Genetics (Gen Principles) Flashcards

1
Q

DNA replication

A

DNA synthesis occurs in the 5’ to 3’ direction ONLY; during DNA replication one daughter strand is synthesized continuously toward the replication fork (leading strand) whereas the other daughter strand is synthesized discontinuously away from the replication fork (lagging strand); the lagging strand is formed from short stretches of newly synthesized DNA separate by RNA primers (Okazaki fragments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

hair loss

A

androgenic alopecia is the most common cause of hair loss in both males and females; the pattern and severity of the baldness depends on both hormonal (circulating androgens) and genetic factors and vary between males and females; the condition is *POLYGENIC w variable expressivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

TATA box

A

the TATA box is a promoter region that binds to transcription factors and RNA polymerase II during the initiation of transcription; it is located approximately 25 bases upstream from the beginning of the coding region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Roberstonian translocations

A

unbalanced Robertsonian translocations account for a minority of Down syndrome cases; karyotyping shows 46 chromosomes w a translocation between 2 Afrocentric non homologous chromosomes (ex: 46, XX, t(14;21))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

autosomal recessive inheritance

A

sickle cell anemia is an AR recessive disorder characterized by a predominance of hbS causing RBCs to sickle, hemolyses and cause vascular obstruction; offspring of the carrier parents have a 3/4 (75%) chance of inheriting at least 1 mutated allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

helicase

A

during DNA replication and repair, helicase mediates the continuous unwinding of dsDNA at the replication fork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

anticipation

A

an increased number of trinucleotide repeats on the HTT gene is associated w Huntington disease; the larger the number of repeats, the earlier the onset of disease; trinucleotide expansion occurs more frequently during parental transmission, causing a genetic phenomenon called anticipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

linkage equilibrium

A

two allele loci are said to be in linkage disequilibrium when a pair of alleles are inherited together in the same gamete (haplotype) more often or less often than would be expected given random pairing; this most often occurs when the genes are in close physical proximity on the same chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

locus heterogeneity

A

mutations at different genetic loci result in similar phenotypes; both parents have oculocutaneous albinism (AR disorder) but they are on *different chromosomes; locus heterogeneity describes when a similar phenotype is produced by mutations in different genetic loci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum a AR disorder characterized by defective nucleotide excision repair often caused by a deficiency in UV-specific endonuclease; affected children usually have severe photosensitivity, hyperpigmentation in sun-exposed areas and a greatly increased risk for skin cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

inheritance of Down Syndrome

A

common findings in Down syndrome include cognitive impairment, facial dysmorphism, and cardiac defects; 95% of cases are caused by the presence of an extra chr 21 resulting from nondisjunction; unbalanced robertsonian translocations or mosaicism are less common causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TATA and CAAT boxes in transcription

A

the TATA and CAAT boxes are promoters of transcription in eukaryotic cells and are located approx 25 and 75 bases upstream from the transcription start site, respectively; they promote initiation of transcription by serving as binding sites for transcription factors and RNA polymerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Poly A tail

A

the poly-A tail is not transcribed from DNA; instead, it is added as a post-transcriptional modification downstream of the consensus sequence (AAUAA) located near the 3’ end of the mRNA molecule; this tail protects mRNA from degradation within the cytoplasm after it exists the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

transcriptional enhancers and silencers

A

enhancers and silencers may be located upstream, downstream or within a transcribed gene; these gene sequences function to increase and decrease the rate of transcription, respectively; in contrast, promoter regions are typically 25 or 75 bases upstream (TATA or CAAT) and function to initiate transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pleiotropy

A

pleiotropy describes instances where multiple phenotypic manifestations result from a single genetic mutation; most syndromic genetic illnesses exhibit pleiotropy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

heterochromatin

A

heterochromatin is located at the periphery of the nucleus and composed of heavily methylated DNA and deacetylated histones, causing it to have a low level of transcriptional activity

17
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum - defect in nucleotide excision repair

A

defective nucleotide excision repair often caused by a deficiency in UV-specific endonuclease; affected children usually have severe photosensitivity, hyperpigmentation in sun-exposed areas and a greatly increased risk for skin cancer

18
Q

Nondisjunction

A

Nondisjunction is the failure of chr pairs to separate properly during cell division; this could be due to failure of homologous chr to separate in meiosis I or a failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II or mitosis

19
Q

Homeobox (HOX) genes

A

HOX genes encode DNA-binding transcription factors that play an important role in the segmental organization of the embryo along the cranio-caudal axis

20
Q

origin of replication (Ori)

A

multiple origins of replication make eukaryotic DNA replication quick and effective despite the large size and complexity of the genome compared to that of prokaryotic organisms

21
Q

MGMT gene

A

cancer cells alter expression of genes controlling survival and replication by histone modification, transcription factor expression and CpG methylation; methylation of the CpG region adjacent to the MGMT gene, which produces an enzyme that repairs DNA, make tumor cells much more susceptible to alkylating chemotherapy

22
Q

stop codons

A

translation of the mRNA template proceeds in the 5’ to 3’ direction; because complementary sequences align in antiparallel fashion, during translation tRNA anticodons will be oriented in the opposite 3’ to 5’ direction; stop codons (UAA, UAG, and UGA) halt protein synthesis by binding a release factor; they do not add amino acids to the polypeptide chain

23
Q

base excision repair

A

base excision repair is used to correct single-base DNA defects induced by spontaneously or exogenous chemicals; glycosylases remove the defective base, the corresponding empty sugar-phosphate site is cleaved and removed by the action of endonucelease and lyase; DNA polymerase then replaces the missing nucleotide and ligase seals the final remaining nick

24
Q

mitochondrial myopathy

A

mitochondrial dysfunction frequently presents w myopathy, nervous system dysfunction, lactic acidosis and ragged red fibers on muscle biopsy; mitochondrial myopathies due to mtDNA mut are inherited solely in a maternal fashion; only through affects females to all offspring

25
Q

genetic anticipation in myotonic dystrophy

A

anticipation describes an inherited condition that presents earlier and w more severe disease in successive generations; in MD, increasing length of the pathogenic trinucleotide repeat expansion accounts for severe hypotonia in a neonate (congenital) and mild symptoms on a parent

26
Q

nucleolus

A

the nucleolus is the site of rRNA transcription and ribosomal subunit assembly; RNA polymerase I functions EXCLUSIVELY within the nucleolus to transcribe the 45S pre-rRNA gene, which encodes for most of the rRNA components (18S, 5.8S and 28S rRNAs)

27
Q

genetic inheritance

A
28
Q

nucleotide excision repair

A

pyrimidine dimers are formed in DNA as a result of UV light exposure; they are recognized by a specific endonuclease complex that initiates the process of repair by *nicking the damaged stand on both sides of the pyrimidine dimer; the damaged segment is then excised, and replacement DNA is synthesized by DNA polymerase

29
Q

western blotting

A

used to identify proteins, northern blot is for RNA and southern blot is for DNA

30
Q

CFTR frameshift mutation

A

deletion or addition of a number of bases that is not divisible by 3 in the coding region of a gene will cause a frameshift mut; alter reading frame of the genetic code resulting in formation of nonfunctional proteins

31
Q

alternative splicing

A

alternative splicing is a process by which a single gene code for various unique proteins by selectively including or excluding different DNA coding regions (exons) into mature mRNA

32
Q

telomere length

A

critical shortening in telomere length can signal for programmed cell death; telomerase is a reverse transcriptase (RNA dependent DNA polymerase) that lengthens telomeres by adding TTAGGG repeats to the 3’ end

33
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy mutations

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy presents w progressive proximal muscle weakness in young boys due to increased muscle fiber degeneration; it is caused by frameshift mut (most common) or nonsense must leading to the formation of a truncated, defective protein (UAA, UAG, UGA)

34
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU) inheritance

A

intellectual disability, gait abnormalities and a musty odor are signs of PKU a AR disorder; the probability that a child will inherit an AR from heterozygous parents is 1/4

35
Q

cytoplasmic P bodies

A

when mRNA is first transcribed from DNA, it is in an unprocessed form called pre-mRNA or heterogenous nuclear mRNA (hnRNA); several processing steps are required before finalized mRNA molecules can leave the nucleus, including 5’-capping, poly A tail addition and intron splicing; cytoplasmic P bodies play an important role in mRNA translation regulation and mRNA degradation

36
Q

germline BRCA gene mutations

A

germline BRCA gene mutations dramatically increase the risk for breast and ovarian cancer due to an inability to repair dbDNA breaks; cancers w BRCA mut are often particularly susceptible to tx w platinum compounds (cisplatin) which causes DNA cross-linking requiring repair by BRCA-encoded machinery