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VLE REVIEW > VETERINARY ANATOMY > Flashcards

VETERINARY ANATOMY Flashcards

1
Q

Which structure in the liver of pig is missing?

a. right medial hepatic lobe
b. papillary process of the caudate lobe
c. caudate process of the caudate lobe
d. gall bladder

A

b. papillary process of the caudate lobe

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2
Q

Which of the following animals has only a glandular stomach?
a. cat
b. sheep
c. chicken
d horse

A

a. cat

Carnivores, like dogs and cats, have only simple glandular stomach.

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3
Q

On a lateral approach, which muscles should be separated to expose the lateral surface of the femur?

a. gastrocnenius and superficial digital flexor
b. biceps femoris and vastus lateralis
c. superficial and middle gluetus muscle
d. common digital extensor and lateral digital extensor

A

b. biceps femoris and vastus lateralis

The biceps femoris is the lateral most member of the hamstring muscle. Together with the vastus lateralis, they cover the lateral side of the femur.

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4
Q

In dogs, the thymus is located at which part of the mediastinum?

a. cranial mediastinum
b. middle mediastinum
c. caudal mediastinum
d. dog lacks thymus

A

a. cranial mediastinum

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5
Q

Which animal has an undivided cleiocephalicus?

a. dog
b. pig
c. horse
d. catle

A

c. horse

Cleidocephalicus can be divided based on their insertion at the head (cleidooccipitalis – occipital bone; cleidomastoideus – mastoid process of the temporal bone). This division is present in most domestic animals except in horse in which it is undivided and inserted only at the mastoid process of
the temporal bone (cleidomastoideus).

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6
Q

Which of the following structure is mostly composed of elastin?

a. nuchal ligament
b. jejunal lymph node
c. mesenteries
d. liver parenchyma

A

a. nuchal ligament

Elastic tissue is characterized by numerous regularly or irregularly arranged elastic fibers. It is exemplified by the ligamentum nuchae of grazing animals and by the vocal ligaments.

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7
Q

Omasal lymph node is part of which lymphocenter in ruminants?

a. cranial mesenteric lymphocenter
b. caudal mesenteric lymphocenter
c. coeliac lymphocenter
d. lumbar lymphocenter

A

c. coeliac lymphocenter

Omasal lymph node is a subdivision of the gastric lymph node in ruminants. Gastric lymph node is part of the coeliac lymphocenter.

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8
Q

If a dog is stabbed with a sharp object at the middle of the 4th intercostal space and penetrated the lung, which of these tissue layers is spared?

a. Pulmonary pleura
b. Costal parietal pleura
c. Mediastinal parietal pleura
d. Internal intercostal muscle

A

c. Mediastinal parietal pleura

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9
Q

Which embryonic structure is NOT involved in the condition of anodontia?

a. pharyngeal arch 1
b. labiogingival lamina
c. neural crest
d. enamel organ
e. pharyngeal pouch 1

A

e. pharyngeal pouch 1

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10
Q

The primary combined action of the internal obturator, external obturator and gemellus muscles is to:

a. flex the hip
b. extend the hip
c. abduct the pelvic limb
d. adduct the pelvic limb
e. rotate the pelvic limb

A

e. rotate the pelvic limb

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11
Q

Transitional epithelium is a characteristic feature of the:

a. upper respiratory system
b. urinary bladder
c. seminiferous tubules
d. gallbladder
e. oviduct

A

b. urinary bladder

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12
Q

This muscle in the dog is NOT cut when the pelvic limb is amputated at the stifle joint:

a. Superficial digital flexor
b. Long digital extensor
c. Tibialis cranialis
d. Gastrocnemius

A

c. Tibialis cranialis

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13
Q

The nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disks is a remnant of the embryonic:

a. sclerotomes
b. notochord
c. primitive node
d. primitive streak
e. perichordal mesenchyme

A

b. notochord

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14
Q

The primary action of the triceps brachii is to:

a. flex the shoulder
b. extend the shoulder
c. flex the elbow
d. extend the elbow
e. abduct the thoracic limb

A

d. extend the elbow

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15
Q

There are 3 basic methods of cell secretion. Which type of secretion is NOT characterized by the cell cytoplasm itself contributing to the secretory product?

a. holocrine
b. apocrine
c. merocrine
d. anacrine
e. endocrine

A

c. merocrine

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16
Q

It is not a feature of the dog’s scapula:

a. acromion
b. coracoid process
c. glenoid cavity
d. anconeal crest

A

d. anconeal crest

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17
Q

A deep wound involving the distal part of the lateral head of the triceps brachii damages the:

a. ulnar nerve
b. axillary nerve
c. median nerve
d. radial nerve

A

d. radial nerve

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18
Q

In female embryos, the urogenital sinus contributes to all of the following EXCEPT the:

a. cervix
b. vagina
c. urethra
d. bladder
e. vestibule

A

a. cervix

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19
Q

The paired muscle that opens the jaw is the:

a. buccinator
b. masseter
c. digastricus
d. temporalis
e. medial pterygoid

A

c. digastricus

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20
Q

Elastin makes up a significant proportion of the:

a. cornea
b. nuchal ligament
c. myocardium
d. footpad of dogs
e. pinna

A

b. nuchal ligament

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21
Q

Which of these statements is anatomically INCORRECT in the dog?

a. The right kidney is more cranial in location than the left kidney.
b. The right adrenal gland is between the caudal vena cava and the caudate lobe of the liver.
c. The renal medulla contains primarily renal corpuscles and convoluted portions of the renal tubules.
d. The expanded proximal part of the ureter is the renal pelvis.

A

c. The renal medulla contains primarily renal corpuscles and convoluted portions of the renal tubules.

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22
Q

Which tissue is normally vascular?

a. cornea
b. lens
c. hyaline cartilage
d. elastic cartilage
e. bone

A

e. bone

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23
Q

In which species are red blood cells normally of oval shape?

a. cattle
b. horses
c. camels
d. pigs
e. goats

A

c. camels

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24
Q

The muscle that most completely covers the distolateral surface of the femur is the:

a. gastrocnemius
b. vastus lateralis
c. biceps femoris
d. tensor fasciae latae
e. adductor

A

c. biceps femoris

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25
Q

Most growth in height of a young dog occurs in the distal portion of the humerus and femur. This growth occurs in the:

a. physes
b. metaphyses
c. diaphyses
d. articular cartilages
e. primary ossification centers

A

a. physes

26
Q

In severe fungal infection of the guttural pouch in the horse, there is usually an epistaxis observed in the affected animal. Epistaxis could be due to ruptured:

a. Linguofacial trunk
b. Common carotid artery
c. Internal maxillary vein
d. External carotid artery

A

d. External carotid artery

27
Q

This is avoided when administering drug below the external ear in the pig:

a. Lateral retropharyngeal lymph node
b. Parotid gland
c. Thymus
d. Parotid lymph node

A

b. Parotid gland

28
Q

Accommodation for near and far vision is accomplished by contraction or relaxation of muscles in the:

a. ciliary body
b. conjunctiva
c. iris
d. limbus
e. retina

A

a. ciliary body

29
Q

The muscle most closely in contact with the ventral surface of cervical vertebrae and intervertebral disks is the:

a. sternohyoideus
b. sternothyroideus
c. sternocephalicus
d. longus colli
e. longus capitis

A

d. longus colli

30
Q

The cervical vertebra with large ventrolaterally projecting transverse processes, each subdivided into 2 projections, is the:

a. first cervical vertebra
b. second cervical vertebra
c. third cervical vertebra
d. sixth cervical vertebra
e. seventh cervical vertebra

A

d. sixth cervical vertebra

31
Q

Which of these animals have renal calices?

a. Ox and horse
b. Dog and pig
c. Pig and ox
d. Chicken and duck

A

c. Pig and ox

32
Q

Aside from the pig, the papillary process of the liver is also missing in the:

a. Dog
b. Carabao
c. Horse
d. Goat

A

c. Horse

33
Q

Ligating the internal pudendal artery will affect blood supply to the:

a. Large intestine
b. Hind limbs
c. Tail
d. Penis

A

d. Penis

34
Q

The portion of the mandible that articulates with the temporal bone is the:

a. retroarticular process
b. coronoid process
c. angle
d. condylar process
e. zygomatic process

A

d. condylar process

35
Q

The period of the hair growth cycle in which the hair grows is known as:

a. telogen
b. catagen
c. anagen
d. halogen
e. neogen

A

c. anagen

36
Q

Enamel is formed by:

a. odontoblasts
b. ameloblasts
c. periodontal membrane lining cells
d. enamoblasts
e. alveoloblasts

A

b. ameloblasts

37
Q

Sertoli cells function in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

a. provide support and probably nutrition to developing gametes
b. secrete estrogens
c. facilitate release of gametes
d. phagocytize damaged gametes
e. secrete testosterone

A

e. secrete testosterone

38
Q

This malformation is generally caused by viral infections.

a. Cerebellar abiotrophy
b. Hydranencepahly
c. Cerebellar hypoplasia and atrophy
d. Hydracephalus

A

c. Cerebellar hypoplasia and atrophy

39
Q

The embryonic ventral hepatic diverticulum gives rise to the:

a. left lobe of the pancreas
b. cystic duct
c. liver sinusoids
d. minor duodenal papilla
e. spleen

A

b. cystic duct

40
Q

If the common calcanean tendon of an animal is torn (separated), the animal loses most of its ability to:

a. extend the stifle
b. extend the hip
c. extend the hock
d. flex the hock
e. flex the digits

A

c. extend the hock

41
Q

Paralysis of which muscle would most interfere with opening of the mouth?

a. lateral pterygoid
b. medial pterygoid
c. digastricus
d. masseter
e. temporalis

A

c. digastricus

42
Q

During spermatogenesis, which cell is the first to become haploid?

a. spermatid
b. primary spermatocyte
c. secondary spermatocyte
d. B spermatogonium
e. A spermatogonium

A

c. secondary spermatocyte

43
Q

This tooth is mostly commonly involved with root abscesses:

a. Upper 1st premolar tooth
b. Upper 4th premolar
c. Lower 4th premolar tooth
d. Lower 1st premolar tooth

A

b. Upper 4th premolar

44
Q

Diffuse placentation is present in:

a. horses and pigs
b. horses and cattle
c. dogs and cats
d. dogs and ferrets
e. horses and dogs

A

a. horses and pigs

45
Q

In dogs, which tooth has the most roots?

a. 4th upper molar
b. 2nd upper premolar
c. canine
d. 2nd lower premolar
e. 1st lower premolar

A

a. 4th upper molar

46
Q

The accessory lobe of the right lung is curled around the:

a. esophagus
b. aorta
c. caudal vena cava
d. trachea
e. right azygos vein

A

c. caudal vena cava

47
Q

It is during this stage wherein each ell or cell line attains and expresses a stable phenotype

a. patterning
b. cytodifferentiation
c. morphogenesis
d. growth

A

b. cytodifferentiation

48
Q

The coronary arteries are branches of the:

a. pulmonary trunk
b. aorta
c. right atrium
d. left atrium
e. brachiocephalic trunk

A

b. aorta

49
Q

Abundant fibrocartilage can be found in:

a. nose
b. larynx
c. trachea and bronchi
d. external ear
e. intervertebral disks

A

e. intervertebral disks

50
Q

Intramembranous ossification occurs in bones of the:

a. calvaria
b. extremities
c. pelvis
d. thoracic vertebrae
e. lumbar vertebrae

A

a. calvaria

51
Q

Which structure projects into the renal pelvis?

a. renal cortex
b. renal papilla
c. renal sinus
d. renal calyx
e. urachus

A

b. renal papilla

52
Q

If the celiac artery is severed, which organ would be LEAST deprived of arterial blood?

a. stomach
b. gallbladder
c. spleen
d. liver
e. pancreas

A

e. pancreas

53
Q

Most intrinsic striated muscle of the larynx attach to the:

a. epiglottis
b. arytenoids cartilage
c. thyroid cartilage
d. cricoid cartilage
e. hyoid bones

A

b. arytenoids cartilage

54
Q

Kupffer cells are found in the:

a. spleen
b. large intestinal mucosa
c. gastric mucosa
d. liver
e. cerebellum

A

d. liver

55
Q

Which cells are NOT found in the retina?

a. sustentacular cells
b. inner plexiform cells
c. rods
d. cones
e. ganglion cells

A

a. sustentacular cells

56
Q

Discontinuous endothelium is found in the:

a. thymus
b. brain
c. liver
d. nasal cavity
e. testis

A

c. liver

57
Q

Venous blood from which structure does not first drain into the liver before passing into the heart?

a. pancreas
b. spleen
c. adrenal gland
d. descending colon
e. stomach

A

c. adrenal gland

58
Q

Myoepithelial cells are most prominent in the;

a. apocrine glands of the anal sac
b. harderian glands
c. mammary glands
d. tarsal glands
e. meibomian glands

A

c. mammary glands

59
Q

Which vein does NOT normally drain directly into the right atrium?

a. right pulmonary vein
b. cranial vena cava
c. caudal vena cava
d. great cardiac vein
e. right azygos vein

A

a. right pulmonary vein

60
Q

The number of tissue layers in the fetal part of the placenta is:

a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 1

A

c. 3

VLE REVIEW (8 decks)

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