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Board Review Final sets a > mixed review deck 3 > Flashcards

mixed review deck 3 Flashcards

1
Q

For the AP axial projection of L5-S1 (Ferguson method), how is the CR angled and directed?

A

CR is directed to midline at ASIS level, 30-35 degrees cephalad (30 for males, 35 for females)

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2
Q

Average lifespan of an erythrocyte

A

120 days

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3
Q

For an AP knee radiograph, give approximate suggested CR angles for patients whose ASIS to tabletop measurement is …

a. less than 19 cm
b. 19 to 24 cm
c. greater than 24 cm

A

less than 19 cm: 3 to 5 degrees caudad
19 to 24: 0 degrees
greater than 24: 3 to 5 degrees cephalad

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4
Q

The total electrical charge generated by an x-ray beam per unit mass of air is called:

A

exposure

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5
Q

erythema has a threshold dose of ___ Gy and will occur within ___

A

2 Gy; hours to days

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6
Q

epilation has a threshold dose of ____ Gy and will occur within ___

A

3 Gy; 3 weeks

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7
Q

desquamation has a threshold dose of ___ Gy and will occur within ___

A

15 Gy; 4 weeks

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8
Q

If an individual receives an acute dose of radiation to the forearm, in which order will desquamation, erythema and epilation occur?

A

erythema, epilation, desquamation

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9
Q

ICRP dose equivalent limit for the skin

A

500 mSv

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10
Q

On an axiolateral projection of the temporomandibular joints (TMJs), the patient’s head is placed in a
lateral position with the TMJ of interest closest to the image receptor. The central ray is angled caudally
about 30°. On the image, the TMJ of interest will be projected ________ to the other TMJ.
(superior, inferior, anterior or posterior?)

A

superior

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11
Q

The CR entrance point for an AP oblique projection, Grashey method, of the shoulder is …

A

2 inches medial and 2 inches inferior to the superolateral border of the shoulder (some sources list this as medial/inferior to the superolateral border of the scapula!)

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12
Q

During which weeks of development can exposure to an embryo or fetus to ionizing radiation result in skeletal anomalies?

A

3 weeks to 20 weeks (Lange lists this as 2 weeks to 10 weeks being MOST likely)

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13
Q

The ___ tendon inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus

A

subscapularis

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14
Q

What is the main purpose of positioning fluoroscopic equipment with the tube positioned under the table?

A

Results in less scattered and leakage radiation, and less occupational exposure

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15
Q

For a lateral humerus, it is necessary to have the coronal plane passing through the humeral epicondyles aligned _____ to the IR

A

perpendicular

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16
Q

What method of imaging the shoulder will show the lesser tubercle of the humerus in profile and directed anteriorly?

A

Lawrence method, inferosuperior axial projection

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17
Q

How will the coracoid process appear in an inferosuperior axial shoulder (axillary shoulder, Lawrence method)?

A

in profile! (if you do a superoinferior, or a PA Bernageau, it will appear on end)

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18
Q

The Rafert-Long method of imaging the scaphoid for obscure fractures, the wrist is positioned in extreme ulnar deviation and a series of ___ projections are taken with varying CR angles

A

4 PA and PA axial projections; uses 0, 10, 20 and 30 degree cephalic angles

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19
Q

Range of typical grid ratios used in fluoroscopic units

A

6:1 to 10:1

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20
Q

Where should the perpendicular CR enter for a lateral projection of the orbit?

A

At the outer canthus

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21
Q

The base layer of a flat-panel detector is made of …

A

glass (TFT array is mounted onto a glass substrate)

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22
Q

The ____ is a collection of disk drives that perform together as a single unit and improve reliability of data storage

A

RAID (redundant array of independent disks)

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23
Q

What projection of the ankle is required to see an open distal tibiofibular joint?

A

An AP oblique with 45° medial rotation is required to see an open distal tibiofibular joint. On the AP
projection of the ankle, the fibula and tibia and the fibula and talus are seen slightly superimposed on the
image. The AP oblique with 15° to 20° medial rotation demonstrates the fibula free of superimposition
from the talus but not the tibia. It requires a 45° medial rotation to open the joint space between the fibula
and tibia. The AP oblique with 45° lateral rotation demonstrates the fibula, tibia, and talus superimposing
one another.

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24
Q

The right kidney is placed perpendicular to the IR in the ___ position

A

RPO

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25
Q

A patient is scheduled for a barium swallow. As you begin to review instructions with the patient, you notice that the patient seems lethargic. You should …

A

reschedule the exam because the patient will not be able to swallow properly

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26
Q

A total of ________ dots on the receptor is the proper number during a spinning top test of a singlephase, fully rectified generator at 0.10 seconds.

A

12: the single phase, fully rectified generator has 120 pulses per second, so with one dot per pulse, at 0.10 seconds there should be 12 dots

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27
Q

One of the greatest concerns for an elderly patient is fear of ___ (this is most often the greatest fear)

A

falling

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28
Q

Give the formula for the magnification factor in a fluoroscopic unit (multifield image intensifier)

A

full-size input diameter DIVIDED BY the selected input diameter

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29
Q

What 3 pieces of information are necessary to use a tube rating chart to determine the maximum safe kilovoltage?

A

mA, exposure time and focal spot size

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30
Q

The image intensifier may be coupled to the TV camera or CCD via 1 of what 2 devices?

Name the advantage(s) of each

A
  1. Fiber-optic bundle. Less fragile, more compact and easier to maneuver.
  2. Lens coupling device (objective lens): can use with the (now infrequently used) auxiliary devices, like a cine camera or spot-film camera.
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31
Q

What is the best way to control voluntary motion? Involuntary motion?

A

Voluntary: careful explanation of procedure

Involuntary: use shortest possible exposure time (only way)

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32
Q

The crista galli is part of the ___ bone and projects superiorly from the …

A

Ethmoid; cribriform plate

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33
Q

DR collection elements may be a TFT, CMOS or CCD. which is/are used in indirect and direct capture systems?

A

Indirect may use CMOS, CCD, TFT

direct uses TFT

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34
Q

Formula for pixel size

A

FOV / Matrix size (,1 dimension of matrix size)

Ex: a 20 cm FOV and 512 x 512 matrix, do 20/512

35
Q

Where in the circuit is the MA meter found?

A

In the secondary circuit, midpoint of the secondary coil of the step up transformer

36
Q

In what portion of the xray circuit is the timer found?

A

Primary circuit

37
Q

What part of primary circuit adjusts for any fluctuations in incoming voltage supply?

A

Line voltage compensator

38
Q

kV selector: kV major refers to…
kV minor …

A

kV major, increments of 10
Minor, increments of 2

39
Q

Circuit breaker switches must be ____ to allow equipment to be energized

A

Closed

40
Q

Xray tubes with a ___ target angle and ___ actual focal spot have the greatest heat loading capacity

A

Small target angle
Large actual focal spot

41
Q

What part pf the tube significantly reduces off focus radiation

A

Fixed diaphragm located just outside the port window (considered part of the collimator assembly)

42
Q

Xray tubes are rated according to allowable kilowatts; how do you calculate this?

A

kW=100 kV x (maximum mA at 100 ms, or 0.1 s)

43
Q

Xray tube focal spot and collimator light bulb must be ____ for light field and xray field to correspond accurately.

A

Equidistant from the center of the collimator mirror.

44
Q

Most xray tube cooling results from…

A

Heat diffusion to the oil surrounding the tube.

45
Q

CPR sternal compressions are made with heels of hands _____ superior to xiphoid tip

A

1.5 inches

46
Q

What bone has a trochlear sulcus?

A

Humerus

47
Q

The radiocarpal joint has what movement type?

A

Condyloid

48
Q

What projection would provide a PA of the gastroduodenal surface of a barium filled high and transverse stomach

A

Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad

49
Q

Each time thr beam scatters its intensity is reduced by a factor of…

A

1,000 (or to about 0.1 % of original intensity)

50
Q

How would introduction of a 6 inch oid affect contrast?

A

Increase contrast due to air gap effect

51
Q

Vasomotor vs vasovagal response to contrast:

Which includes nausea, emesis, flushing and heat?

Which is bradycardia/hypotension

A

Vasomotor is nause, emesis, heat

Vasovagal includes bradycardia and hypotension

52
Q

What projection of foot best shows interspaces between 1st and 2nd cuneiforms

A

Lateral oblique

53
Q

Assisting injured pt with dressing or undress, u should…

A

Place clothing on injured side 1st
Remove clothing from uninjured side 1st

54
Q

Avg adult respiratory rate

A

10 to 20 breaths/min

55
Q

Amount of time xrays are being produced and directed toward a particular wall

A

Use factor

56
Q

When making a significant increase in collimation, what specifically should u do to technique?

A

Increase mAs

57
Q

___ involves averaging a set of images to reduce image noise

A

Temporal averaging

58
Q

During IVU, the upright post void image is generally used to demonstrate…

A

Filling of ureters

59
Q

Perforated small bowel is best diagnosed with what position?

A

Left lateral decubitus

60
Q

Soaking objects in germicidal solution causes

A

Chemical sterilization

61
Q

A grids contrast improvement factor is greatest with a ___ ratio grid with ___ lines per inch

A

High ratio
Fewer lines bc if u increase the lines/inch, lead straps become thinner, allowing more scatter to pass through)

62
Q

What is the 1st arterial branch of the aorta?

A

Coronary arteries

63
Q

What is the main purpose of a falling load generator?

A

Minimize exposure time

64
Q

Scoliosis patients must have what included on a radiograph? (C … L … AND)

A

C7, L5 and iliac crests

65
Q

Dose limits for osl, tld and film badge dosimeter are valid for what radiation types?

A

Beta, x and gamma

66
Q

Frequency in Hz of AC generated in America

A

60 Hz (60 cps)

67
Q

Amplitude (max height of waveform) represents what component of Ohm’s law?

A

V, voltage

68
Q

Define helix and solenoid

A

Helix: coil of conductive wire
Solenoid: helix supplied with an electric current

69
Q

Anode target material is tungsten; what usually comprises the disk?

A

Molybdenum, graphite or both

70
Q

A type of variable resistor (besides a rheostat) that operates on self induction and may be used to regulate filament current

A

Choke coil

71
Q

Star (wye) and delta configurations are related to

A

Transformers

72
Q

If a 1 phase generator requires 100 mAs, what is required by a 3 phase 6 pulse and a 3 phase 12 pulse?

A

3 phase 6 pulse, 66 (2/3)
3 phase 12 pulse, 50 (1/2)

73
Q

Power loss formula

A

P=I^2(R)

74
Q

Only interaction between xrays and matter where no ionization occurs

A

Coherent scatter (classical, unmodified, Rayleigh)

75
Q

3 phase rectification requires ___ autotransformers and 1 high voltage transformer having ___ windings arranged in ___ or ___ configurations

A

3 (1 per current)
3
Star (wye) or delta

76
Q

Nyquist theorem: sampling frequency must be …. in order to duplicate the original signal w/o compromising resolution

A

More than twice the frequency of the input signal

77
Q

In indirect capture systems, a ____ (cesium iodide or gadolinium oxysulfide) captures xray photons and emits light, which is recorded via a ___ or ____.

A

Scintillator
TFT or CCD

78
Q

Semiconductor used in direct capture systems

A

Amorphous selenium

79
Q

The heat loss formula implies that it is more efficient to carry electricity over long distances if current is (low or high)?

A

Low current (high voltage)

80
Q

When the trapped electrons in the PSP’s halogen ions ate exposed to a monochromatic light source they emit polychromatic light, a process known as ___ or _____

A

Secondary excitation or photostimulated luminescence (PSL)

81
Q

To improve SNR, what must be true of the PSP’s emitted light during PSL and the laser light used to activate them?

A

Must be of different wavelength/color and be physically separate

Laser light is red (430 to 550 nm)
PSL is bluish purple or blue green

82
Q

Process that automatically adjusts brightness and contrast to meet diagnostic requirements

A

EDR (exposure data recognition)

83
Q

In CR, there is a ____ relationship between exposure and its resulting luminescence

A

Linear

84
Q

How are CR techniques compared to analog and to DR?

A

CR is equal to or greater than analog
DR can be lower than analog

Board Review Final sets a (12 decks)

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