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AWS Developer Associate - C02 > AWS Developer Associate - C02 (Set 1) > Flashcards

AWS Developer Associate - C02 (Set 1) Flashcards

1
Q

The ALB does not show the application servers the IP of the client directly. How can the application servers see the IP of the client?

A

By looking at the X-Forwarded-For Header

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2
Q

Which ELB has Cross-Zone Load Balancing enabled by default?

A

ALB

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3
Q

ALB uses what protocols?

A

HTTP & HTTPS

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4
Q

What is the order of hierarchy with an ASG, ELB, and EC2 instances

A

Users access ELB, which points to the ASG, which points to EC2 instances

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5
Q

NLB uses what protocols?

A

TCP & UDP

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6
Q

What is an example target if you use ASG Target Tracking Scaling?

A

To keep the CPU Utilization below 70%

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7
Q

Which is higher performing in latency and requests/second, NLB or ALB?

A

NLB

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8
Q

What is ASG Simple / Step Scaling?

A

Adding X units after a CloudWatch Alarm is triggered.
ie: When a CloudWatch Alarm is triggered (CPU > 70%), then add 2 units

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9
Q

What are the target groups for NLB?

A

EC2 Instances, IP Addresses, ALB, Health Checks

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10
Q

ASG Scheduled Actions

A

Anticipates scaling based on known usage patterns

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11
Q

What is ASG Predictive Scaling?

A

Continuously forecasting load and scheduling scaling ahead of expected high usage periods.

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12
Q

Metrics to scale on for ASG:

A

CPUUtilization, RequestCountPerTarget, Average Network in / out, Any other custom metric

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13
Q

What is scaling cooldown, and what is the default time for it?

A

After a scaling activity happens, you are in the cooldown period, with a default of 300 seconds

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14
Q

What are the target groups for ALB?

A

EC2 Instances, ECS tasks, Lambda Functions, IP Addresses

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15
Q

What types of Databases can you have within RDS?

A

Postgres, MySQL, MariaDB, Oracle, Microsoft SQL Server, Aurora

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16
Q

RDS Read Replicas use what type of reads?

A

RDS Read Replicas are asynchronous, so they use eventually consistent reads.

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17
Q

Aurora grows in increments of ___ GB up to ___TB

A

10 GB … 128 TB

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18
Q

Does RDS & Aurora support at-rest or in-flight encryption?

A

Both, KMS for at rest and TLS-ready by default

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19
Q

What types of ElastiCache are there?

A

Redis and Memcached

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20
Q

Which Elasticache is highly available?

A

Redis

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21
Q

Which Elasticache is non persistent?

A

Memcached

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22
Q

Which Elasticache supports backup and restore features?

A

Redis

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23
Q

Which Elasticache supports sharding and multi-threaded architecture?

A

Memcached

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24
Q

Which cache of ElastiCache is simpler in terms of setup and use?

A

Memcached

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25
Q

Each Route53 record contains (5):

A

Domain/subdomain Name, Record Type (A/AAAA), Value, Routing Policy, TTL

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26
Q

What types of DNS record types does Route53 support?

A

A, AAAA, CNAME, NS

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27
Q

What is Record Type A?

A

Maps a hostname to IPv4

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28
Q

What is Record Type AAAA?

A

Maps a hostname to IPv6

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29
Q

What is Record Type CNAME?

A

Maps a hostname to another hostname

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30
Q

What is Record Type NS?

A

Name Servers for the Hosted Zone

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31
Q

What is the subdomain in the following example: http://www.tinydancinghorse.com ?

A

www

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32
Q

What is the Top level domain in: http://www.tinydancinghorse.com ?

A

com

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33
Q

What is the Domain Name in the following example: http://www.tinydancinghorse.com ?

A

tinydancingHorse

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34
Q

What is the Root domain in: http://www.tinydancinghorse.com?

A

Tinydancinghorse.com

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35
Q

What does a CNAME do in Route53?

A

Points a hostname to any other hostname (app.mydomain.com -> bla.anything.com)

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36
Q

What does an Alias do in Route53?

A

Points a hostname to an AWS Resource (app.mydomain.com -> bla.amazonaws.com) AND Works for ROOT domain and NON ROOT domain

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37
Q

What Record type is an Alias Record in Route53

A

A or AAAA

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38
Q

How do you set the TTL for an Alias Record in Route53?

A

You can’t

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39
Q

What types of Routing Policies does Route53 support? (7)

A

Simple, Weighted, Failover, Latency Based, Geolocation, Multi-Value answer, Geoproximity

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40
Q

What does simple routing policy do?

A

Routes traffic to a single resource. If multiple values are returned, random one is chosen by the client.

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41
Q

What does the weighted routing policy do?

A

Control the % of the requests that go to each specific resource

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42
Q

What does the latency-based routing policy do?

A

Redirects to the resource that has the least latency close to us - Latency is based on traffic between users and AWS Regions

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43
Q

Where do Route53 health checks if an EC2 instance is within an ASG within an ALB?

A

The ALB

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44
Q

Are Route53 health checkers inside or outside of the VPC?

A

Outside

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45
Q

What does the Geolocation Routing Policy do?

A

Routes based on user location, specific to continent, country, or state

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46
Q

What does the Geoproximity routing policy do?

A

Routes traffic to resources based on the geographic location of users and resources

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47
Q

What do Internet Gateways do for VPCs?

A

Helps our VPC instance connect with the external internet

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48
Q

What do NAT Gateways do?

A

Allows our VPC to access the internet through the Internet Gateway (IGW) while staying private

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49
Q

What is a NACL?

A

A Network ACL is a firewall which controls traffic to and from a subnet, which can have ALLOW or DENY rules, only including IP addresses

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50
Q

What is a security group?

A

A firewall that controls traffic to and from an ENI/EC2 Instance. It can only have ALLOW rules, which include IP addresses and other security groups

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51
Q

What AWS services access a VPC through a VPC Endpoint?

A

S3 and DynamoDB

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52
Q

What AWS services access a VPC through a VPC Endpoint Interface?

A

Anything other than S3 and DynamoDB

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53
Q

What is the URL for EC2 Instance Metadata?

A

http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data

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54
Q

Can you retrieve the IAM Role name or the IAM policy from the metadata?

A

Just the IAM Role name

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55
Q

What API call do you need to use for MFA?

A

STS GetSessionToken; $> sts get-session-token

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56
Q

What S3 encryption type requires HTTPS over HTTP?

A

SSE-C

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57
Q

What is the default encryption in S3?

A

SSE-S3

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58
Q

Why can’t you generate a pre-signed S3 URL and paste it in the browser if you use SSE-C?

A

For non-SSE-C objects, you can generate a presigned URL and directly paste that URL into a browser to access the data. However, you cannot do this for SSE-C objects, because in addition to the presigned URL, you also must include HTTP headers that are specific to SSE-C objects. Therefore, you can use presigned URLs for SSE-C objects only programmatically.

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59
Q

What must be enabled to use MFA delete in S3?

A

Versioning must be enabled.

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60
Q

What is the purpose of CloudFront?

A

It is a CDN (Content Delivery Network) that gives developers an easy and cost effective way to distribute content with low latency and high data transfer speeds.

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61
Q

What is the API in CloudFront that invalidates part of the cache?

A

CreateInvalidation API

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62
Q

Where are Docker images stored in AWS?

A

Amazon ECR (Elastic Container Registry)

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63
Q

What is AWS Fargate and which AWS Services does it support?

A

It is Amazon’s own Serverless container platform, which works with ECS and EKS

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64
Q

What are the two launch types for ECS?

A

EC2 & Fargate

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65
Q

What is the difference between Fargate and EC2 launch types for ECS?

A

Fargate is serverless with no infrastructure to manage, while EC2 Launch type requires you to provision & maintain the EC2 Instances

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66
Q

What is a Task Role?

A

It allows the containers in your task to assume an IAM role without having to use AWS credentials inside the containers.

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67
Q

Which Load Balancer is not compatible with ECS Fargate?

A

CLB - Classic Load Balancer

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68
Q

Which ECS Launch type(s) does EFS work with?

A

Both EC2 and Fargate

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69
Q

Is EFS serverless or not?

A

Serverless

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70
Q

What is Target Tracking ECS Autoscaling?

A

Scales based on a target value for a specific CloudWatch metric

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71
Q

What is Step Scaling ECS Autoscaling?

A

Scales by adding X tasks based on a specific CloudWatch alarm

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72
Q

What is Scheduled Scaling ECS Autoscaling?

A

Scales the number of ECS tasks based on the time or day.

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73
Q

What is the problem with autoscaling for EC2 ECS?

A

ECS Service autoscaling only scales at the task level, it does not scale the EC2 instances

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74
Q

What are the 7 crucial bits of information in an ECS Task Definition?

A

Image Name, Port binding for container & host, Memory & CPU, Environment Variables, Networking Information, IAM Role, Logging Config

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75
Q

For which ECS Launch type can you define a Task Placement Strategy or Task Placement Constraints?

A

ECS EC2

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76
Q

Is EFS Multi-AZ by default?

A

Yes

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77
Q

What is the Login command for Amazon ECR?

A

Aws ecr get-login-password

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78
Q

What is the managed Node Group in EKS?

A

It creates and manages EC2 instance nodes for you, which are a part of an ASG managed by EKS

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79
Q

What are Self-managed nodes in EKS?

A

Nodes created by you and managed by an ASG

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80
Q

What maintenance is required for Fargate with EKS?

A

None required as there are no nodes to be managed.

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81
Q

What are the 3 Elastic Beanstalk components?

A

Application, application version, and Environment

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82
Q

What is the directory for Elastic Beanstalk Extensions?

A

.ebextensions/

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83
Q

What is the suffix for Elastic Beanstalk extension files?

A

.config

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84
Q

What does Elastic Beanstalk rely on under the hood?

A

CloudFormation

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85
Q

What are the 6 components of a CloudFormation template?

A

Resources (mandatory), Parameters, Mappings, Outputs, Conditionals, Metadata

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86
Q

What is in the resources component of CloudFormation?

A

The aws resources declared in the template

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87
Q

What is in the parameters component of CloudFormation?

A

The dynamic inputs for your template so you can input custom values each time you create or update a stack

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88
Q

What is in the mappings component of CloudFormation?

A

Maps, their keys, and values which can be referenced in your CloudFormation template.

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89
Q

What is in the outputs component of CloudFormation?

A

Outputs from the current stack, which can be referenced by other stacks.

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90
Q

How do you reference a parameter in cloudFormation?

A

Fn::Ref or !Ref

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91
Q

When to use parameters instead of mappings in CloudFormation?

A

When the values are really user specific

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92
Q

How do you access values in a map?

A

Fn::FindInMap or !FindInMap

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93
Q

What are the three parameters passed into the !FIndInMap function?

A

MapName, TopLevelKey, SecondLevelKey

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94
Q

Can you delete a stack if one of its outputs is referenced by another CloudFormation stack?

A

No, you must delete the stacks that reference the base stack before deleting the base stack.

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95
Q

How do you use an output value in a different stack?

A

Fn::ImportValue or !ImportValue

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96
Q

What is the function to reference parameters or resources?

A

Fn::Ref or !Ref

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97
Q

What is the function to get attributes?

A

Fn::GetAtt or !GetAtt

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98
Q

What is the function used to access a map value?

A

Fn::FindInMap or !FindInMap

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99
Q

What is the function used to import values exported in other templates?

A

Fn::ImportValue or !ImportValue

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100
Q

What happens in a CloudFormation rollback when stack creation fails?

A

Everything gets deleted

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101
Q

What happens in a CloudFormation rollback when the Stack Update fails?

A

The stack automatically rolls back to the previous known working state.

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102
Q

What is CloudWatch mainly used for?

A

Providing metrics, logs, events and alarm

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103
Q

What is X-Ray for?

A

Troubleshooting app performance and errors

104
Q

What is CloudTrail for?

A

Internal monitoring of API calls and auditing changes to Resources by users

105
Q

By default, how often do EC2 instances share instance metrics?

A

Every 5 minutes

106
Q

Is AWS CloudTrail enabled by default?

A

Yes

107
Q

What does CloudTrail provide?

A

Governance, compliance, and audit for your AWS Account

108
Q

How long are events stored in CloudTrail?

A

90 days

109
Q

What is the max message size in SQS - Standard?

A

256 KB

110
Q

Does SQS have in flight encryption?

A

Yes, it uses HTTPS

111
Q

Does SQS have at-rest encryption?

A

Yes, it uses KMS

112
Q

What is Message Visibility Timeout in SQS?

A

It is the length of time which the message will become invisible to other consumers after the message is polled.

113
Q

What is SQS Delay Queue?

A

Delays a message so that consumers won’t see it immediately for up to 15 minutes

114
Q

What is SQS Long Polling?

A

When a consumer requests messages from the queue, it can “wait” for messages to arrive if there are none in the queue

115
Q

What does the SQS API CreateQueue do?

A

Creates an SQS queue

116
Q

What does the SQS API PurgeQueue do?

A

Deletes all of the messages in the queue

117
Q

What does the SQS API SendMessage do?

A

Sends a message onto SQS

118
Q

What is the SQS MaxNumberOfMessages default and max?

A

Default of 1, max of 10

119
Q

What is the SQS API ReceiveMessageWaitTimeSeconds for?

A

It is used for Long Polling.

120
Q

How many consumers can you have per SQS FIFO Group?

A

Just one

121
Q

What does the SQS + SNS Fan Out architecture look like?

A

Producer sends a message to SNS with a specific topic, then SNS sends the message to a different SQS Queue depending on the topic.

122
Q

What can you do if you need the messages to be in order by topic?

A

Use SNS FIFO

123
Q

What can you do if your SQS Queue only wants to hear certain messages from an SNS topic?

A

Use SNS Message filtering

124
Q

What does Kinesis Data Streams do?

A

It captures, processes, and stores data streams

125
Q

What does Kinesis Data Firehose do?

A

It captures, transforms, and delivers streaming data to data lakes, data stores, and analytics services.

126
Q

What does Kinesis Data Analytics do?

A

Analyze data streams with SQL or Apache Flink

127
Q

What does Kinesis Video Streams do?

A

Capture, process and store video streams

128
Q

Do Kinesis Data Streams have security in flight and at rest?

A

Yes, via HTTPS in flight and using KMS at rest

129
Q

What should you use in SQS FIFO to group messages together, but in order by group?

A

Group ID

130
Q

Do NoSQL Databases scale vertically or horizontally?

A

Horizontally

131
Q

What is the maximum size of an item in DynamoDB?

A

400KB

132
Q

What are the datatypes supported in DynamoDB?

A

Scalar, String, Binary, Boolean, Document (List/Map), Set (String set, Number set…)

133
Q

What are the two options for primary keys in DynamoDB?

A

Partition key OR partition key + sort key

134
Q

How large of a write is one WCU?

A

1KB

135
Q

How many Strongly consistent reads does one RCU represent?

A

1

136
Q

How many eventually consistent reads does one RCU represent?

A

2

137
Q

How large of a read is one RCU?

A

4KB

138
Q

If there is an RCU issue in DynamoDB, what can we use to help?

A

DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)

139
Q

What kind of read is GetItem on DynamoDB?

A

Eventually Consistent read

140
Q

How can you only retrieve certain attributes of an item from DynamoDB through GetItem?

A

By using ProjectionExpression

141
Q

Can you use BatchWriteItem to update items in DynamoDB?

A

No, only to create them.

142
Q

What is the max data written in one BatchWriteItem call?

A

16 MB

143
Q

For Read queries on DynamoDB, would you use Filter Expression filters, or would you use Condition Expressions?

A

Filter Expression filters are for reads, Condition Expressions are for writes

144
Q

When can you define a Local Secondary Index?

A

ONLY AT TABLE CREATION

145
Q

What is the purpose of a Local Secondary Index?

A

An alternative sort key for your table

146
Q

What is the purpose of a Global Secondary Index?

A

An alternative primary key/partition key from the base table (Like looking at the same table organized in a different manner with a different primary key)

147
Q

When can you add a Global Secondary Index?

A

Any time after table creation

148
Q

What happens if the writes are throttled on the Global Secondary Index of a DynamoDB table?

A

The writes will be throttled on the main table

149
Q

What is a DynamoDB Stream?

A

An ordered stream of item-level modifications in a table

150
Q

How long is data retained in a DynamoDB stream?

A

Up to 24 hours

151
Q

What is a DynamoDB Transaction?

A

An operation coordinated to add one or more items across one or more tables. The operation only happens if all of the operations are successful.

152
Q

How much more expensive are transactions in DynamoDB?

A

Reads and Writes are both twice as expensive using DynamoDB Transactions

153
Q

What are the 3 endpoint types for API Gateway?

A

Edge-Optimized, Regional, and Private

154
Q

Who can access Private API Gateway Endpoints?

A

Can be accessed from the VPC

155
Q

If you make changes in API Gateway and aren’t seeing the changes take place, what is likely the issue??

A

For API Gateway, you need to make a “deployment” for changes to be in effect

156
Q

How can you have dev, test and prod environments in API Gateway?

A

By having multiple stages, one for each, as they can all have their own Stage variables

157
Q

How does API Gateway Canary deployment work?

A

It points a small percentage of the traffic (5%) to the new service, and if nothing fails, it will switch over 100% of the traffic

158
Q

What is the API Gateway MOCK Integration type for?

A

It returns a response without sending the request to the backend

159
Q

What is the API Gateway HTTP/AWS Integration type for?

A

So you can configure both the integration request and response, and setup data mapping using mapping templates for the request & response

160
Q

What is the API Gateway AWS_PROXY Integration type for?

A

Sending the incoming request directly through to the Lambda function, which will handle the request and forward an HTTP response

161
Q

Which API use XML/JSON between SOAP and REST?

A

SOAP uses XML, REST uses JSON

162
Q

How can you reduce the number of calls to the backend using API Gateway?

A

API Gateway Caching API responses

163
Q

What is the default TTL for APIGW caching?

A

300 seconds

164
Q

What do the CacheHitCount & CacheMissCount metrics help you define using API Gateway?

A

The efficiency of the API Gateway cache

165
Q

What does the IntegrationLatency metric tell you about API Gateway?

A

The time between when API Gateway relays a request to the backend and when it receives a response from the backend

166
Q

What should you ensure is enabled when API calls to API Gateway are failing from another domain?

A

Ensure CORS is enabled

167
Q

What mode of security should you use for API gateway if you want to authorize using 3rd party tokens?

A

Custom Lambda Authorizer

168
Q

What is API Gateway’s Websocket API good for?

A

It is a two-way interactive communication between a user’s browser and the server, it is good for multiplayer games, collaboration and chat platforms

169
Q

What is AWS CodeCommit for?

A

Storing our code, similar to Git

170
Q

What is AWS CodePipeline for?

A

It’s used to model, visualize, and automate the steps required to release your software.

171
Q

What is AWS CodeBuild for?

A

Building and testing our code

172
Q

What is AWS CodeDeploy for?

A

Deploying the code to any instance, including EC2

173
Q

What is AWS CodeStar for?

A

It provides the tools you need to quickly develop, build, and deploy applications on AWS. You can set up your entire CICD pipeline in minutes.

174
Q

What is AWS CodeArtifact for?

A

It stores, publishes, and shares software packages

175
Q

What is AWS CodeGuru for?

A

Automated code reviews using Machine Learning

176
Q

How do AWS CodeCommit, CodeBuild, and CodeDeploy pass information between themselves?

A

They create artifacts stored in S3, which the next stage can reference

177
Q

What file contains the build instructions for AWS CodeBuild?

A

Buildspec.yml

178
Q

What is in the env section of the AWS CodeBuild buildspec.yml?

A

Defines environment variables

179
Q

What is in the phases section of the AWS CodeBuild buildspec.yml?

A

Specific commands to run

180
Q

What is in the artifacts section of the AWS CodeBuild buildspec.yml?

A

What to upload to S3

181
Q

What is in the cache section of the AWS CodeBuild buildspec.yml?

A

Files to cache to S3 for future build speedup

182
Q

What file contains instructions for deployment when using CodeDeploy?

A

Appspec.yml

183
Q

When using SAM, where is the application actually built?

A

The application is built locally, before the package is zipped and uploaded to S3.

184
Q

After building the application, what happens when using SAM?

A

The CloudFormation template is zipped and uploaded to S3

185
Q

What does SAM framework rely upon to update Lambda function?

A

AWS CodeDeploy

186
Q

What is AutoPublishAlias in SAM?

A

Detects when new code is being deployed, creates and publishes an updated version of that function with the latest code.

187
Q

What is DeploymentPreference for in SAM?

A

Lets you choose Canary, Linear, or AllAtOnce deployment types for your application

188
Q

What are hooks in SAM?

A

Pre and post traffic shifting Lambda functions to test your deployment

189
Q

What is SAM built on?

A

CloudFormation

190
Q

What sections does SAM require? (2)

A

Transform and Resources sections

191
Q

What command for SAM fetches dependencies and creates local deployment artifacts?

A

Sam build

192
Q

What command for SAM packages and uploads to AmazonS3?

A

Sam package

193
Q

What command for SAM deploys to CloudFormation?

A

Sam deploy

194
Q

What is AWS CDK?

A

The AWS Cloud Development Kit allows you to define your cloud infrastructure in a familiar language like JS or Python

195
Q

What AWS service does AWS CDK leverage?

A

AWS CloudFormation

196
Q

What is Cognito User Pools for?

A

Creates a serverless database of users for sign in functionality for app users. It provides access to AWS, not individual AWS resources.

197
Q

What is special about Cognito User Pools Hosted Authentication UI?

A

You can add it to your app as a sign in form and customize the CSS

198
Q

What does Cognito User Pools Adaptive Authentication do?

A

Examines each sign-in attempt risk and requires MFA for high-risk sign-in attempts

199
Q

What must the ALB use to set authentication rules for oidc or cognito?

A

An HTTPS listener

200
Q

What does Cognito Identity Pools do?

A

Get identities for “users” so they obtain temporary AWS credentials. It can provide access to specific individual AWS resources.

201
Q

What is the Step function state Choice State?

A

Test for a condition to send to a branch

202
Q

What is the Fail or succeed state in a step function?

A

Stop execution with failure or success

203
Q

What is the Pass state in a step function?

A

Simply pass its input to its output or inject fixed data, but do no work

204
Q

What is the Wait state in a step function?

A

Provide a delay for a certain amount of time or until a specified time/date

205
Q

What is the Map State in a Step Function?

A

It runs a set of workflow steps for each item in a dataset

206
Q

What is the Parallel State in a Step Function?

A

It begins parallel branches of execution

207
Q

What performs the tasks in a Step Function Activity Task?

A

Activity Workers

208
Q

What is it that AppSync relies on?

A

GraphQL

209
Q

What is AppSync for?

A

Allows your applications to access exactly the data they need. It is a flexible API to securely access, manipulate, and combine data from multiple sources

210
Q

What does AWS Amplify do?

A

It lets frontend web and mobile developers easily build, ship, and host full-stack apps on AWS

211
Q

What does AWS Amplify support language-wise?

A

Angular, React, flutter…

212
Q

What does AWS Amplify use for authentication?

A

Amazon Cognito

213
Q

What does AWS Amplify use for a datastore?

A

It leverages Amazon AppSync and Amazon DynamoDB

214
Q

What is AWS Direct Connect?

A

A network service that provides an alternative to using the internet to utilize AWS Cloud Services

215
Q

Are Lambda Environmental variables secure by default?

A

Yes, they are encrypted by default

216
Q

How can you use AWS CodeDeploy for an on-premises server?

A

Use AWS SSM to install the CodeDeploy agent and register your on-premises servers as a deployment group

217
Q

What does AWS SSM do?

A

Updates, manages, and configures resources on instances or on-premises servers.

218
Q

How can you effectively monitor Elastic Beanstalk resources and receive performance notifications?

A

Enable enhanced health reporting for the Elastic Beanstalk environment

219
Q

When should you use AWS::Serverless::SimpleTable vs AWS::DynamoDB::SimpleTable?

A

Use AWS::DynamoDB::SimpleTable when you need advanced functionalities for DynamoDB; Use AWS::Serverless::SimpleTable when you only need basic functionalities

220
Q

What is the AWS::Serverless::Application resource type used for in SAM?

A

It embeds a serverless application from the SAR (Serverless Application Registry) or from an Amazon S3 bucket as a nested application

221
Q

What is the AWS::Serverless::Function SAM resource used to create?

A

It creates a Lambda function

222
Q

Replace this card

A

Replace

223
Q

What happens when you use the DynamoDB DELETE action on an empty set?

A

It causes an error

224
Q

What happens when you try to perform multiple actions in a single expression for DynamoDB?

A

It performs the multiple actions specified. This does not cause an error.

225
Q

How can you change a Lambda function’s behavior without updating the code itself?

A

Use the environment variables, which is a pair of strings stored in the function’s configuration

226
Q

What is ChangeMessageVisibility used to reduce?

A

It reduces message reprocessing

227
Q

When does the data get written to the cache in a write-through caching?

A

At the same time as the database

228
Q

At what point can you create Local Secondary Indexes?

A

ONLY at table creation

229
Q

Are Local Secondary Indexes Strongly or Eventually Consistent reads?

A

You can use either with a local secondary index

230
Q

Are Global Secondary Indexes Strongly or Eventually Consistent reads?

A

Eventually Consistent Reads only

231
Q

Which is simpler, Memcached or Redis?

A

Memcached

232
Q

What does Amazon Connect do?

A

It helps you integrate with other enterprise applications, such as Salesforce

233
Q

How often are KMS keys rotated when you enable automatic key rotation?

A

About once a year

234
Q

What application can Amazon Macie be used for?

A

S3 only

235
Q

What does Amazon Macie do?

A

Identifies sensitive data in S3 buckets

236
Q

What is SAR (Serverless Application Repository)?

A

It’s a managed repository for serverless applications, enabling developers to store and share reusable applications.

237
Q

What should you do if your asynchronously triggered lambda function fails and you need it to run?

A

Wait for it to auto retry, asynchronously triggered lambda functions will auto retry twice after an error

238
Q

How can you get close monitoring of SWF (Simple Workflow Service) processes?

A

Use the AWS Management Console & Visibility APIs

239
Q

What are Visibility APIs within the SWF (Simple Workflow Service)?

A

It helps you get run-time information to monitor all executions and get detailed data.

240
Q

Should you use Cognito User pools or Identity pools if you want to give access to just one AWS resource?

A

Identity pools, it can give access to sole resources

241
Q

What can you use to ensure your DynamoDB data is encrypted in transit and at rest?

A

DynamoDB Encryption Client

242
Q

What is DynamoDB Encryption Client?

A

A software library that enables you to protect your DynamoDB data in transit and at rest

243
Q

What is the beginning of the AWS CLI command to create an Amazon Cognito Identity pool?

A

Aws cognito-identity…

244
Q

What does a developer NEED to do to convert a legacy java app Jar file after uploading the jar to turn it into a lambda function?

A

Define a handler function

245
Q

What is the Elastic Beanstalk proxy server?

A

It helps you serve static files from elastic beanstalk from directories within your web app.

246
Q

Can X-Ray be used for REST APIs, SOAP APIs, or both?

A

REST APIs only

247
Q

What section of a CloudFormation template lets you deploy variable sized instances based on the environment (dev, test, prod…)?

A

Conditions

248
Q

Can a VPN help give applications programmatic access to resources?

A

No. Only IAM roles or other AWS credentials can give programmatic access to resources.

249
Q

What type of keys do AWS services integrated with KMS use, symmetric or asymmetric?

A

Symmetric

250
Q

What is AWS CloudHSM?

A

AWS CloudHSM provides hardware security modules that are used to generate, store and manage encryption keys that are symmetric or asymmetric.

251
Q

What AWS service should you use if you want a single tenant, tamper-proof AWS hardware device?

A

AWS CloudHSM

252
Q

What happens when your Lambda function is throttled from a stream-based event source?

A

The Lambda tries to process the throttled batch of records until the data expires

253
Q

After uploading several files to an S3 bucket to test it, you are unable to delete it. What is the issue?

A

S3 buckets must be empty to be deleted.

254
Q

Should you create an access key for your AWS root account?

A

No, unless you absolutely need to

255
Q

Should you enable MFA for your AWS root account?

A

Yes

256
Q

Is it good practice to share the root access key with a trusted team member as backup?

A

No (Not according to Amazon at least)

257
Q

What does AWS recommend for super-fast, zero-downtime deploys, with rollbacks available?

A

Blue-Green deployments

AWS Developer Associate - C02 (3 decks)

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