the innate immune system are encoded in the:

This results in:

A

germline; limited diversity

514
Q

The receptors of the adaptive immune system are encoded by:

This results in:

A

genes produced by somatic recombination; greater diversity

515
Q

The distribution of receptors in the innate immune system are:

A

non-clonal

516
Q

Identical receptors on all cells of the same lineage:

A

nonclonal (seen in innate immunity)

517
Q

The distribution of receptors in the adaptive immune system are:

A

clonal

518
Q

Clones of lymphocytes with distinct specificities express different receptors:

A

clonal (seen in adaptive immunity)

519
Q

The two principal types of reaction of the innate immune system are:

A
  1. stimulate acute inflammation
  2. anti-viral defenses
520
Q

The accumulation of leukocytes, phagocytic cells, plasma proteins, and fluid derived from the blood at an extravascular tissue site of infection or injury:

A

acute inflammation

521
Q

NK cell-mediated killing of virus-infected cells

A

anti-viral defenses

522
Q

Interferon A/B (Type 1 interferons), are secreted by virus-infected cells, bind to receptors on surrounding cells, and induce an antiviral state in those cells:

A

anti-viral defenses

523
Q

List the prominent cell-associated pattern recognition receptors and sensors of innate immunity:

A
  1. Toll-Like Receptors (TLRs)
  2. NOD-like receptors (NLRs)
  3. RIG-like receptors (RLRs)
524
Q

Where are the prominent cell-associated pattern recognition receptors and sensors of innate immunity located?

A

extracellularly in the cytoplasm or in endosomes

525
Q

TLRs that recognize microbial products (such as PAMPs) will be found in the _____ ,while TLRs that recognize nucleic acids will be present within the _____

A

cytoplasm; endosome

526
Q

TLR engagement by bacterial or viral molecules ultimately leads to:

A
  1. acute inflammation
  2. stimulation of adaptive immunity
  3. antiviral state
527
Q

A family of more than 20 different cytosolic proteins that recognize PAMPs and DAMPs in the cytoplasm and recruit other proteins to form signaling complexes (such as inflammasomes) that promote inflammation:

A

NOD-like receptors (NLRs)

528
Q

Cytosolic sensors of viral RNA that respond to viral nucleic acids by inducing production of the antiviral type 1 interferons

A

RIG-like receptors (RLRs)

529
Q

Physical barrier to infection:

A

epithelial barrier

530
Q
  • Killing of microbes by locally produced antibiotics & killing of microbes and infected cells by intraepithelial lymphocytes are both functions of the:
A

epithelial barrier

531
Q
  • secrete cytokines that induce inflammation and ingest and destroy microbes
A

macrophages (can survive long periods of time in tissues)

532
Q
  • circulating phagocytic cells
  • most abundant leukocyte in blood
  • first responder to most infections
  • live only a few hours in tissues
A

neutrophils

533
Q

What happens to blood monocytes after entering into tissues?

A

differentiate into macrophages

534
Q

What cells are the phagocytes of the innate immune response?

A

neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages

535
Q
  • microbes binding to TLRs
  • cytokines binding to cytokine receptors
  • complement fragments binding to complement receptors

These all cause:

A

activation of macrophages

536
Q

Component of the innate immune system:

  • secretes cytokines
  • presents antigenic peptides to T cells
A

Dendritic cells (sentinel cells)

537
Q

Component of the innate immune system:

  • abundant cytoplasmic granules
  • present in skin and mucosal epithelium
  • contain vasoactive amines (e.g. histamine)
  • cause vasodilation and capillary permeability
A

mast cells

538
Q

Component of the innate immune system:

  • lymphocyte-like cells
  • produce cytokines but lack T-cell antigen receptors (TCRs)
A

innate lymphoid cells

539
Q

Both mast cells and dendritic cells are part of:

A

innate immune system

540
Q

Induce inflammation, opsonize microbes enhancing their phagocytosis, cause osmotic lysis of microbes:

A

complement

541
Q

List the complement proteins involved in the early steps and late steps:

A

early steps: C3a, C3b

late steps: C5a, C6-C9

542
Q

C3a is responsible for:

A

inflammation

543
Q

C3b is responsible for:

A

opsonization and phagocytosis

544
Q

C5a is responsible for:

A

inflammation

545
Q

C6-9 are responsible for:

A

lysis of microbe

546
Q
  • rolling
  • integrin activation by chemokines
  • stable adhesion
  • migration through endothelium

These are the steps in:

A

migration of blood leukocytes to site of infection

547
Q
  • kill virus-infected cells
  • secrete interferon Y which activates macrophages
A

natural killer cells

548
Q

secreted by virus-infected cells, induce anti-viral state in surrounding cells (local)

A

IFN a/b (Type 1 interferons)

549
Q

_____ & _____ are combated mainly by an acute inflammatory response, in which neutrophils and monocytes are recruited to the site of infection, and by the complement system

A

extracellular bacteria & fungi

550
Q

_____, which can survive inside phagocytes, are eliminated when the microbial killing functions of phagocytes are activated by TLRs and other sensors, as well as by cytokines

A

Intracellular bacteria

551
Q

Defense against ___ is provided by type 1 interferons (interferons a & b) and by natural killer (NK) cells

A

viruses

microbiology (24 decks)

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