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Karl's Command Notes > FCOM SYSTEMS > Flashcards

FCOM SYSTEMS Flashcards

1
Q

What are the unpressurised areas of the aircraft?

A

Radome, gear bays, tailcone,

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2
Q

Air Conditioning:

What comprises the air-conditioning system?

A

Pack Flow Control Valves
Two Packs
Mixing Unit

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3
Q

Air Conditioning:

How is temperature optimised?

A

From the trim air valves that are supplied from the Hot Air Pressure Regulating valve that takes hot air before it enters the packs. Adds it to the air from the mixing unit to the 3 zones

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4
Q

Air Conditioning:

What are the requirements needed to open the Emergency Ram Air?

A

In auto control, it can be selected when the differential pressure is less than 1psi. The outflow valve then opens to 50%. In Manual control the outflow valve will not open.

If the psi is greater than 1 a check valve will prevent RAM air from entering.

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5
Q

Pressurisation:

What are the four functions of pressurisation?

A

Ground Mode
Pre-pressurisation
Flight
Depressurization

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6
Q

Pressurisation:
What does the pressurisation system comprise of?

A

2 CPCs
1 Outflow valve with 3 motors
2 Safety Valves
Control Panel

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7
Q

Pressurisation:
What information does the CPC receive?

A

ADIRS - Pressure Altitude
FMGC - Landing Pressure and Elevation
LGCIU - Gear
EIU - Thrust

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8
Q

Pressurisation:
When do the CPCs change over?

A

After every landing
Can do it manually by pressing manual control button and leaving it for 10seconds

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9
Q

Pressurisation:
If FMGC is not available to send data to CPC what does it use?

A

Captains BARO for pressure and the Manual Elevation selector for Elevation

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10
Q

Pressurisation:
What does the ditching PB close?

A

All valves below the floatation line
Outflow Valve
Ram Air
Avionics
Pack Flow control valve

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11
Q

Ventilation:
When is the Avionics bay in open configuration on the ground?

A

When the duct is 40degrees or greater. It goes into Closed configuration if it is less than 40 degrees

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12
Q

Ventilation:
When is the avionics in open closed in flight?

A

On takeoff
When the duct is less than 35degrees
It goes into intermediate config above 35degrees

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13
Q

Autoflight:
What is the FMGS comprised of?

A

2 FMGC
2 MCDU
1 FCU
2 FACS

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14
Q

Autoflight:
What is the flight management part of the FMGC?

A

Manages:
Radio Navaids
Flight planning
Performance
Displays

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15
Q

Autoflight:
What is the flight guidance part of the FMGC?

A

Provides:
AP
FD
ATHR

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16
Q

Autoflight:
What does the FAC do?

A

Controls Rudder, Rudder Trim, yaw damping, Reactive winds hear, low speed alerts, data for the flight envelope and speed functions.

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17
Q

Autoflight:
What are the 4 possible configurations of the FMGC?

A

DUAL
INDEPENDENT
SINGLE
Back Up Nav

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18
Q

Autoflight:
What does Back Up Nav Provide?

A

Simple navigation from a memorized flight plan. Radio naiads still need to be tuned manually on the RMP. An ILS can be displayed but no DME on the PFD will be provided.

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19
Q

Autoflight:
How does the FAC compute characteristic speeds?

A

Computes from FMS entered ZFW and CG, and computes its own via aerodynamic data that is used as a backup and also to compare with what was entered.

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20
Q

Autoflight:
What a speed predictions computed from the FAC based on?

A

Aerodynamic data

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21
Q

What are the default RNP values for:
Enroute
Terminal
Approach?

A

Enroute - 2.0nm
Terminal - 1.0nm
Approach - 0.3nm

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22
Q

Autoflight:
How long does a normal and fast alignment of the ADIRS take?

A

10mins
30 seconds

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23
Q

Autoflight:
What is the takeoff surveillance function?

A

It is used to check pilot entered speeds to make sure that they are consistent and compatible, and that ZFW is acceptable

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24
Q

Autoflight:
When do the FDs turn off regarding Pitch and Bank?

A

25 up
13 Down
Bank more than 45

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25
Q

Autoflight:
When do the flight directors flash?

A

When there is a mode revision

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26
Q

Autoflight:
When does the AP automatically disengage?

A

Trim beyond threshold
Sidestick moved beyond threshold
Rudder moved beyond threshold
High Speed Protection (vmo+15kts)
Angle of Attack protection (Alpha Prot)
Pitch above 25 or below 30
Bank above 45

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27
Q

Autoflight:
What does SRS do?

A

It’s a speed reference system mode that controls the speed of the aircraft via the elevators, commanding pitch. It provides a minimum climb of 120ft per min

It also provides a pitch angle protection of 18 degrees max or 22.5 degrees incase of windshear.

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28
Q

Autoflight:
What speed does SRS limit?

A

V2+10 for 2 engines
V2 for single engine limited to V2+15 if it fails after

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29
Q

Autoflight:
What speed does SRS command during a go around?

A

VLS +25 or VFE Next-5kts as a maximum

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30
Q

Autoflight:
When will you get SRS in flight?

A

At least config 1 and TOGA

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31
Q

Autoflight:
When is Alpha Floor inhibited?

A

Below 100RA on the approach
AP/TCAS

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32
Q

Autoflight:
What does ATHR require to function?

A

FMGC
FAC
2ADIRU
2FADECS
FCU
LGCIU

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33
Q

Autoflight:
How does ground speed mini function?

A

FAC computes groundspeed aircraft will have at touchdown when at VAPP. It will then compare the tower wind to the current wind to proved a change in airspeed to maintain a constant speed over the ground. The speed will never be lower than VAPP.

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34
Q

Autoflight:
What is VAPP?

A

VLS + 1/3tower wind or 5kts

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35
Q

Autoflight:
Describe the FACs

A

There are 2 FACs providing 4 functions:
Yaw
Flight Envelope
Low energy Alert
Windshear Detection

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36
Q

Autoflight:
What happens regarding the rudder trim limiter if you lose both FACs?

A

It is limited to the current setting

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37
Q

Autoflight:
What do the FACSS do regarding speed?

A

Controls speed scale on PFD
Computes V Speeds
Computes Manoeuvring speeds
Provides a speed trend arrow

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38
Q

Autoflight:
Alpha Floor - When does it activate and when is it inhibited?

A

Activates between ALPHA PROT and ALPHA MAX
It applies TOGA regardless of the thrust lever position
It is inhibited if there is APTCAS, single engine and not clean, and in alt or direct law
It is available from lift off until 100RA on the approach

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39
Q

Autoflight:
When is the LOW ENERGY ALERT active?

A

When in config 2-full
It is inhibited below 100RA or above 2000RA

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40
Q

Autoflight:
FAC - Windshear Detection. When is it available?

A

3 seconds after liftoff up to 1300RA for Takeoff
1300-50RA for landing

At least config 1

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41
Q

Electrics:

What is the AC system?

A

A 3 phase 115/200v 400hz system

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42
Q

Electrics:

How many A/C generators are there?

A

2 Engine driven generators - 90KVA 3phase 115/200v 400hz
1 Apu generator - 90KVA 3 phase 115/200v 400hz
1 Emergency Generator - 5KVA 3 Phase 115/200v 400hz
1 Static Inverter - 1kva 1 phase 115 400hz

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43
Q

Electrics:
What does the Emergency generator power?

A

Powers the AC Essential bus and the DC ESS TR which powers the DC ESS BUS

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44
Q

Electrics:
When does the Static inverter connect to the ACC ESS BUS?

A

When on batteries only and the aircraft speed is above 50kts

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45
Q

Electrics:
How does the aircraft convert AC to DC power?

A

By the use of Transformer Rectifiers, which convert AC to DC. There are 3 TRs. Two normal ones and 1 Ess TR

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46
Q

Electrics:
What is the capacity of the batteries?

A

23Amp Hours. The batteries are permanently connected to a hot bus.

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47
Q

Electrics:
How do the batteries connect to the DC BATT BUS?

A

Via the BCL. This automatically connects or disconnects batteries as and when they need charging

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48
Q

Electrics:
What colour are monitored and unmonitored CBs?

A

Green are monitored and after 1 min of being tripped will show up on the status page

Black are unmonitored

Some have RED CAPS which prevent anybody but maintenance from resetting them

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49
Q

Electrics:

You emergency cancel the CB tripped message. What happens?

A

You have prevented any other CBs from being detected tripped for the rest of the flight

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50
Q

Electrics:
You have pressed the CLR button to remove CB Tripped on panel XYZ, what happens?

A

That panel is unmonitored for the rest of the flight

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51
Q

Electrics:
When does the RAT deploy automatically and what are its limitations?

A

After the loss of AC BUS 1+2.

The RAT stalls at 140kts
Powered by the blue system, so if no blue system we have no electricity except batteries

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52
Q

Electrics:
Explain what happens in Emergency electric config once the RAT stalls?

A

The RAT stalls below 140kt
Power transfers to the batteries and Battery 1 powers the static inverter
To reduce load, ACC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS are lost
Below 100kts the DC BATT BUS connects to the batteries
Below 50kts AC ESS BUS is shed - no display units

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53
Q

Electrics:
How long does it take for the emergency gen to couple?

A

Around 8 seconds

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54
Q

Electrics:
Setting up the aircraft in smoke configuration, what is its purpose?

A

To shed 75% of the load to isolate source of the problem.
Gen 1 Line PB goes to Off to remove the generator from the network, but to allow it to still supply power to fuel pumps in each wing.
The CB panel on the overhead is all you have left

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55
Q

Fire Protection:
How many fire detection loops do the engines and APU have?

A

2 loops on each element.
The engine has 3 or 4 elements as installed
The Apu has 1 element

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56
Q

Fire Protection:
When does the APU fire extinguisher fire automatically?

A

On ground once it has detected a fire

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57
Q

Fire Protection:
What does the FIRE PB do for the engines?

A

Silences warnings
Arms Squib
Closes LP Engine Fuel Valve
Closes hydraulic fire shut off
Closes engine bleed
Closes pack flow control valve
Cuts of power to Fadec
Deactivates IDG

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58
Q

Fire Protection:
What does the APU FIRE PB do?

A

Shuts down the APU
Silences Warnings
arms squib
closes LP Fuel valve
Shuts of APU fuel pump
closes APU bleed
Closes XBLEED

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59
Q

Smoke Detection:
When does a smoke alarm occur?

A

After smoke is detected for 5 seconds

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60
Q

Smoke Detection:
How many smoke detectors in avionics bay?

A

1 in the air duct
If it detects smoke, a light goes on the smoke panel

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61
Q

Smoke Detection:
How many detectors are there in the lavatory?

A

1, and there is an auto firing bottle

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62
Q

Smoke Detection:
How many detectors are there in the cargo compartment?

A

2 in the FWD and 4 in the AFT. They have the dual loop concept.

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63
Q

Smoke Detection:
How many extinguishers are there in the cargo hold and how does it work?

A

1 bottle that has been split into two possible locations, one for FWD and one for AFT. The FWD has 1 nozzle and the aft 2.

64
Q

Flight Controls:
How many computers are there?

A

2 ELAC
2FAC
3SEC

65
Q

Flight Controls:
How many Slats and flaps?

A

2 FLAPS
5 Slats
Per wing

66
Q

Flight Controls:
What is the FAC and what does it do?

A

Flight Augmentation Computer
Controls Rudder
Rudder Trim
Rudder Limiter
Yaw Damping
Generates characteristic speeds

67
Q

Flight Controls:
What do the ELACs control?

A

Elevator
Aileron

68
Q

Flight Controls:
What do the SECs do?

A

Spoiler and secondary elevator control

69
Q

Flight Controls:
What spoilers are used for:
Roll?
Speed brakes?
Ground Spoilers?

A

Roll - 2345
Speed Brake - 234
Ground Spoiler - 12345

70
Q

Flight Controls:
How does roll control work with AP and manually?

A

AP sends signals to the ELAC which sends to the SEC
Manual control sends signals to ELAC and the SEC

71
Q

Flight Controls:
What do the ailerons do if the ELACs fail?

A

Enter damping mode whereby they follow surface movement

72
Q

Flight Controls:
What happens to the spoilers if a SEC fails?

A

Spoilers autoretract

73
Q

Flight Controls:
RTO - When do the spoilers extend?

A

Auto extend when armed and above 72kts when both thrust levers are set to idle

If not armed, they auto extend when at least 1 reverse is selected

74
Q

Flight Controls:
How is YAW computed?

A

ELACs compute yaw orders and send them to the FAC

75
Q

Flight Controls:
What is flare mode?

A

At 50ft RA the THS is frozen in its current position, at 30ft RA it starts to introduce a pitch attitude to -2degrees over 8 seconds

76
Q

Flight Controls:
What is the load factor protection?

A

+2.5g/-1g Clean
2g/0g All other config

77
Q

Flight Controls:
What is the pitch attitude protection?

A

30up (25 low speed) - Configuration 0-3
25 Up (20 low speed) - config full
15 degrees down

Flight directors disappear when pitch goes beyond 25up or 13down

78
Q

Flight Controls:
What is the AoA protection?

A

Activates when the AoA is greater than Alpha Prot
Will maintain alpha prot with no pilot input
AP disconnects at AoA protection
Pilots can pull all the way back to Alpha Max which provides a margin to the stall
Alpha Floor (ATHR function) engages between Alpha Prot and Alpha Max
Auto Trim stops at Alpha Prot (which is why when you let go of the stick it returns to alpha prot)
At takeoff, Alpha prot is the same as alpha max for 5 seconds

79
Q

Flight Controls:
What is the high speed protection?

A

VMO +4 - Overspeed warning
VMO+6 - High Speed protection activates and aircraft will pitch up to bring aircraft back into the envelope, but full stick forward can override it
VMO+15 - AP disconnects
VMO+16 - Max speed before the aircraft reduces authority of nose down to zero

80
Q

Flight Controls:
What controls the low energy alert?

A

FAC

81
Q

Flight Controls:
What is the bank angle protection?

A

Spiral Stability up to 33degrees
Max bank angle is 67 degrees
Max Bank angle is 45 degrees in AoA protection
Max bank angle is 40 degrees in High Speed protection
Flight directors disappear at 45 degrees and reappear at 40 degrees
In Highspeed protection spiral stability is zero

82
Q

Flight Controls:
What is the roll rate in normal and alt/direct law?

A

15 degrees a second in Normal Law
30 Degrees per second in ALT/Direct

83
Q

Flight Controls:
When does the sideslip indicator become the BETA target?

A

When Conf 1-3
When one engine is >80% and there is a difference of at least 35% n1 to the other engine

it gives you best perf with rudder applied for drag

84
Q

Flight Controls:
What controls the flaps and Slats?

A

2 SFCCs that have 2 channels each. One is a slat channel and the other is a flap channel

85
Q

Fuel System:
What is the approx max fuel that can be carried?

A

19tonnes

86
Q

Fuel System:
How many fuel pumps are there (new and older aircraft)?

A

4 fuel pumps and 2 XFR valves
6 fuel pumps in older aircraft

87
Q

Fuel System:
On newer aircraft the centre tank pumps have been replaced with what?

A

Suction valves that transfer the fuel from the centre to the inner tank. This is done by creating a differential pressure from the inner fuel pumps. This also allows the centre tank fuel (except 2tonnes) to be gravity fed.

88
Q

Fuel System:
What is the fuel feed sequence?

A

When inner tanks are full, no transfer of fuel will take place from the centre tanks
When the engines have used 500kg of fuel, the XFR Suction valves open allowing the fuel from the centre to enter the inner tank
Outer tanks transfer to the inner once the inner have gone down to 750kgs

89
Q

Fuel System:
How does the APU receive fuel?

A

From the left fuel line, and if there is insufficient pressure it uses its own special fuel pump

90
Q

Fuel System:
How does the fuel recirculation system work?

A

Cool fuel enters the heat exchanger of the IDG and cools the IDG and warms the fuel which is then either sent to the burners or back to the fuel tanks (outer) If the outer is already full it spills into the inner tank

91
Q

Fuel System:
What is the refuelling sequence?

A

OUTER - INNER - CENTRE

92
Q

Hydraulics:
What is the normal pressure of the three systems?

A

3000psi

93
Q

Hydraulics:
What is the system pressure of the blue system if that RAT is driving it?

A

2500psi

94
Q

Hydraulics:
When does the PTU work?

A

500PSI

95
Q

Hydraulics:
What do the accumulators do?

A

Maintain a constant pressure in the system by covering transient demands

96
Q

Hydraulics:
What do the priority valves do?

A

Shut off heavy load users from the system if the pressure gets too low

97
Q

Hydraulics:
Where are the fire shut off valves located?

A

Upstream of the engine driven pump

98
Q

Hydraulics:
What does the green system drive?

A

Aileron
Flaps
Slats
Gear
Normal Brakes
THS
Rudder
WTB
Elevator
Reverser1
Spoilers

99
Q

Hydraulics:
What does the yellow system drive?

A

Spoilers
Flaps
THS
Rudder
WTB
Elevator
NWS
Alt Brake
Park Brake
Reverser 2
Cargo Door

100
Q

Hydraulics:
What does the blue system drive?

A

Emergency Gen
Slats
Rudder
Aileron
Spoilers
WTB

101
Q

Ice and Rain protection:
What slats are heated?

A

Outboard 3,4,5

102
Q

ICE and Rain protection:
If electrical power fails, what happens to the anti ice system?

A

Wing anti ice closes
Engine Anti ice opens

103
Q

ICE and Rain protection:
When does window heat come on automatically?

A

In flight or 1 engine running

104
Q

Indicating and Recording:
What is the EIS?

A

Electronic Instrument System

105
Q

Indicating and Recording:
How many DMCs are there?

A

3

106
Q

Indicating and Recording:
What does the SDAC do?

A

Acquires data and sends data to the DMCs and FWCs

107
Q

Indicating and Recording:
What does DMC1/2/3 supply in normal ops?

A

DMC1 - CPT PFD ND ECAM
DMC2 - FO ND PFD
DMC3 - BACKUP

108
Q

Indicating and Recording:
When needed to due to a failure, how long can you press the system button for?

A

3mins

109
Q

Indicating and Recording:
When is takeoff inhibit?

A

Phases 3-5

110
Q

Indicating and Recording:
When is LDG Inhibit?

A

Phases 7-8

111
Q

Indicating and Recording:
When is VLS displayed?

A

10seconds after liftoff

112
Q

Indicating and Recording:
When is VSW displayed?

A

When in Alt or Direct law and 5 seconds after take off

113
Q

Landing Gear:
How many LGCIU are there?

A

2, and they swap after every complete retraction cycle of the LDG gear or if there is a failure

114
Q

Landing Gear:
What speed will prevent the gear being deployed?

A

260kts, this data is sent to the LGCIU by the ADR 1 + 3

115
Q

Landing Gear:
What does the hand crank do?

A

Isolates doors and gears from the hydraulic system
Unlocks doors and gear
Allows gravity to drop the gear into the extended position

116
Q

Landing Gear:
What powers the LDG gear indicator panel?

A

LGCIU 1

117
Q

Landing Gear:
How many green triangles do you need to know that the gear is downlocked?

A

1 per gear

118
Q

Landing Gear:
On the LDG gear selector panel, the red arrow signifies what?

A

LDG Gear not downloack

119
Q

Landing Gear:
When is the NWS and Pedal authority to the Nose wheel reduced to zero?

A

Pedals - 130kt
Tiller - 80kts

120
Q

Landing Gear:
What is the maximum deflection of the tiller?

A

±75degrees

121
Q

Landing Gear:
What is the maximum deflection of the pedals to the NWS?

A

± 6

122
Q

Landing Gear:
What system provides Normal brakes, Alternate brakes and Parking brakes?

A

Green - normal
Yellow - Alt and Parking Brake

123
Q

Landing Gear:
What system controls anti skid?

A

BSCU

124
Q

Landing Gear:
How many BSCU do we have?

A

1 but it has two channels that switch at each landing

125
Q

Landing Gear:
What are the three different types of Alternate braking you can get?

A

Alt Brakes with AntiSkid
Alt brakes Without Antiskid
Alt Brakes on Accumulator

126
Q

Landing Gear:
At what speed is ANTISKID deactivated?

A

20kts

127
Q

Landing Gear:
What is required for the Auto Braking to work?

A

BSCU
GREEN sys
1ADIRU
Activates with spoiler deflection
wheels must be above 40kts for MAX to work

128
Q

Landing Gear:
When do you get Alt braking on accumulator?

A

no Y or G system
ABCU limits braking to 1000psi
7 applications

129
Q

Landing Gear:
How long does parking brake last?

A

At least 12hrs

130
Q

Navigation:
What does the ADR provide?

A

Barometric Altitude
Airspeed/Mach
Angle of Attack
Temp
Overspeed Warnings

131
Q

Navigation:
What does the IR provide?

A

Attitude
FPV
Track
Heading
Accelerations
Rates
Groundspeed
Aircraft Position

132
Q

Navigation:
How many types of sensors do we have?

A

Pitot - 3
Static - 6
TAT - 2
AoA - 3

133
Q

Navigation:
What does the BUSS replace?

A

Normal Speed and GPS replaces the Baro Alt

134
Q

Navigation:
What does the ISIS provide?

A

Attitude
Altitude
Speed
Pressure Setting

135
Q

Navigation:
Where does the ISIS get its info?

A

Pitot
Static
Its own gyro
ILS 1

136
Q

Navigation:
How many radio nav do we have?

A

2 VOR
2ILS
1ADF
2DME

137
Q

Surveillance:
How far does the weather Radar look ahead?

A

320nm ±15 up/down ±80Left/right

138
Q

Surveillance:
When is predictive wind shear available?

A

Below 1800ft

139
Q

Surveillance:
When is PWS inhibited?

A

100kts to 50ft

140
Q

Surveillance:
When is the only time you do not have to adjust for a PWS alert?

A

Caution that aurally says “monitor nav display” all the rest mentioning wind shear must be a go around

141
Q

Surveillance:
What are the 5 GWPS modes?

A

Rate of Descent
Terrain closure
Alt Loss after application of TOGA or Takeoff power
Not in LDG config/terrain closure
Glisdeslope

142
Q

Surveillance:
How far does TCAS scan?

A

±30nm ±9900ft

143
Q

Surveillance:
How far is proximate traffic and how long before RA/TA?

A

6nm ±1200ft
40seconds
25 seconds

144
Q

Bleed System:
Where is bleed air taken from?

A

The IP section and HP section if demand cannot be met

145
Q

Bleed System:
What systems use bleed air?

A

Air con
Eng Start
Anti Ice
water Tanks
Hydraulic Tanks

146
Q

Bleed System:
What are the 3 sources of bleed air?

A

Eng
APU
Ground devices

147
Q

Bleed System:
How many and what do the BMCs do?

A

2 BMCs, that monitor and control the bleed system on their side. BMC 1 also does APU.

If one fails, it takes over the monitoring function only.

148
Q

Bleed System:
What provides air to the pre-cooler to cool it?

A

Fan Air

149
Q

Bleed System:
What happens if you put the APU bleed on?

A

It opens the crossbreed if it is in auto mode

150
Q

Bleed System:
When does the APU bleed close?

A

Automatically in case of:
Apu bleed leak
Left wing leak
Left Pylon leak

151
Q

Bleed System:
When does the crossbreed close automatically?

A

When it detects a leak

152
Q

Bleed System:
How many loops to detect leaks are there for the Wing, APU and Eng?

A

2 for the wing
1 for Eng and APU

153
Q

Doors:
The cabin enter the emergency entry code, what happens?

A

Alert in cockpit
If no entry is given after 15-120seconds the door automatically opens, unlocking itself for 5 seconds. There is a steady green light on the panel

154
Q

Engines:
What are the 3 idle modes?

A

Modulated idle - for bleed demands
Approach Idle - To allow rapid acceleration incase of go-around
Rev Idle - slightly higher than forward idle

155
Q

Engines:
When does fuel recirculation stop?

A

Shutdown
Takeoff or climb
When inner tank is full

156
Q

Engines:
What are the EGT limits?

A

950
915
725

Karl's Command Notes (9 decks)

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