Audit Flashcards

1
Q

Financial Statement Audit

A

An examination of financial information to determine if financial statements are presented fairly in accordance with an applicable financial reporting framework.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Applicable Financial Reporting Framework

A

A comprehensive set of principles and standards that prescribe how financial statement elements that result from an entity’s transactions, events, and circumstances are to be recognized, measured, and disclosed, including a general purpose framework and a special purpose framework.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

General Purpose Financial Reporting Framework

A

A financial reporting framework designed to meet the general needs of financial statement users, involving a comprehensive set of measurement, recognition, and disclosure principles achieving wide acceptance, such as GAAP, International Reporting Standards (IFRS), or the pronouncements of the GASB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Special Purpose Framework

A

A financial reporting framework (FRF) that is not a general purpose framework and is designed to meet the specific needs of those familiar with the framework and how it is used to evaluate an entity’s financial position or performance, such as a cash basis, tax basis, regulatory agency basis, contractual basis, or other basis of accounting. Also known as an other comprehensive basis of accounting (OCBOA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Auditing Standards

A

A framework of guidelines established by an appropriate authoritative body, such as the PCAOB for issuers or the Auditing Standards Board (ASB) for nonissuers, to be followed by an auditor to make certain that the objectives of the engagement are met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Auditing Procedures

A

The actions taken by the auditor to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence in support of the conclusions on which the auditor’s opinion is based.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS)

A

The body of authoritative audit literature established by the Auditing Standards Board of the AICPA to be applied in the audits of financial statements of nonissuer (nonpublic) companies and against which the quality of audits are measured and judged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Predecessor Auditor

A

The independent CPA who performed or was engaged to perform an audit of a new audit client’s financial statements from its most recent prior period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Professional Skepticism

A

An attitude that includes a questioning mind and a critical assessment of audit evidence, with an alertness for conditions that may indicate a material misstatement—being alert to contradictory information from different sources, to the possibility that documentary evidence may not be reliable, to the possibility that the client is being dishonest when providing information, and to indications of fraud.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Integrity

A

honesty and fairness with an incorruptible commitment to ethical values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Objectivity

A

Refraining from compromising professional judgment due to bias, conflict of interest, or undue influence of others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Independence

A

An auditor’s ability to perform without compromising professional judgment and act with integrity, objectivity, and professional skepticism, consisting of independence of mind (fact) and independence in appearance, required for the performance of attest engagements. Independence is considered to be impaired, for instance, if a direct or a material indirect financial interest is held by the auditor or family member.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Due Professional Care

A

Applying a level of care to the performance of work that would be expected of a professional with comparable qualifications, enabling an auditor to act without negligence, with skill and due diligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Reasonable Assurance

A

The degree of assurance provided by an audit opinion representing a high degree of assurance, but not absolute assurance. Reasonable assurance indicates a high degree of reliability without indicating perfection, and is supported by sufficient, appropriate audit evidence gathered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Those Charged with Governance

A

The individuals or parties responsible for overseeing the strategic direction of an entity and obligations related to accountability—generally the board of directors, although often limited to the audit committee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Engagement Letter

A

Documentation of the understanding between the accountant and the client required to be in the form of an engagement letter or other suitable form of written agreement, signed by both the accountant and the client, for review, compilation, and preparation engagements, and in an audit engagement, although for audit engagements, it is not required to be signed.

17
Q

Materiality

A

Measurement of the degree of misstatements and omissions that are expected to, individually or in the aggregate, influence the judgement of a reasonable financial statement user.

18
Q

Audit Risk
(AR = IR x CR x DR)

A

The risk that the auditor may unknowingly fail to appropriately modify the audit opinion on financial statements that are materially misstated. Consists of inherent risk (IR), control risk (CR) and detection risk (DR), such that audit risk
(AR) = IR x CR x DR.

19
Q

Inherent Risk (IR)

A

Before considering any related internal controls, the susceptibility of an assertion to misstatement that could be material, individually or in the aggregate.

20
Q

Control Risk (CR)

A

The risk a misstatement in an assertion, that could be material individually or in the aggregate, will not be prevented or detected and corrected on a timely basis due to a lack of effective internal controls.

21
Q

Risk of Material Misstatement
(RMM)

A

The risk that, prior to the audit, relevant assertions contain misstatements that are material to the financial statements. Consists of inherent risk (IR) and control risk (CR), such that RMM = IR x CR.

22
Q

Detection Risk (DR)

A

The risk that the auditors will not detect misstatements in the financial statements that could be material, individually or in the aggregate.

23
Q

Fraud

A

An intentional act on the part of one or more individuals, which may result in a material misstatement to the financial statements, and consists of either misappropriation of assets or fraudulent financial reporting.

24
Q

Error

A

An unintentional misstatement in the financial statements or omission of required information from the financial statements.

25
Q

Known Misstatements

A

Misstatements specifically identified during the audit.

26
Q

Likely Misstatements

A

Misstatements not specifically identified, but are likely to exist based on indications derived from audit evidence obtained or due to a difference between management and auditor judgments.

27
Q

Fraud Risk Triangle

A

The three characteristics of fraud that are generally assumed to be present whenever fraud has occurred:
Motivation (incentive/pressure),
Opportunity, and
Rationalization (ie, the perpetrator’s ability to rationalize the fraudulent act).

28
Q

Quality Control

A

firm’s system to provide it with reasonable assurance that the CPA firm and its personnel comply with applicable professional standards and only issue reports that are appropriate under the circumstances.

29
Q

Compliance Audit

A

An examination performed to determine if an entity is in compliance with the terms of an agreement, such as a loan agreement or bond indenture agreement; or with laws and regulations to which it is subject.

30
Q

Operational Audit

A

An examination of an entity’s operating procedures to evaluate their efficiency and effectiveness in meeting the entity’s objectives. Often performed by internal auditors.