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QE REVIEWER > MycoViro > Flashcards

MycoViro Flashcards

1
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Collect specimens as soon as possible after the onset of symptoms. The chance of patient recovery is decreased during the first 3 days after onset and is greatly reduced beyond 5 days with many viruses.

A

FALSE

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2
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Lysogenic infection is the process characterized by the incorporation of viral DNA to the cellular DNA.

A

TRUE

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3
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Acute Infection is a prolonged infection in which the organism is not immediately killed and may carry the virus for long period of time

A

FALSE

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4
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
In indirect examination, the specimen into cell culture, eggs or animals in an attempt to grow the virus: this is called virus isolation

A

TRUE

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5
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
In indirect examination, the specimen into cell culture, eggs or animals in an attempt to grow the virus: this is called virus isolation

A

TRUE

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6
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
In indirect examination, the specimen into cell culture, eggs or animals in an attempt to grow the virus: this is called virus isolation

A

TRUE

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7
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Direct examination methods are often also called rapid diagnostic methods because they can usually give a result either within the same or the next day

A

TRUE

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8
Q

What is the first line of defense against viral
infection?

A

Interferon

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9
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Lytic infection is when virus enters the cell
and hijacks its cellular machinery to rapidly
multiply and in the process kills the cell is
termed as lytic infection.

A

TRUE

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10
Q

Which of the following forms of Kaposi
Sarcoma is associated with individuals that
is infected with a retrovirus that targets CD4+
cells?

A

Epidemic Kaposi Sarcoma

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11
Q

Detection of CMV IgG antibodies using
ELISA is indicative of?

A

Previous infection

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12
Q

Epstein-Barr Virus undergoes latency in what
cell?

A

B-cell

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13
Q

The reactivated form of chicken pox is
known as

A

Shingles

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14
Q

The acute infection caused by Human
Herpes Virus 4 in adults is known as

A

Infectious mononucleosis, Kissing
Disease, IM

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15
Q

Replication of Herpesviruses occurs in the?

A

Nucleus

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16
Q

Atypical lymphocytes present in individuals
with Infectious mononucleosis have a
characteristic _____ appearance in
peripheral blood smear.

A

Dutch skirt

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17
Q

This component of the herpesviruses are
usually suspended in between the envelope
and capsid, which contains enzyme essential
for replication

A

Tegument

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18
Q

Which of the following herpes virus is a
cytolytic, rapid grower and undergoes
latency in kidney cells.

A

Human Herpes Virus 5

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19
Q

Owl’s eye inclusion is a characteristic of?

A

Cytomegalovirus

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20
Q

Which of the following is the causative agent
of 6th disease?

A

Human Herpes Virus 7

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21
Q

Varicella-Zoster Virus undergoes latency in

A

dorsal root ganglia, dorsal root
ganglion

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22
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus 1 undergoes latency in
_____ while Herpes Simplex Virus 2
undergoes latency in _____

A
  • Trigeminal ganglia, Trigeminal
    ganglion
  • Sacral ganglia, Sacral ganglion
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23
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
RT-PCR is the method of choice if you want
to observe for the presence of HAV antigen
and antibody in your serum

A

FALSE

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24
Q

Which of the following is needed by HDV to
cause an infection?

A

HBsAg

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25
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
The mode of transmission for Hepatitis Virus
A, B and E is Fecal-Oral.

A

FALSE

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26
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Hepatitis A and E virus are all acid sensitive
because they don’t have envelope to protect
them.

A

FALSE

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27
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Recovery from Hepatis A will confer you
lifelong immunity to HAV because this virus
is monotypic.

A

TRUE

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28
Q

Which of the following antibodies will first
increase in concentration when you are
infected by HBV?

A

Anti-HBc

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29
Q

All Hepatitis viruses already have a vaccine,
EXCEPT?

A

HCV

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30
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
When you want to observe the Hepatitis A
Virus under the electron microscope, blood is
the sample of choice..

A

FALSE

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31
Q

The most numerous form of Hepatitis B Virus
is

A

Pleomorphic spherical form,
Pleomorphic spherical, Spherical,
Spherical form

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32
Q

Most cases of post-transfusion NANB
hepatitis were caused by which of the
following virus?

A

Post-transfusion Hepatitis Virus

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33
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Hepatitis viruses are grouped together
because they are all under the same family.

A

FALSE

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34
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
HBcAg can’t be isolated from the serum of
Hepatitis B patients because they are
located inside the pneumocytes

A

FALSE

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35
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Chronic infection can be observed in both
Hepatitis A and B infection.

A

FALSE

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36
Q

The complete infectious material of hepatitis
B virus is also known as

A

Dane Particles, Dane Particle

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37
Q

HDV viruses are only found in individuals
with which of the following infection?

A

Hepatitis B

38
Q

The increase of which of the following HBV
antigen indicates active viral replication:

A

HBeAg

39
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
HBV is the only DNA Virus in the Hepatitis
Viruses

A

TRUE

40
Q

The rise of which of the following HBV
antibody indicates immunity?

A

Anti-HBs

41
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
The increase in aminotransferases is due to
the invasion of Hepatitis viruses in the
pneumocytes.

A

FALSE

42
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Paralytic poliomyelitis is the most common
disease caused by poliovirus, that destroys
the motor neurons.

A

FALSE

43
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Picornaviruses are the second smallest RNA
virus.

A

FALSE

44
Q

_____ is a genus under the picornaviridae
that is the most common cause of common
cold.

A

Rhinovirus, Rhinoviruses

45
Q

Which of the following is the capsid
symmetry of the poliovirus?

A

Icosahedral

46
Q

ECHO virus is a contraction for _____.

A

enteric cytopathogenic human
orphan, enteric cytopathogenic
human orphan virus, enteric
cytopathogenic human orphan
viruses

47
Q

There are two vaccines used to prevent the
acquisition of poliovirus. Between the 2
vaccines, which is the recommended one?

A

Live attenuated polio vaccine, sabin
vaccine, sabin, oral polio vaccine

48
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
According to the WHO, Polioviruses have
been completely eradicated in the world last
2020.

A

FALSE

49
Q

The genome structure of Rhinoviruses is?

A

Positive sense, SS linear RNA

50
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Coxsackie Virus B is an enveloped virus.

A

FALSE

51
Q

_____ is the causative agent of
Foot-and-Mouth Disease in cloven hoofed
animals.

A

Aphthovirus

52
Q

_____ is a genus under the picornaviridae
that is the most common cause of common
cold.

A

Rhinovirus, Rhinoviruses

53
Q

Herpangina is associated with what specie
under the family picornaviridae?

A

Coxsackievirus A

54
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Aphthovirus is a picornavirus that commonly
infect humans, and not animals.

A

FALSE

55
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Poliovirus enter the mucosal surfaces of the
gastrointestinal and replicates in the central
nervous system where infection occurs.

A

FALSE

56
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Enteroviruses are under the family
Picornaviridae that replicates and cause
infection in the G.I. tract only.

A

FALSE

57
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of viral diarrhea in adults?

A

Norwalk virus

58
Q

Complete the virion structure of Rotaviruses.
Genome: _____
Capsid Symmetry: _____
Replicates in which part of the cell: _____

A

ds RNA, Double-stranded RNA, Double stranded RNA,
Icosahedral,
Cytoplasm,Cytosol

59
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
The ability of gastrointestinal viruses to survive in the acid environment of the stomach is due to their segmented genetic material.

A

FALSE

60
Q

Noroviruses are classified under the family _____.

A

Caliciviridae

61
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Gastrointestinal viruses like reovirus, rotavirus and
norovirus can cause gastroenteritis in humans.

A

FALSE

62
Q

The star-like morphology of virus under the electron microscope is a characteristic of _____

A

Astrovirus

63
Q

The term _____ is referred to those viruses that can
cause gastrointestinal infection but the information regarding their biology and epidemic characteristics is not yet fully established.

A

Candidate virus

64
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
The destruction of enterocytes due to viral release
allows the exit of fluid causing constipation.

A
65
Q

The most important genus under the family reoviridae is _____.

A

Rotavirus

66
Q

All of the following gastrointestinal viruses are able to infect humans, EXCEPT?

A

Reovirus

67
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Orbivirus is non-infectious to man, but are able to
infect animals thus termed as the virus under the
Reoviridae that is responsible for veterinary diseases.

A

TRUE

68
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Replication of Reoviruses occur in both the
cytoplasm and nucleus of the host’s cell.

A

FALSE

69
Q

The most important infection caused by the genus
Coltivirus in humans is _____.

A

Colorado Tick Fever

70
Q

How can you prevent the spread of Dengue Fever?

A

Clearing Stagnant Water

71
Q

Zika virus belong to the family _______.

A

: Flaviviridae

72
Q

Which of the following bunyaviridae is not transmitted by an arthropod vector?

A

Hantavirus

73
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the spread of Dengue?

A

Aedes mosquito

74
Q

What are the four subtypes of Ebola virus?

A

Zaire, Sudan, Reston, Ivory Coast,
Tai Forest

75
Q

Dengue hemorrhagic fever results from?

A

A second infection with a different
dengue strain

76
Q

Regarding West Nile virus (WNV), which one of the
following is the most accurate?

A

Most infections are asymptomatic,
but the elderly are at risk for encephalitis.

77
Q

The diagnosis of Zika fever include _______.

A

blood or body fluid test for the
presence of Zika RNA

78
Q

The two viruses, which are considered filoviruses,
that are the causative agents of highly fatal
hemorrhagic fevers are:

A

Ebola, Marburg

79
Q

What makes up the genome of Rabies virus?

A

S. S. R N A

80
Q

Which of the following vectors of dengue virus is/are considered as as a concordant fever?

A

A. albopictus

81
Q

What is the shape of rabies virus?

A

: Bullet-shaped

82
Q

Which of the following is the causative agent of
Argentine hemorrhagic fever?

A

Junin virus

83
Q

The vector for chickungunya virus is _______.

A

Aedes Aegypti

84
Q

Which of the following organelles of the host cell is
present in the virion of Arenaviruses?

A

Ribosome

85
Q

Which of the following tissue is the target of the
HPV?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

86
Q

Generalized lymphadenopathy is usually the
characteristic of what HIV stage?

A

1

87
Q

When the DNA genome is integrated into the host’s DNA, what is the name of this DNA genome now?

A

Provirus DNA

88
Q

The two coreceptors of HIV virus are:
_____ receptors
_____ receptors

A

CCR5, CXCR4

89
Q

The most common clinical manifestation of persistent genital HPV infection is?

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

90
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
The other name of p24 is the matrix protein.

A

FALSE

91
Q

The most common causative agent of AIDS
worldwide is?

A

HIV-1

QE REVIEWER (10 decks)

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