Biological Diversity Flashcards

1
Q

Paramecium is a group of ciliates that have specialized mouths, pores, contractile vacuoles, and two kinds of nuclei. Which of the following describes which type of protist paramecium are?
A. Plant-like protist
B. Fungus-like protist
C. Algae-like protist
D. Bacteria-like protist
E. Animal-like protist

A

E. Animal-like protist

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2
Q

Which of the following describes how Rhizopoda organisms can move in their environment?
A. Cilia
B. Pseudopodia
C. Flagella
D. Chemotaxis
E. Phototaxis

A

B. Pseudopodia

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3
Q

Which of the following kingdoms would organisms that can be classified as slime or water molds fall under?
A. Plantae
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Animalia
E. Protista

A

E. Protista

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4
Q

Which of the following is a similarity between fungus-like protists and fungi?
A. Both organisms are autotrophic
B. Both organisms have circular DNA
C. Both organisms have 70S ribosomes
D. Both organisms reproduce by forming spores
E. Both organisms’ cell wall is made from cellulose

A

. Both organisms reproduce by forming spores

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5
Q

Which of the following defines how slime molds obtain energy?
A. Parasitic
B. Saprophytic
C. Chemoautotrophic
D. Photoautotrophic
E. Dendritic

A

B. Saprophytic

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6
Q

Which of the following secondary messengers can be secreted from slime mold organism cells as a response to a lack of food?
A. cAMP
B. Ca2+
C. DAG
D. IP3
E. NO

A

A. cAMP

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7
Q

When environmental conditions get harsh, which of the following fungus-like protists respond by individuals aggregating to form a moving slug?
A. Cellular slime molds
B. Plasmodial slime molds
C. Water molds
D. Mildews
E. White rusts

A

A. Cellular slime molds

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8
Q

Which of the following fungus-like protists grow as a single, spreading mass known as plasmodium?
A. Water molds
B. Slime molds
C. Mildews
D. White rusts
E. Forams

A

B. Slime molds

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9
Q

List in the correct order what occurs when plasmodial slime molds are in an environment without food.
I. Cells grow into a plasmodium
II. Haploid spores that are released from capsules are germinated into haploid amoeboid cells
III. Stalks bearing spore capsules form
IV. Haploid spores are fused to form diploid cells

A. III, IV, II, I
B. I, III, II, IV
C. II, III, IV, I
D. III, I, II, IV
E. III, II, IV, I

A

List in the correct order what occurs when plasmodial slime molds are in an environment without food.
I. Cells grow into a plasmodium
II. Haploid spores that are released from capsules are germinated into haploid amoeboid cells
III. Stalks bearing spore capsules form
IV. Haploid spores are fused to form diploid cells

E. III, II, IV, I

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10
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning oomycetes?
A. All oomycetes are saprobes
B. All oomycetes are parasites
C. Oomycetes are chemoautotrophs
D. Oomycetes are photoautotrophs
E. Oomycetes can be parasites or saprobes

A

E. Oomycetes can be parasites or saprobes

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11
Q

The following fungus-like protists are members of the phylogenetic lineage of Oomycota EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Mildews
B. Freshwater mold
C. Brackish water molds
D. Plasmodial slime molds
E. White rusts

A

D. Plasmodial slime molds

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12
Q

Which of the following makes up the cell wall of the fungus-like organisms classified as Oomycota?
A. Chitin
B. Cellulose
C. Starch
D. Glycogen
E. Fiber

A

B. Cellulose

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13
Q

Which of the following make up the cell wall of fungi?
A. Glycogen
B. Starch
C. Fiber
D. Cellulose
E. Chitin

A

E. Chitin

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14
Q

All organisms in the Fungi kingdom are known as __________ .
A. Heterotrophs
B. Autotrophs
C. Chemoautotrophs
D. Parasites
E. Bacteria

A

A. Heterotrophs

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15
Q

Fungi can be classified as all of the following EXCEPT one? Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Decomposers
B. Saprophytes
C. Heterotrophs
D. Autotrophs
E. Parasites

A

. Autotrophs

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16
Q

Single-cell fungi can be defined with which of the following terms?
A. Unicellular and filamentous
B. Unicellular and nonfilamentous
C. Unicellular and prokaryotic
D. Multicellular and filamentous
E. Multicellular and nonfilamentous

A

B. Unicellular and nonfilamentous

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17
Q

Multicellular fungi can be classified as __________.
A. Multicellular and prokaryotic
B. Multicellular and nonfilamentous
C. Multicellular and filamentous
D. Unicellular and filamentous
E. Unicellular and nonfilamentous

A

C. Multicellular and filamentous

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18
Q

Which of the following conditions could yeast grow in?
A. Oxygen-rich environment
B. Oxygen-poor environment
C. Oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor environment
D. Oxygen-rich environment in extreme heat
E. Oxygen-poor environment in extreme heat

A

C. Oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor environment

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19
Q

Yeast undergo __________.
A. Sexual reproduction via mitosis
B. Sexual reproduction via meiosis
C. Asexual reproduction via spores
D. Asexual reproduction via fragmentation
E. Asexual reproduction via budding

A

E. Asexual reproduction via budding

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20
Q

Which of the following best describes yeast?
A. Prokaryotic
B. Bacterial
C. Multicellular
D. Unicellular
E. Without a nucleus

A

D. Unicellular [

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21
Q

A microbiologist discovered a new filamentous mold. Which of the following kingdoms could this mold be classified as?
A. Animalia
B. Fungi
C. Plantae
D. Archaea
E. Bacteria

A

B. Fungi

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22
Q

Multicellular fungi live in which of the following environments?
A. High humidity environments
B. High temperature environments
C. Low temperature environments
D. Oxygen-rich environments
E. Oxygen-poor environments

A

D. Oxygen-rich environments

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23
Q

Fungi is made of the interlinking of __________.
A. Septa
B. Fruiting bodies
C. Gamete
D. Spores
E. Mycelium

A

E. Mycelium

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24
Q

Which of the following can the fruiting bodies of mushrooms arise from?
A. Mycelium
B. Septa
C. Spores
D. Gametes
E. Fruiting body

A

A. Mycelium

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25
Q

Haustoria, a special type of hyphae, is classified as __________ .
A. Saprophytic
B. Parasitic
C. Chemoautotrophic
D. Photoautotrophic
E. Unicellular

A

B. Parasitic

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26
Q

Suppose a student in his microbiology lab is comparing coenocytic and septate hyphae. Which of the following differences would the students observe in these hyphae?
A. The student will observe no cell walls within the septate hyphae
B. The student will observe cell walls within the coenocytic hyphae
C. The student will observe multinucleated cells within coenocytic hyphae
D. The student will observe multinucleated cells within septate hyphae
E. The student will observe no tubular cell walls in either

A

The student will observe multinucleated cells within coenocytic hyphae

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27
Q

Nonfilamentous fungi undergo ___________.
A. Asexual reproduction
B. Sexual reproduction
C. Cytokinesis
D. Meiosis
E. Pollination

A

A. Asexual reproduction

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28
Q

After asexual reproduction, daughter filamentous fungi are ___________.
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Not genetically identical
D. Converted into non-filament fungi
E. Formed into zygotes

A

A. Haploid

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29
Q

Fungi experience asexual reproduction in all the following ways EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. No genetic recombination
B. Spores
C. Plasmogamy
D. Budding
E. Fragmentation

A

C. Plasmogamy

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30
Q

A mycologist is studying a group of fungi and notices that the fungi reproduce by the breaking off of hyphae. Which of the following types of reproduction did this group of fungi display?
A. Budding
B. Spores
C. Joining of gametes
D. Fragmentation
E. Karyogamy

A

D. Fragmentation

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31
Q

When do fungi become diploid in sexual reproduction?
A. Plasmogamy
B. Karyogamy
C. Meiosis
D. Mitosis
E. Cytokinesis

A

B. Karyogamy

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32
Q

Place the following steps of fungi sexual reproduction in the correct order.
I. Karyogamy
II. Meiosis
III. Germination
IV. Spores
V. Plasmogamy
VI. Zygote

A. V, I, IV, II, VI, III
B. I, V, IV, III, VI, II
C. I, IV, V, III, VI, II
D. I, V, IV, II, VI, III
E. V, I, VI, II, IV, III

A

E. V, I, VI, II, IV, III

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33
Q

The asexual reproduction of fungi involves all the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Spores
D. Germination
E. Mycelium

A

B. Meiosis

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34
Q

During plasmogamy, two different fungi grow together and fuse their __________.
A. Nuclei
B. Centrioles
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria
E. MTOC

A

C. Cytoplasm

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35
Q

During fungi karyogamy, which of the following fuse together to form a diploid organism?
A. Diploid nuclei
B. Haploid nuclei
C. Cytoplasm
D. Cytosol
E. Organelles

A

B. Haploid nuclei

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36
Q

Two fungal cells have a mutation that inhibits the fusion of the cytoplasm of the cells. Which of the following steps of fungal sexual reproduction will be directly affected?
A. Plasmogamy
B. Karyogamy
C. Germination
D. Meiosis
E. Mitosis

A

A. Plasmogamy

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37
Q

How are diploid zygotes converted into haploid spores in the sexual reproduction of fungi?
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Fragmentation
D. Budding
E. Binary fission

A

. Meiosis

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38
Q

Which of the following is not a phylum in the kingdom Fungi?
A. Zygomycota
B. Glomeromycota
C. Slime molds
D. Ascomycota
E. Basidiomycota

A

C. Slime molds

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39
Q

Which of the following symbiotic relationships describes lichens and mycorrhiza?
A. Mutualism
B. Commensalism
C. Predation
D. Parasitism
E. Predation

A

A. Mutualism

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40
Q

The roots of plants in an area prominent with fungi are all damaged. Which of the following fungi, if found in this same area, would be directly affected?
A. Deuteromycota
B. Ascomycota
C. Zygomycota
D. Lichens
E. Mycorrhiza

A

E. Mycorrhiza [67%]

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41
Q

Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning the symbiotic relationship in lichens?
A. Plants provide carbohydrates to the fungi, while the fungi protect the plants
B. Fungi provide carbohydrates to the fungi, while the algae protect the fungi
C. Algae provide carbohydrates to the fungi, while the fungi protect the algae
D. Fungi provide carbohydrates to the plants, while the plants protect the fungi
E. Plants provide carbohydrates to the algae, while the algae protect the plants

A

C. Algae provide carbohydrates to the fungi, while the fungi protect the algae

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42
Q

After the plasmogamy step of sexual reproduction of fungi, the two fungal cells that fuse are known as __________.
A. Diploids
B. Dikaryon
C. Diatom
D. Dimorphic
E. Haploid

A

B. Dikaryon

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43
Q

Which of the following is a difference between sporangiospores and conidia?
A. Sporangiospores are produced from fungus-like protists, while conidia are produced from fungi
B. Conidia are produced from fungus-like protists, while sporangiospores are produced from fungi
C. Sporangiospores are formed at the tips of specialized hyphae and are not enclosed in sacs, while conidia are produced in sac-like capsules
D. Conidia are formed at the tips of specialized hyphae and are not enclosed in sacs, while sporangiospores are produced in sac-like capsules
E. There is no difference. Both sporangiospores and conidia are produced from sac-like capsules

A

D. Conidia are formed at the tips of specialized hyphae and are not enclosed in sacs, while sporangiospores are produced in sac-like capsules

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44
Q

Which of the following phyla of Fungi have septa?
A. Zygomycota and Glomeromycota
B. Ascomycota and Basidiomycota
C. Glomeromycota and Ascomycota
D. Basidiomycota and Glomeromycota
E. Ascomycota and Rhizopus

A

B. Ascomycota and Basidiomycota

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45
Q

A mycologist discovers a new fungus that reproduces sexually by fusion of hyphae from different strains and reproduces asexually via sporangia. Which of the following phyla of fungi could this new fungus belong to?
A. Zygomycota
B. Basidiomycota
C. Ascomycota
D. Deuteromycota
E. Glomeromycota

A

A. Zygomycot

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46
Q

Which of the following phyla do mycorrhizal fungi belong to?
A. Zygomycota
B. Glomeromycota
C. Ascomycota
D. Deuteromycota
E. Basidiomycota

A

B. Glomeromycota

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47
Q

Which of the following describes the symbiotic relationship of mycorrhiza?
A. The fungus provides carbohydrates, while the algae increase the ability of the fungi to absorb nutrients
B. Algae provide carbohydrates, while the fungus increases the ability of the algae to absorb nutrients
C. Plants provide carbohydrates, while the fungus increases the ability of the plants to absorb nutrients
D. The fungus provides carbohydrates, while the plants increase the ability of the fungi to absorb nutrients
E. Plants provide carbohydrates, while the algae increase the ability of the plants to absorb nutrients

A

Plants provide carbohydrates, while the fungus increases the ability of the plants to absorb nutrients

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48
Q

Which of the following describes why fungi in the phylum Deuteromycota are referred to as imperfect fungi?
A. They have no known sexual reproductive cycle
B. They form imperfect spores
C. They have no known asexual reproductive cycle
D. They have imperfect conidia
E. They have imperfect symbiotic relationships

A

A. They have no known sexual reproductive cycle

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49
Q

Penicillin, produced by Penicillium, is an antibiotic that disrupts bacteria’s ability to synthesize its cell wall. Which of the following phyla of fungi does Penicillium belong to?
A. Zygomycota
B. Basidiomycota
C. Ascomycota
D. Glomeromycota
E. Deuteromycota

A

E. Deuteromycota [

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50
Q

Rhizopus is a fungal pathogen that is involved in food storage. Which of the following phyla of fungi is Rhizopus classified as?
A. Zygomycota
B. Glomeromycota
C. Ascomycota
D. Deuteromycota
E. Basidiomycota

A

A. Zygomycota

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51
Q

A loaf of bread starts to mold and a mycologist wants to test what kind of mold is growing. Which of the following fungi could the mold most likely be?
A. Rhizopus
B. Lichens
C. Candida
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Basidiomycota

A

A. Rhizopus

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52
Q

A child has an infection on the mucous membrane of their mouth. Which of the following types of fungi could be causing this infection?
A. Lichens
B. Rhizopus
C. Basidiomycota
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Candida

A

E. Candida

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53
Q

Which of the following is a type of yeast that is involved in fermenting sugars to alcohol?
A. Rhizopus
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C. Candida
D. Basidiomycota
E. Oomycota

A

. Saccharomyces cerevisia

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54
Q

Which of the following are criteria for a living organism?
A. Dependent metabolism; ability to self-replicate
B. Dependent metabolism; ability to produce gametes
C. Independent metabolism; ability to self-replicate
D. Independent metabolism; ability to produce gametes
E. Independent metabolism; warm-blooded

A

C. Independent metabolism; ability to self-replicate

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55
Q

Which of the following is true concerning viruses?
A. Viruses lack independent metabolisms and self-replicate in a host cell.
B. Viruses lack independent metabolisms and self-replicate on their own.
C. Viruses have independent metabolisms and self-replicate in a host cell.
D. Viruses have independent metabolisms and self-replicate on their own.
E. Viruses thrive without a host.

A

Viruses lack independent metabolisms and self-replicate in a host cell

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56
Q

A scientist discovered and classified a new organism. She wanted to compare it with other organisms that are closely related to this new organism. Which of the following would be most closely related to this new organism?
A. Organisms found in the same family as the new organism
B. Organisms found in the same order as the new organism
C. Organisms found in the same class as the new organism
D. Organisms found in the same genus as the new organism
E. Organisms found in the same domain as the new organism

A

. Organisms found in the same genus as the new organism

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57
Q

Bacteria and Eukarya are two domains found in nature. Which of the following is the third domain found in nature?
A. Animalia
B. Archaea
C. Protista
D. Fungi
E. Virus

A

B. Archaea

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58
Q

Which of the following is the correct number of domains and cell types in taxonomy?
A. 2;2
B. 2;3
C. 3;3
D. 3;2
E. 3;4

A

D. 3;2

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59
Q

A researcher is observing a microorganism classified as archaea. Which of the following cells will the researcher observe?
A. Eukaryotic
B. Prokaryotic
C. Bacterial
D. Fungal
E. Viral

A

B. Prokaryotic

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60
Q

Which of the following domains consists of the same cell type?
A. Eubacteria and Eukarya
B. Eubacteria and Archaea
C. Eukarya and Archaea
D. Eukarya and Animalia
E. Eukarya and Protista

A

B. Eubacteria and Archaea

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61
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a bacterium, is __________.
A. Multicellular
B. Unicellular
C. Eukaryotic
D. Diploid
E. Smaller than a virus

A

B. Unicellular

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62
Q

A scientist discovers a new species classified in the domain Eukarya. Which type of organism could the new species be?
A. Prokaryotic or fungal
B. Prokaryotic or eukaryotic
C. Prokaryotic or viral
D. Multi or unicellular
E. Only asexually reproducing

A

. Multi or unicellular

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63
Q

How does Streptococcus pyogenes, a bacterial cell, reproduce?
A. Meiosis
B. Cytokinesis
C. Binary fission
D. Crossing over
E. Sexual reproduction

A

C. Binary fission

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64
Q

A prokaryotic cell cannot stick to its external environment. Which of the following structures are most likely dysfunctional?
A. Fimbriae and pili
B. Fimbriae and flagella
C. Flagella and pili
D. Flagella and cilia
E. Pili and peptidoglycan

A

A. Fimbriae and pili

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65
Q

Where is DNA for Escherichia Coli, a bacterium, and Eomycota, a fungus, respectively held?
A. Nucleus; nucleus
B. Nucleoid; nucleoid
C. Nucleus; nucleoid
D. Nucleoid; nucleus
E. Ribosomes; lysosomes

A

D. Nucleoid; nucleus

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66
Q

A student looks at a cell under a microscope. After thoroughly examining the cell, no Golgi apparatus was found. Which of the following organisms could this cell belong to?
A. Thallophyte, a type of plant
B. Moss, a type of plant
C. Candida albicans, a type of fungus
D. Foraminifera, a type of protist
E. Euryarchaeota, a type of archaea

A

E. Euryarchaeota, a type of archaea

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67
Q

Which of the following occurs during binary fission?
A. Crossing over
B. Chiasmata formation
C. Diploid cells duplicate into two diploid cells
D. Diploid cells duplicate into two haploid cells
E. Haploid cells duplicate into two haploid cells

A

Haploid cells duplicate into two haploid cells

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68
Q

A college freshman is observing a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell through a high-resolution microscope. Which structures will the student observe?
A. Circular DNA in the eukaryotic cell
B. Circular DNA in the prokaryotic cell
C. Membrane enclosed organelles in the prokaryotic cell
D. Cytoplasmic streaming in the prokaryotic cell
E. Larger ribosomes in the prokaryotic cell

A

Circular DNA in the prokaryotic cell

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69
Q

Which of the following is a difference between bacterial and human DNA?
A. The DNA in humans do not have introns
B. The DNA in bacteria do not have introns
C. The introns of bacteria are spliced out
D. The introns of bacteria are longer than that of humans
E. The introns of bacteria contain crucial genetic information

A

B. The DNA in bacteria do not have introns

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70
Q

Which of the following organisms’ cells undergo both mitosis and meiosis to replicate?
A. Cyanobacteria, a type of bacteria
B. Staphylothermus marinus, a type of archaea
C. Liverwort, a type of plant
D. Tuberculosis, a type of bacteria
E. Hepatitis C, a type of virus

A

C. Liverwort, a type of plant

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71
Q

Which of the following makes up a prokaryotic cell flagellum?
A. Tubulin
B. Flagellin
C. Cilia
D. Actin
E. Intermediate filaments

A

. Flagellin

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72
Q

Which of the following makes up eukaryotic flagella?
A. Flagellin
B. Cilia
C. Tubulin
D. Goblet cells
E. Acrosomes

A

C. Tubulin

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73
Q

A ribosome is determined to have a sedimentation coefficient of 70S. It most likely belongs to a(n) __________.
A. Epithelial cell
B. Muscle cell
C. Nerve cell
D. Bacterial cell
E. Immune cell

A

D. Bacterial cell

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74
Q

Eukaryotic sedimentation coefficients in Svedberg units is ___________.
A. 90S
B. 80S
C. 70S
D. 60S
E. 50S

A

B. 80S

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75
Q

Which of the following organisms have cells that consist of organelles?
A. Animals, fungi, protists, and plants
B. Animals, fungi, protists, and bacteria
C. Animals, fungi, protists, and archaea
D. Animals, fungi, protists, and viruses
E. Animals, fungi, plants, and bacteria

A

A. Animals, fungi, protists, and plants

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76
Q

Which of the following directly allows for bacterial flagella locomotion?
A. Light energy
B. ATP
C. Proton motive force
D. NADH
E. GTP

A

C. Proton motive force

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77
Q

Tapeworms, a parasite, live inside of a host and obtain energy by the consumption of tissues of the host. Which of the following best describes how tapeworms obtain energy?
A. Tapeworms are heterotrophs
B. Tapeworms are saprophytes
C. Tapeworms are photoautotrophs
D. Tapeworms are chemoautotrophs
E. Tapeworms are detritivores

A

A. Tapeworms are heterotrophs

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78
Q

Decaying matter is consumed by all the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Saprobes
B. Saprophytes
C. Decomposers
D. Parasites
E. Detritivore

A

D. Parasites

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79
Q

A newly discovered species die when it does not receive sunlight. Which of the following terms best describes this species?
A. Heterotroph
B. Photoautotroph
C. Chemoautotroph
D. Chemolithoautotroph
E. Anaerobic

A

B. Photoautotroph

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80
Q

Which of the following can be used by chemolithoautotrophs to obtain energy?
A. Sunlight
B. Ammonia
C. Lipids
D. Methane
E. Glucose

A

B. Ammonia

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81
Q

A student in his microbiology lab is trying to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis, an obligate aerobe, in an environment without oxygen. Which of the following will occur?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Apoptosis
D. Detoxification
E. Oxygen production

A

C. Apoptosis

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82
Q

Which of the following describes what could occur if an obligate anaerobe were treated with hydrogen peroxide?
A. Increase of mitosis
B. Increase of meiosis
C. Increase in genome size
D. Cellular damage
E. Cellular immortality

A

D. Cellular damage

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83
Q

A microbiologist notices that Escherichia coli can grow in both deoxygenated and oxygenated environments. Which of the following best explains why?
A. Escherichia coli is an obligate aerobe
B. Escherichia coli is an obligate anaerobe
C. Escherichia coli is a facultative anaerobe
D. Escherichia coli is a prokaryote
E. Escherichia coli is a eukaryote

A

C. Escherichia coli is a facultative anaerobe

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84
Q

Which of the following domains is oldest in nature and contains the simplest of organisms?
A. Eukarya
B. Eubacteria
C. Archaea
D. Animalia
E. Protista

A

C. Archaea

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85
Q

Which of the following describes the difference between Archaea and Eukarya’s phospholipid structures?
A. The hydrocarbon chain in the archaeal organism is branched with ether linkages to glycerol
B. The hydrocarbon chain in the archaeal organism is branched with ester-linkages to glycerol
C. The hydrocarbon chain in the archaeal organism is straight with ether linkages to glycerol
D. The hydrocarbon chain in the archaeal organism is straight with ester-linkages to glycerol
E. The hydrocarbon chain in the archaeal organism is straight with peptide linkages to glycerol

A

The hydrocarbon chain in the archaeal organism is branched with ether linkages to glycerol

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86
Q

Which of the following correctly includes the domain(s) that have histones associated DNA?
A. Eukarya
B. Eubacteria
C. Eukarya and Eubacteria
D. Eukarya and Archaea
E. Archaea and Eubacteria

A

D. Eukarya and Archaea [

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87
Q

A scientist accidentally consumed an archaeal organism during a science experiment. Not knowing what to do, he rushes to the hospital. What will the doctor most likely tell the man?
A. The doctor will tell the man he is fine because archaeal organisms are nonpathogenic
B. The doctor will tell the man that he needs to be treated with antibiotics to prevent infection
C. The doctor will tell the man that he needs surgery to remove his spleen because archaeal organisms are so pathogenic
D. The doctor will tell the man that he needs to be treated with antivirals to prevent infection
E. The doctor will tell the man that he needs to be treated with a vaccine to prevent infection

A

A. The doctor will tell the man he is fine because archaeal organisms are nonpathogenic

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88
Q

Which of the following is a difference between the ribosomes of archaea and bacteria?
A. Archaea do not contain ribosomes
B. Bacteria do not contain ribosomes
C. Archaeal ribosomes are not inhibited by antibiotics
D. Archaeal ribosomes are 70S whereas bacterial ribosomes are 80S
E. Archaeal ribosomes do not synthesize proteins unlike bacteria

A

C. Archaeal ribosomes are not inhibited by antibiotics

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89
Q

A scientist tried to grow Methanosarcina barkeri, a methanogen, in an oxygen-rich environment. How will the methanogen be affected?
A. Methanosarcina barkeri will not survive
B. Methanosarcina barkeri will sexually reproduce
C. Methanosarcina barkeri will asexually reproduce
D. Methanosarcina barkeri will release more COa2
E. Methanosrcina barkeri will excessively replicate

A

A. Methanosarcina barkeri will not survive [

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90
Q

Which of the following is a by-product of methanogens?
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Oxygen
C. Ammonia
D. Methane
E. Sulfur

A

D. Methane

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91
Q

Methanogens can be found in all the following areas EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Mud
B. Digestive tract of cows
C. Swamps
D. Geysers
E. Hydrothermal vents

A

D. Geysers

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92
Q

Scientists are observing organisms at the Yellowstone National Park by observing geysers. Which of the following organisms could these scientists find?
A. Archaeal thermophiles
B. Archaeal halophiles
C. Bacterial thermophiles
D. Bacterial halophiles
E. Bacterial mesophiles

A

A. Archaeal thermophiles

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93
Q

Thermophiles that obtain energy via sulfur are classified as __________.
A. Parasites
B. Photoautotrophs
C. Saprobes
D. Chemoautotrophs
E. Heterotrophs

A

D. Chemoautotrophs

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94
Q

Which of the following environments would halophiles most likely be found in?
A. Digestive tracts of organisms
B. Mud
C. Wetlands
D. Deep salt mines
E. Glaciers

A

D. Deep salt mines

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95
Q

Most halophiles are heterotrophic, but some are photosynthetic. Which of the following pigments do photosynthetic halophiles use to capture light energy to convert into chemical energy?
A. Carotenoids
B. Chlorophyll
C. Bacteriorhodopsin
D. Rhodopsin
E. Green sulfur

A

C. Bacteriorhodopsin

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96
Q

A student taking a microbiology quiz observes bacteria that are rod-shaped in chains with her microscope. Which of the following genus do the bacteria belong to?
A. Streptococcus
B. Streptobacillus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Staphylobacillus
E. Spirillum

A

B. Streptobacillus

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97
Q

Which of the following describes the shape of bacteria in the genus staphylococcus?
A. A chain of rod-shaped bacteria
B. A chain of spherical-shaped bacteria
C. A cluster of rod-shaped bacteria
D. A cluster of spherical-shaped bacteria
E. A cluster of spiral-shaped bacteria

A

D. A cluster of spherical-shaped bacteria

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98
Q

Which of the following is true concerning gram-positive bacteria?
A. Gram-positive bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan cell wall
B. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall
C. Gram-positive bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide membrane
D. Gram-positive bacteria have a pinkish color
E. Gram-positive bacteria have an outer and inner membrane

A

B. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall

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99
Q

Which of the following is true concerning gram-negative bacteria?
A. Gram-negative bacteria do not have an outer membrane
B. Gram-negative bacteria have a purple color
C. Gram-negative bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall
D. Gram-negative bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide membrane
E. Gram-negative bacteria do not have a periplasmic space

A

D. Gram-negative bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide membrane

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100
Q

Teichoic acids in bacteria have all the following functions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Recognition by bacterial viruses
B. Binding sites by bacterial viruses
C. Provide cell wall rigidity
D. Toxin release after cell death
E. Covalent attachment to the peptidoglycan layer

A

D. Toxin release after cell death

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101
Q

Which of the following toxins is released when a gram-negative bacterial cell is killed?
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Endotoxin
C. Teichoic acid
D. Ammonia
E. Chloroform

A

. Endotoxin

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102
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning nitrogen fixation?
A. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria take atmospheric nitrogen to fix into hydrogen ions.
B. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria take atmospheric nitrogen to fix into nitrite ions.
C. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria take atmospheric nitrogen to fix into ammonium ions.
D. Nitrifying bacteria take atmospheric nitrogen to fix into nitrite ions.
E. Nitrifying bacteria take atmospheric nitrogen to fix into ammonium ions.

A

C. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria take atmospheric nitrogen to fix into ammonium ions

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103
Q

Which of the following symbiotic relationships do nitrogen-fixing bacteria have with nodules on plant roots?
A. Commensalism
B. Predation
C. Parasitism
D. Mutualism
E. Competition

A

D. Mutualism

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104
Q

A microbiologist observes a bacterium that is coiled and moves with a corkscrew motion. Which of the following bacteria describes this bacterium?
A. Spirochetes
B. Bacillus
C. Nitrogen-fixing
D. Chemosynthetic
E. Cyanobacteria

A

A. Spirochetes

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105
Q

Nitrifying bacteria were removed from the nitrogen cycle. Which of the following describes a consequence of this?
A. Inhibition of plant decomposition
B. Inhibition of atmosphere fixing
C. Inhibition of nitrogen uptake in plants
D. Inhibition of lightning activity in clouds
E. Inhibition of oxygen release in organisms

A

C. Inhibition of nitrogen uptake in plants

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106
Q

Which of the following molecules is assimilated by plants in the nitrogen cycle after being fixed by nitrifying bacteria?
A. Diatomic nitrogen
B. Ammonia
C. Ammonium
D. Nitrate
E. Nitrite

A

D. Nitrate

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107
Q

Blue-green alga is an example of which of the following?
A. Virus
B. Cyanobacteria
C. Plant
D. Protist
E. Archaea

A

B. Cyanobacteria

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108
Q

Students on a biology field trip notice a lake has a greenish hue. Which of the following bacteria could be responsible for this?
A. Brown algae
B. Rhodophyta
C. Dinoflagellates
D. Cyanobacteria
E. E.Coli

A

. Cyanobacteria

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109
Q

Which of the following are bacteria that contains light-capturing pigments known as phycobilins?
A. Red algae
B. Blue-green algae
C. Brown algae
D. Green algae
E. Salmonella

A

B. Blue-green algae

110
Q

If heterocyst cells in a group of cyanobacteria become dysfunctional, then which of the following could be a consequence of this?
A. Cyanobacteria would not be able to undergo photosynthesis
B. Nitrogen gas would not be fixed into ammonia to make amino acids by the bacteria
C. Nitrogen fixation will increase in cyanobacteria to produce amino acids
D. Cyanobacteria will undergo photosynthesis at a faster rate
E. Cell checkpoints will be bypassed

A

B. Nitrogen gas would not be fixed into ammonia to make amino acids by the bacteria

111
Q

Which of the following defines blue-green algae?
A. Photoautotroph
B. Chemoautotroph
C. Saprophyte
D. Parasite
E. Detritivore

A

A. Photoautotroph

112
Q

Which of the following is true concerning cyanobacteria?
A. Cyanobacteria is not usually found in aquatic regions
B. Cyanobacteria uses chlorophyll for photosynthesis
C. Cyanobacteria are in the Archaea domain
D. Cyanobacteria do not have cell walls
E. Cyanobacteria sexually reproduce

A

B. Cyanobacteria uses chlorophyll for photosynthesis

113
Q

Which of the following genetic recombination processes is also known as horizontal gene transfer between two bacterial cells?
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Crossing over
E. Binary fission

A

A. Conjugation

114
Q

Which of the following is the purpose of plasmid transfer between bacterial cells?
A. Trigger apoptosis in weaker bacterial cells
B. Trigger meiosis in stronger bacterial cells
C. Increase the survivability of bacterial cells
D. Increase the thickness of bacterial cell walls
E. Increase the pilus size in bacteria

A

C. Increase the survivability of bacterial cells

115
Q

Which of the following bacterial structures aids in transferring plasmids during bacterial conjugation?
A. Flagella
B. Pili
C. Cilia
D. Tubulin
E. Actin

A

B. Pili

116
Q

A bacterial cell takes up a plasmid from its external environment. Which of the following genetic recombination processes describes this phenomenon?
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Binary fission
E. Synapsis

A

B. Transformation

117
Q

Which of the following creates pores in bacterial cell walls to enable plasmid uptake?
A. Heat shock
B. Gel electrophoresis
C. Ice bath
D. Filtration
E. Dehydration

A

A. Heat shock

118
Q

A virus injects its own genome into a bacterial cell. This is an example of which of the following genetic recombination processes?
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. Synapsis
E. Cytokinesis

A

B. Transduction

119
Q

Which of the following is true concerning viruses?
A. Viruses are unable to mutate
B. Viruses have metabolisms
C. Viruses have different organelles than bacteria
D. Viruses are nonliving
E. Viruses are independent of their hosts

A

D. Viruses are nonliving

120
Q

Which of the following is true concerning viruses?
A. All viruses belong in the eukarya domain
B. All viruses belong in the archaea domain
C. All viruses belong in the bacteria domain
D. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA in their nucleoids
E. Viruses rely on their independent metabolism to survive

A

D. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA in their nucleoids

121
Q

Inoviridae, a bacteriophage, are __________.
A. Eukaryotes that infect bacteria
B. Bacteria that infect viruses
C. Bacteria that infect protists
D. Viruses that infect bacteria
E. Eukaryotes that infect fungi

A

D. Viruses that infect bacteria

122
Q

Microbiologists inhibit the protein that encloses genetic information of viruses. Which of the following proteins was inhibited?
A. Capsid
B. Tubulin
C. Flagella
D. Cilia
E. Pili

A

A. Capsid

123
Q

Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that converts __________.
A. DNA to RNA
B. DNA to protein
C. RNA to DNA
D. Protein to RNA
E. Protein to DNA

A

C. RNA to DNA

124
Q

HIV, a retrovirus, contains __________.
A. RNA polymerase
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. Double-stranded DNA
D. Golgi apparatus
E. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

B. Reverse transcriptase

125
Q

Which of the following terms defines when a virus erupts from an infected cell membrane?
A. Krebs Cycle
B. Calvin Cycle
C. Lytic Cycle
D. Lysogenic Cycle
E. Metabolism

A

C. Lytic Cycle

126
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the lysogenic cycle in viruses?
A. Allows for sexual reproduction
B. Allows for infected cell lysis
C. Allows for the integration of viral DNA in the host
D. Allows for viral RNA crossing over
E. Allows for ciliary beating

A

C. Allows for the integration of viral DNA in the host

127
Q

Domain Eukarya contains all the following kingdoms EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Fungi
B. Plantae
C. Protozoa
D. Monera
E. Animalia

A

D. Monera

128
Q

A microbiologist wants to study protists. Which of the following environments should she go to?
A. A moist environment
B. A dry environment
C. A cold environment
D. A warm environment
E. An anaerobic environment

A

A moist environment

129
Q

Which of the following is a difference between plants and plant-like protists?
A. Plants have chlorophyll while plant-like protists do not
B. Plants have a vascular system while plant-like protists do not
C. Plants have eukaryotic cells while plant-like protists have prokaryotic cells
D. Plants are autotrophs while plant-like protists are heterotrophs
E. Plants do not have organelles while plant-like protists do

A

B. Plants have a vascular system while plant-like protists do not

130
Q

Dinoflagellates, a plant-like protist, belong to which of the following levels of the food chain?
A. Detritivores
B. Secondary consumers
C. Primary producers
D. Primary consumers
E. Tertiary consumers

A

C. Primary producers

131
Q

Euglenoids, a plant-like protist, are classified as __________.
A. Chemoautotrophs
B. Photoautotrophs
C. Saprophytes
D. Parasites
E. Detritivores

A

B. Photoautotrophs

132
Q

Dinoflagellates are unique plant-like protists because they have __________.
A. One linear flagellum
B. Two parallel flagella
C. Two perpendicular flagella
D. Four parallel flagella
E. Four perpendicular flagella

A

C. Two perpendicular flagella

133
Q

Which of the following protists can cause red tide, a red hue to ocean water?
A. Chlorophyta
B. Brown algae
C. Euglenoids
D. Seaweed
E. Dinoflagellates

A

E. Dinoflagellates

134
Q

Why are Dinoflagellates considered both autotrophic and heterotrophic?
A. Dinoflagellates are saprophytic and chemosynthetic
B. Dinoflagellates are saprophytic and photosynthetic
C. Dinoflagellates are parasitic and chemosynthetic
D. Dinoflagellates are parasitic and photosynthetic
E. Dinoflagellates are parasitic and autotrophic

A

D. Dinoflagellates are parasitic and photosynthetic

135
Q

Scientists would like to study Euglenoids. Which of the following environments will the researchers find this organism in?
A. Saltwater
B. Freshwater
C. Moist rocks
D. Dry rocks
E. Dryland

A

B. Freshwater

136
Q

A student observes through her microscope an organism that has muscle-like striations instead of a cell wall. Which of the following organisms was the student observing?
A. Rhodophyta
B. Chlorophyta
C. Brown algae
D. Euglenoids
E. Green algae

A

D. Euglenoids

137
Q

Which of the following wraps over the cell membranes of Euglenoids?
A. Lipid
B. Nucleic acid
C. Protein
D. Carbohydrate
E. Fatty acids

A

C. Protein

138
Q

A researcher notices a protist she collected from an aquatic environment has a cell wall that contains silica. Which of the following organisms have these researchers found?
A. Diatoms
B. Brown Algae
C. Rhodophyta
D. Chlorophyta
E. Blue-green algae

A

A. Diatoms

139
Q

Diatoms are classified based on their __________.
A. Size
B. Weight
C. Color
D. Shape
E. Breeding patterns

A

D. Shape

140
Q

Diatoms are __________.
A. Protozoa
B. Plant-like protists
C. Animal-like protists
D. Slime molds
E. Fungus-like molds

A

B. Plant-like protists

141
Q

Which of the following algae are kelp and giant seaweed classified under?
A. Red algae
B. Green algae
C. Blue-green algae
D. Brown algae
E. Golden algae

A

D. Brown algae

142
Q

Which of the following protists do not have flagella?
A. Euglenoids
B. Dinoflagellates
C. Brown algae
D. Rhodophyta
E. Astrosiga

A

D. Rhodophyta [

143
Q

Which of the following organisms displays red pigments in nature?
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Brown algae
C. Rhodophyta
D. Chlorophyta
E. Blue-green algae

A

C. Rhodophyta

144
Q

Some Chlorophyta species have gametes that the sperm and the egg differ in size. Which of the following describes this form of sexual reproduction?
A. Polygamy
B. Isogamy
C. Anisogamy
D. Oogamy
E. Parthenogenesis

A

C. Anisogamy

145
Q

Animal-like protists are defined as _________.
A. Photoautotrophs
B. Chemoautotrophs
C. Heterotrophs
D. Decomposers
E. Detritivores

A

C. Heterotrophs

146
Q

A biologist is observing the movement of paramecium and amoeboid organisms. What will the biologist observe?
A. The paramecium organisms will use their cilia to move while the amoeboid organisms will use their cytoplasm to move
B. The paramecium and amoeboid organisms will both use their cytoplasm to move
C. The paramecium and amoeboid organisms will both use their cilia to move
D. The paramecium organisms will use their cytoplasm to move while the amoeboid organisms will use their cilia to move
E. The paramecium organisms will reproduce using asexual reproduction while the amoeboid organism will use conjugation to reproduce

A

The paramecium organisms will use their cilia to move while the amoeboid organisms will use their cytoplasm to move

147
Q

Which of the following is known as the parasites of animals?
A. Foraminifera
B. Apicomplexans
C. Ferns
D. Rhizopoda
E. Red algae

A

B. Apicomplexans

148
Q

Which of the following calcium carbonate tested eukaryotes is found on the bottom or near the surface of the sea?
A. Dinoflagellates
B. Apicomplexans
C. Foraminifera
D. Diatoms
E. Green algae

A

C. Foraminifera

149
Q

Which of the following animals is classified in the phylum Nematoda?
A. Rotifers
B. Hookworms
C. Flatworms
D. Tapeworms
E. Earthworms

A

B. Hookworms

150
Q

A zoologist is observing an animal that exhibits one-way digestion. Which of the following animals could the zoologist be observing?
A. Sponges
B. Hydra
C. Flukes
D. Flatworms
E. Trichina

A

E. Trichina

151
Q

Nematodes can be described to reproduce in all the following ways EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Syngamy
B. Hermaphroditism
C. Parthenogenesis
D. Binary fission
E. Dioecious

A

D. Binary fission

152
Q

Which of the following phyla have an exoskeleton cuticle that can be shed in a process called ecdysis?
A. Porifera
B. Cnidaria
C. Platyhelminthes
D. Nematoda
E. Rotifers

A

D. Nematoda

153
Q

Phylum Nematoda has all the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Gastrovascular cavity
B. Bilateral with cephalization
C. Triploblastic
D. Pseudocoelomate
E. Protostome

A

A. Gastrovascular cavity

154
Q

C. elegans is a type of nematode that has an exoskeleton cuticle. Which of the following describes the purpose of the exoskeleton cuticle?
A. Acts as a chemical barrier to the outside environment
B. Acts as a physical barrier to the outside environment
C. Acts as a chemical and physical barrier to the outside environment
D. Acts as a mode of reproduction
E. Acts as a mode of transportation

A

Acts as a chemical and physical barrier to the outside environment

155
Q

Rotifers are microscopic animals that are __________.
A. Radical
B. Asymmetrical
C. Coelomates
D. Triploblastic
E. Diploblastic

A

D. Triploblastic

156
Q

Rotifers are classified as __________.
A. Diploblastic
B. Monoblastic
C. Coelomates
D. Pseudocoelomates
E. Radical

A

D. Pseudocoelomates

157
Q

Which of the following best describes the nervous system of rotifers?
A. Nerve net
B. Nerve ring with radial nerves
C. Cephalization with a small anterior brain
D. Cephalization with a small posterior brain
E. Central and peripheral nervous system

A

C. Cephalization with a small anterior brain

158
Q

Which of the following is true concerning rotifers?
A. Food is consumed and digested from the same opening
B. Contain a one-way digestion tract
C. Are diploblastic
D. Are radially symmetric
E. Are coelomates

A

B. Contain a one-way digestion tract

159
Q

Which of the following is the special structure that rotifers have that sweeps food into rotifers’ mouths?
A. Cuticles
B. Corona
C. Cilia
D. Chaetae
E. Central disks

A

B. Corona

160
Q

A group of rotifers suddenly cannot undergo osmoregulation. Which of the following cells is most likely dysfunctional?
A. Nematocysts
B. Choanocytes
C. Flame cells
D. Water cells
E. Goblet cells

A

C. Flame cells

161
Q

Which of the following worms are the most structurally advanced?
A. Roundworms
B. Flatworms
C. Earthworms
D. Tapeworms
E. Hookworms

A

. Earthworms

162
Q

A class is observing different worms. The teacher asks the students to identify a worm that is in the phylum Annelida. Which of the following worms could the students identify as part of the Annelida phylum?
A. Flatworms
B. Tapeworms
C. Hookworms
D. Roundworms
E. Leeches

A

E. Leeches

163
Q

Which of the following structures forms first from the blastopore in annelids?
A. Anus
B. Mouth
C. Brain
D. Digestive system
E. Circulatory system

A

B. Mouth

164
Q

Which of the following phyla are classified as coelomates?
A. Porifera
B. Annelida
C. Cnidaria
D. Platyhelminthes
E. Rotifers

A

B. Annelida

165
Q

Which of the following is true concerning annelids?
A. Classified as pseudocoelomates
B. Classified as diploblastic
C. Classified to have a one-way digestive system
D. Classified to have a nerve net
E. Classified to have a peripheral nervous system

A

C. Classified to have a one-way digestive system

166
Q

Annelids have __________.
A. Anterior ganglia
B. Two-way digestion
C. Nerve nets
D. Two nerve cords
E. No segmentation

A

A. Anterior ganglia

167
Q

Which of the following describes the circulatory system of leeches and earthworms?
A. An open circulatory system with diffusion
B. An open circulatory system with hemolymph
C. An open circulatory system with pairs of aortic arches and distinct arteries and veins
D. A closed circulatory system with hemolymph
E. A closed circulatory system with pairs of aortic arches and distinct arteries and veins

A

E. A closed circulatory system with pairs of aortic arches and distinct arteries and veins

168
Q

Which of the following phyla has a closed circulatory system?
A. Annelida
B. Arthropoda
C. Echinodermata
D. Rotifera
E. Nematoda

A

A. Annelida

169
Q

A zoologist is observing worms and notices a worm with a segmented body. Which of the following segmented worms could the researcher be observing?
A. Roundworms
B. Hookworms
C. Earthworms
D. Tapeworms
E. Flatworms

A

C. Earthworms

170
Q

Which of the following describes the excretory system in annelids?
A. Metanephridia; glands for excretion and osmoregulation that work in tandem with blood vessels
B. Protonephridia; glands for excretion and osmoregulation that work in tandem with blood vessels
C. Metanephridia; a network of dead-end tubules lacking internal openings
D. Protonephridia; a network of dead-end tubules lacking internal openings
E. Metanephridia; glands for excretion and osmoregulation that work in tandem with hemolymph

A

. Metanephridia; glands for excretion and osmoregulation that work in tandem with blood vessels [

171
Q

After observing a group of annelids, a zoologist notices that the chaetae of these annelids are dysfunctional. Which of the following is a possible consequence?
A. Dysfunctional digestive system
B. Dysfunctional circulatory system
C. Dysfunctional nervous system
D. Dysfunctional locomotion
E. Dysfunctional respiratory system

A

D. Dysfunctional locomotion

172
Q

Animals in the classes Oligochaetes and Polychaetes belong to which of the following phyla?
A. Molluska
B. Rotifera
C. Annelids
D. Chordata
E. Echinodermata

A

C. Annelids

173
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the Mollusca phylum?
A. Vertebrate animals
B. Found in both aquatic and terrestrial environments
C. Do not contain a radula
D. Include lobster species
E. Are pseudocoelomates

A

B. Found in both aquatic and terrestrial environments

174
Q

The phylum Mollusca contains all the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Octopus
B. Slugs
C. Hydra
D. Squids
E. Clams

A

C. Hydra

175
Q

Which of the following is the name of the specialized excretory glands just for some mollusks?
A. Organ of Corti
B. Organ of Bojanus
C. Organ of Zuckerkandl
D. Radula
E. Appendix

A

B. Organ of Bojanus

176
Q

Which of the following describes the circulatory system of mollusks?
A. Open circulatory system
B. Closed circulatory system
C. Simple diffusion
D. Both open and closed circulatory systems are found
E. Pulmonary circulation

A

D. Both open and closed circulatory systems are found

177
Q

A zoologist is observing an animal that has respiratory gills. Which of the following phyla could this animal belong to?
A. Echinodermata
B. Cnidaria
C. Mollusca
D. Nematoda
E. Annelida

A

C. Mollusca

178
Q

Which of the following mollusks have cephalization with a closed circulatory system?
A. Snails
B. Clams
C. Slugs
D. Octopi
E. Oysters

A

. Octopi

179
Q

Which of the following mollusks demonstrates torsion during the larval stage?
A. Cephalopods
B. Gastropods
C. Bivalves
D. Cephalopods and Gastropods
E. Bivalves and Gastropods

A

B. Gastropods

180
Q

Which of the following phyla in kingdom Animalia is the largest?
A. Chordata
B. Echinodermata
C. Arthropoda
D. Annelida
E. Mollusca

A

C. Arthropoda

181
Q

The blastospores for a group of insects are dysfunctional in the embryonic phase. Which of the following structures will not be formed correctly?
A. Anus
B. Mouth
C. Brain
D. Spinal Cord
E. Colon

A

B. Mouth

182
Q

Which of the following nitrogenous wastes would a scientist observe an arthropod excrete?
A. Ammonia
B. Ammonium
C. Urea
D. Uric Acid
E. Creatine

A

D. Uric Acid

183
Q

Which of the following describes how arthropods excrete waste?
A. Malpighian Tubules
B. Diffusion
C. Nephridia
D. One-way excretion
E. Two-way excretion

A

A. Malpighian Tubules [

184
Q

Which of the following is the correct circulatory system of an ant?
A. An open circulatory system with blood
B. An open circulatory system with lymph
C. An open circulatory system with hemolymph
D. A closed circulatory system with blood
E. A closed circulatory system with hemolymph

A

C. An open circulatory system with hemolymph

185
Q

Which of the following phylum has the same type of carbohydrate in their exoskeleton as fungi have in their cell walls?
A. Annelida
B. Mollusca
C. Chordata
D. Arthropoda
E. Nematoda

A

D. Arthropoda

186
Q

Which of the following phyla has the anus formed first from their blastopore in embryonic development?
A. Porifera and Annelida
B. Echinodermata and Chordata
C. Echinodermata and Arthropoda
D. Annelida and Chordata
E. Arthropoda and Annelida

A

B. Echinodermata and Chordata

187
Q

A scientist is observing an animal that displays bilateral symmetry as larvae and radial symmetry as adults. Which of the following phyla could this animal belong to?
A. Chordata
B. Echinodermata
C. Arthropoda
D. Annelida
E. Porifera

A

B. Echinodermata

188
Q

Which of the following describes the nervous system of starfishes?
A. Nerve net
B. Nerve ring
C. Cephalization
D. Ventral nerve cords
E. Posterior nerve cords

A

B. Nerve ring

189
Q

Which phyla contains a unique water vascular system that is used for movement, digestion, and respiration?
A. Porifera
B. Platyhelminthes
C. Cnidaria
D. Rotifers
E. Echinodermata

A

Echinodermata

190
Q

The phylum Chordata includes all the following classes EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Mammals
B. Reptiles
C. Birds
D. Fish
E. Insects

A

E. Insects

191
Q

Which of the following is used by mollusks for locomotion and anchoring?
A. Radula
B. Spiracles
C. Visceral mass
D. Foot
E. Mantle

A

D. Foot

192
Q

Which of the following describes all the organs found in Mollusca?
A. Digestive system
B. Visceral mass
C. Hemocoel
D. Mantle
E. Radula

A

B. Visceral mass

193
Q

Which of the following body parts of a mollusk is a tongue-like organ with teeth projections?
A. Spiracles
B. Goblet cells
C. Radula
D. Book lungs
E. Mantle

A

C. Radula

194
Q

The outer layer of mollusks is made up of the __________.
A. Foot
B. Mantle
C. Spiracles
D. Radula
E. Carbohydrates

A

B. Mantle

195
Q

Gastropods and bivalves have __________.
A. Cephalization
B. Closed circulatory systems
C. Open circulatory systems
D. No digestive system
E. No feet for movement

A

Open circulatory systems

196
Q

Which of the following best describes cephalization?
A. Development of a digestive system
B. Development influenced by use and disuse theory
C. Development of sensory and neural organs in a certain head location
D. Development of a hardened outer shell
E. Development of a skeleton

A

Development of sensory and neural organs in a certain head location

197
Q

Which of the following is the correct respiratory system for insects?
A. Book lungs
B. Book gills
C. Lungs
D. Tracheal tubes and spiracles
E. Diffusion through skin

A

D. Tracheal tubes and spiracles

198
Q

Arachnids respire via __________.
A. Book gills
B. Book lungs
C. Spiracles
D. Tracheal tubes
E. Diffusion through the skin

A

B. Book lungs

199
Q

Crustaceans breathe through __________.
A. Ostia
B. Book lungs
C. Book gills
D. Tracheal tubes
E. Spiracles

A

C. Book gills

200
Q

Arthropods are born as a(n) __________.
A. Nymph or larva
B. Fetus or nymph
C. Hard-shelled egg or larva
D. Hard-shelled egg or fetus
E. Hard-shelled egg or nymph

A

A. Nymph or larva

201
Q

Which of the following best describes a nymph in context to insects?
A. Mature female insect
B. Mature male insect
C. Sexually mature adult form
D. Sexually mature adult-like form
E. Sexually immature adult-like form

A

E. Sexually immature adult-like form

202
Q

Which of the following is true concerning phyla?
A. The phylum Chordata contains vertebrates that outnumber invertebrates
B. Humans are found in the phylum Chordata and outnumber any other species
C. Arachnids in the phylum Arthropoda contains the largest number of species
D. Insects in the phylum Arthropoda contain the largest number of species
E. The phylum Annelida contains the most species

A

D. Insects in the phylum Arthropoda contain the largest number of species [

203
Q

Which of the following organisms belong in the class Insecta?
A. Lobsters
B. Spiders
C. Dragonfly
D. Scorpions
E. Ticks

A

C. Dragonfly

204
Q

Which of the following organisms belong in the class Crustaceans?
A. Ants
B. Dragonflies
C. Lobsters
D. Spiders
E. Mites

A

C. Lobsters

205
Q

Class Arachnids include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Spiders
B. Scorpions
C. Mites
D. Mosquitos
E. Ticks

A

D. Mosquitos

206
Q

Which of the following is true concerning starfish?
A. Belong in the Chordata phylum
B. Have open circulatory systems
C. Reproduce only through sexual reproduction
D. Have bilateral symmetry at adulthood
E. Are marine vertebrates

A

B. Have open circulatory systems

207
Q

The following features are found in the phylum Chordata EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Triploblastic
B. Blastopore-derived mouth
C. Bilateral symmetry
D. One-way digestion
E. Closed circulatory system

A

B. Blastopore-derived mouth

208
Q

All chordates within Kingdom Animalia have all of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Post-anal tail
B. Dorsal hollow nerve cord
C. Notochord
D. Vertebrae
E. Pharyngeal slits

A

D. Vertebrae

209
Q

Which of the following structures in embryonic development becomes the vertebral column in vertebrate organisms?
A. Pharyngeal slits
B. Dorsal hollow nerve cord
C. Blastopore
D. Post-anal tail
E. Notochord

A

E. Notochord

210
Q

Which of the following organisms develop as a nymph before becoming an adult?
A. Humans
B. Crickets
C. Butterflies
D. Moths
E. Birds

A

Crickets

211
Q

Which of the following organisms develop in larvae before becoming adults?
A. Cricket
B. Grasshoppers
C. Birds
D. Butterflies
E. Humans

A

D. Butterflies

212
Q

Which of the following, when malformed, causes a dysfunctional central nervous system in humans?
A. Dorsal Hollow Nerve Cord
B. Pharyngeal slits
C. Blastopore
D. Post-anal tail
E. Notochord

A

A. Dorsal Hollow Nerve Cord

213
Q

Which of the following structures form from the pharyngeal slits in humans?
A. Jaw and skull
B. Jaw and trachea
C. Jaw and inner ear
D. Trachea and skull
E. Trachea and nasal canal

A

. Jaw and inner ear

214
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the post-anal tail?
A. Absent in frogs
B. Absent in fish
C. Absent in humans after embryonic development
D. Forms into the anus in humans
E. Prevents locomotion in aquatic organisms

A

Absent in humans after embryonic development

215
Q

Chordates have all of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Pharyngeal slits
B. Radula
C. Post-anal tail
D. Notochord
E. Dorsal Hollow Nerve Cord

A

B. Radula

216
Q

Animals in the phylum Chordata can be divided into two groups, invertebrates and vertebrates. Which of the following distinguishes invertebrates from vertebrates?
A. Vertebrates have spinal cords
B. Invertebrates have spinal cords
C. Vertebrates have spinal cords enclosed in the vertebrae
D. Invertebrates have spinal cord enclosed in the vertebra
E. Vertebrates have the combination of a brain and spinal cord

A

Vertebrates have spinal cords enclosed in the vertebrae

217
Q

Which of the following chordates are classified as invertebrates?
A. Jawless fish
B. Amphibians
C. Reptiles
D. Tunicates
E. Monotremes

A

D. Tunicates

218
Q

A marine biologist is observing a chordate and noticed that the animal has a carbohydrate tunic surrounding the body of the animal. Which of the following animals could the marine biologist be observing?
A. Cephalochordata
B. Urochordata
C. Bony fish
D. Chondrocytes
E. Agnatha

A

B. Urochordata

219
Q

Which of the following structures do only adult tunicates have?
A. Dorsal hollow nerve cord
B. Post-anal tail
C. Vertebrae
D. Notochord
E. Pharyngeal slits

A

E. Pharyngeal slits

220
Q

A marine biologist is observing an animal that lives in benthic habitats and is sessile suspension feeders. Which of the following animals could the marine biologist be observing?
A. Osteichthyes
B. Chondrichthyes
C. Jawless fish
D. Lancelets
E. Tunicates

A

E. Tunicates

221
Q

Which of the following is one difference between lancelets and tunicates?
A. Lancelets have vertebrae while tunicates do not have a vertebrae
B. Tunicates have pharyngeal slits used for filter-feeding while lancelets do not have pharyngeal slits
C. Lancelets have pharyngeal slits used for filter-feeding while tunicates do not have pharyngeal slits
D. Lancelets have a notochord in adulthood while tunicates do not have a notochord in adulthood
E. Tunicates have a notochord in adulthood while lancelets do not have a notochord in adulthood

A

D. Lancelets have a notochord in adulthood while tunicates do not have a notochord in adulthood

222
Q

Which of the following makes up vertebrates?
A. Bone and fat
B. Bone and muscle
C. Bone and cartilage
D. Cartilage and fat
E. Cartilage and muscle

A

. Bone and cartilage

223
Q

Which of the following methods of producing offspring do humans exhibit?
A. Viviparous
B. Oviparous
C. Ovoviviparous
D. Marsupial like
E. R selected species

A

Viviparous

224
Q

An animal whose young hatches as an egg outside the mother’s body is known a(n) __________.
A. Oviparous species
B. Ovoviviparous species
C. Viviparous species
D. R-selected species
E. K-selected species

A

A. Oviparous species

225
Q

An animal whose young hatches from eggs inside the mother’s body is known as a(n) __________.
A. Ovoviviparous species
B. Viviparous species
C. Oviparous species
D. Marsupial
E. K-selected species

A

A. Ovoviviparous species

226
Q

Which of the following organisms have two-chambered hearts?
A. Crocodiles
B. Alligators
C. Humans
D. Birds
E. Fish

A

E. Fish

227
Q

Which organisms have three-chambered hearts?
A. Fish and birds
B. Fish and crocodiles
C. Octopi and frogs
D. Octopi and fish
E. Humans and monkeys

A

C. Octopi and frogs

228
Q

Which of the following organisms, along with humans, have four-chambered hearts?
A. Reptiles
B. Fish
C. Birds
D. Snails
E. Spiders

A

C. Birds

229
Q

Which of the following best describes how three-chambered and four-chambered hearts differ in mammals?
A. Three-chambered hearts have one atrium while four-chambered hearts have two atria
B. Three-chambered hearts have two ventricles while four-chambered hearts have one
C. Three-chambered hearts do not mix oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood while four-chambered hearts do
D. Four-chambered hearts do not mix oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood while three-chambered hearts do
E. Four-chambered hearts have oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood while three-chambered hearts only have oxygen-poor blood

A

Four-chambered hearts do not mix oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood while three-chambered hearts do

230
Q

Which of the following best describes the circulatory system in fish?
A. One-chambered heart with a mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
B. One-chambered heart with only oxygenated blood
C. Two-chambered heart with one atrium and one ventricle which both receive deoxygenated blood
D. Three-chambered heart with one atrium and two ventricles with no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
E. Three-chambered heart with two atria and one ventricle with the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

A

Two-chambered heart with one atrium and one ventricle which both receive deoxygenated blood

231
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of plant cells?
A. Eukaryotic, multicellular
B. Eukaryotic, unicellular
C. Prokaryotic, multicellular
D. Prokaryotic, unicellular
E. Eukaryotic, parasitic

A

A. Eukaryotic, multicellular

232
Q

Which of the following best defines how plants obtain energy?
A. Chemoautotrophs
B. Photoautotrophs
C. Parasites
D. Saprobes
E. Methanogens

A

B. Photoautotrophs

233
Q

Which of the following carbohydrates are found in the cell wall of plants?
A. Chitin
B. Amylose
C. Starch
D. Cellulose
E. Peptidoglycan

A

Cellulose

234
Q

Cellulose monomers are bound together via __________.
A. Alpha linkages
B. Beta linkages
C. Peptide bonds
D. Ester bonds
E. Ionic bonds

A

B. Beta linkages

235
Q

Which of the following do plants tend to have a mutualistic relationship with?
A. Eukaryotes and fung
B. Eukaryotes and parasites
C. Fungi and parasites
D. Fungi and bacteria
E. Bacteria and parasites

A

D. Fungi and bacteria

236
Q

Around 90% of plants in nature live with another partner. Which of the following symbiotic relationships do most plants exhibit with these other partners?
A. Mutualism
B. Commensalism
C. Predation
D. Parasitism
E. Competition

A

A. Mutualism

237
Q

Which of the following describes the life cycle of plants?
A. R selected
B. K selected
C. Alternation of generations
D. Polymorphism
E. Meiosis

A

C. Alternation of generations

238
Q

Which of the following best describes an alternation of generation life cycle?
A. Each subsequent generation goes from having seeds to not having seeds
B. Each subsequent generation goes from being a haploid to a diploid state and vice versa
C. Each subsequent generation undergoes mutation
D. Each subsequent generation lies dormant until a specific season
E. Each subsequent generation after the parental generation remains diploid

A

B. Each subsequent generation goes from being a haploid to a diploid state and vice versa

239
Q

Which stage in the alternation of generations is the haploid state?
A. Bryophyte
B. Sporophyte
C. Tracheophyte
D. Gametophyte
E. Hydrophyte

A

D. Gametophyte

240
Q

Which stage in the alternation of generations is the diploid state?
A. Tracheophyte
B. Gametophyte
C. Hydrophyte
D. Bryophyte
E. Sporophyte

A

E. Sporophyte

241
Q

Which of the following processes do sporophytes undergo when they release spores in the alternation of generations?
A. Fragmentation
B. Budding
C. Binary Fission
D. Mitosis
E. Meiosis

A

E. Meiosis

242
Q

A plant has a mutation such that it cannot go from a diploid to a haploid state. Which of the following sequences in the alternation of generations is dysfunctional?
A. Zygote to sporophyte
B. Spores to gametophytes
C. Sporophyte to spores
D. Gametophyte to spores
E. Gametes to zygote

A

Sporophyte to spores

243
Q

Which of the following statements are true during a plant’s alteration of the generation life cycle?
A. Diploid spores go through meiosis division to enter the sporophyte stage
B. Diploid spores go through mitotic division to enter the sporophyte stage
C. Diploid spores go through mitotic division to enter the gametophyte stage
D. Haploid spores go through mitotic division to enter the gametophyte stage
E. Haploid spores go through meiotic division to enter the gametophyte stage

A

D. Haploid spores go through mitotic division to enter the gametophyte stage

244
Q

A plant has a mutation that inhibits gamete fusion. Which of the following could be a direct consequence of this mutation?
A. The plant will undergo meiosis so the plant can be haploid
B. The plant cannot undergo mitosis so the plant can be haploid
C. The plant will have more genetic variation
D. The plant will not form a diploid zygote
E. The plant will not form a haploid zygote

A

D. The plant will not form a diploid zygote

245
Q

In the alternation of generations, the mitotic process enables a __________.
A. Haploid zygote to enter the gametophyte stage
B. Haploid zygote to enter the sporophyte stage
C. Diploid spores to enter the gametophyte stage
D. Diploid zygote to enter the sporophyte stage
E. Diploid zygote to enter the gametophyte stage

A

D. Diploid zygote to enter the sporophyte stage

246
Q

Botanists classify plants in the following ways EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Whether plants spend more time in the gametophyte or sporophyte stage
B. Whether plants have a vascular system or not
C. Whether a plant produces seeds or not
D. Whether a plant undergoes photosynthesis or not
E. Whether a plant produces flowers or not

A

D. Whether a plant undergoes photosynthesis or not

247
Q

Laminaria is algae with no body differentiation. Which of the following groups does laminaria belong to?
A. Thallophytes
B. Bryophytes
C. Tracheophytes
D. Angiosperms
E. Gymnosperms

A

A. Thallophytes

248
Q

Cladophora is an example of a genus of plants that belongs to a group that contains the simplest form of a plant. Which of the following groups does the Cladophora genus belong to?
A. Angiosperm
B. Thallophyte
C. Gymnosperm
D. Bryophyte
E. Tracheophyte

A

B. Thallophyte

249
Q

Thallophytes include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Algae
B. Protists
C. Plants
D. Bacteria
E. Viruses

A

Viruses

250
Q

Suppose the rhizoids on a bryophyte plant were damaged. Which of the following is a direct consequence of this damage?
A. The plant will not be able to absorb water
B. The plant will not be able to grow vertically
C. The plant will not be able to produce chlorophyll for photosynthesis
D. The plant’s phloem will not be able to transport sugar
E. The plant’s xylem will not be able to transport water

A

The plant will not be able to absorb water

251
Q

A botany class wants to study bryophytes. Which of the following environments should the class go to study these plants?
A. Seawater
B. Oxygen deficit regions
C. Water deficit regions
D. Creeks
E. Caves

A

D. Creeks

252
Q

A young botanist was observing mosses and liverworts. After her observation, which of the following groups should the botanist classify mosses and liverworts as?
A. Thallophytes
B. Bryophytes
C. Angiosperms
D. Gymnosperms
E. Tracheophytes

A

B. Bryophytes

253
Q

Suppose a botanist discovers a new plant that is dominant in the gametophyte stage, has body differentiation, and does not grow vertically. Which of the following groups should this new plant be classified as?
A. Angiosperms
B. Gymnosperms
C. Bryophytes
D. Tracheophytes
E. Thallophyte

A

C. Bryophytes

254
Q

On a biology class field trip, a student asks his teacher why bryophyte plants do not grow vertically, while tracheophyte plants do. Which of the following would be a correct response the teacher can tell the student?
A. Bryophytes absorb soil better than tracheophytes so bryophytes stay closer to the ground
B. Tracheophytes absorb soil better than bryophytes, thus causing tracheophytes to grow vertically
C. Tracheophytes have a vascular system that can transport substances from the roots to the leaves, while bryophytes do not have a vascular system
D. Bryophytes have a vascular system that can transport substances from the roots to the leaves, while tracheophytes do not have a vascular system
E. Tracheophytes have a longer vascular system than bryophytes, thus explaining why tracheophytes grow more vertically than bryophytes

A

Tracheophytes have a vascular system that can transport substances from the roots to the leaves, while bryophytes do not have a vascular system

255
Q

Suppose a plant’s xylem is damaged. Which of the following is a direct consequence of this?
A. The plant will not be able to transport carbohydrates from its leaves to its roots
B. The plant will not be able to transport water from its leaves
C. The plant will not be able to transport water from its roots
D. The plant will not be able to consume carbohydrates produced from photosynthesis
E. The plant will not be able to transport carbohydrates from its roots to its leaves

A

. The plant will not be able to transport water from its roots

256
Q

The purpose of a plant’s phloem is to __________.
A. Conduct photosynthesis
B. Conduct binary fission
C. Transport carbohydrates and organic materials
D. Transport water
E. Transport gametes

A

C. Transport carbohydrates and organic materials

257
Q

Horsetails are an example of a tracheophyte. Which of the following stages in the alternation of generations is horsetail’s dominant stage?
A. The diploid, gametophyte stage
B. The haploid, gametophyte stage
C. The haploid, sporophyte stage
D. The diploid, sporophyte stage
E. The diploid, tracheophyte stage

A

. The diploid, sporophyte stage

258
Q

Ferns have all of the following aspects EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Vascular system
B. Produces seeds
C. Dominant sporophyte generation
D. Differentiated body parts
E. Photoautotroph

A

B. Produces seeds

259
Q

How can botanists distinguish between two different types of seed-bearing tracheophytes?
A. Whether the plants produce flowers or not
B. Whether the plants produce seeds or not
C. Whether the plants have vascular systems or not
D. Whether the plant is a chemoautotroph or a photoautotroph
E. Whether the plants have differentiated body parts or not

A

A. Whether the plants produce flowers or not

260
Q

Douglas firs are examples of gymnosperms. The following statements concerning Douglas firs are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Douglas firs are seed-bearing tracheophytesA.
B. Douglas firs produce naked seeds
C. Douglas firs produce flowers
D. Douglas firs are dominantly in the sporophyte stage
E. Douglas firs have a vascular system

A

C. Douglas firs produce flowers

261
Q

Which of the following groups make up most of the plants found in nature?
A. Thallophytes
B. Bryophytes
C. Angiosperms
D. Gymnosperms
E. Plant-like protists

A

C. Angiosperms

262
Q

Buttercups can undergo double fertilization. Which of the following groups of plants can buttercups be classified as?
A. Thallophytes
B. Bryophytes
C. Plant-like protists
D. Gymnosperms
E. Angiosperms

A

E. Angiosperms [

263
Q

A botanist is observing the leaves of a pineapple, a monocot, with a microscope. What kind of veins will the botanist observe on the leaves?
A. Ringed veins
B. Scattered veins
C. Net-like veins
D. Parallel veins
E. Perpendicular veins

A

D. Parallel veins

264
Q

A scientist discovers a new type of plant that has flower parts in multiples of 3. Which of the following plants can this new plant be classified as?
A. Thallophyte
B. Gymnosperm
C. Monocotyledon
D. Dicotyledon
E. Bryophyte

A

C. Monocotyledon

265
Q

If a plant is classified as an angiosperm, then that plant can be divided into which of the following?
A. Monocotyledon and bryophyte
B. Dicotyledon and bryophyte
C. Monocotyledon and tracheophyte
D. Dicotyledon and tracheophyte
E. Monocotyledon and dicotyledon

A

E. Monocotyledon and dicotyledon

266
Q

Which of the following structures describes what a cotyledon is?
A. The first roots to appear from a germinating seed
B. The first flower to appear from a germinating seed
C. The first leaf to appear from a germinating seed
D. The first stem to appear from a germinating seed
E. The first sex organ to appear from a germinating seed

A

C. The first leaf to appear from a germinating seed

267
Q

A plant is trying to undergo double fertilization but cannot access a female egg gamete. Describe what will not directly form because of this?
A. The stamen will not form
B. An endospore will not form
C. An embryo will not form
D. An embryo and endosperm will not form
E. Double fertilization does not need a female egg

A

D. An embryo and endosperm will not form

268
Q

Which of the following best describes the difference between dicots and monocots veins and vascular systems?
A. Dicots: net-like veins and ringed vascular system; Monocots: parallel veins and scattered vascular system
B. Dicots: net-like veins and scattered vascular system; Monocots: parallel veins and ringed vascular system
C. Dicots: parallel veins and ringed vascular system; Monocots: net-like veins and scattered vascular system
D. Dicots: parallel veins and scattered vascular system; Monocots: net-like veins and ringed vascular system
E. Dicots: net-like veins and ringer vascular system; Monocots: perpendicular veins and scattered vascular system

A

A. Dicots: net-like veins and ringed vascular system; Monocots: parallel veins and scattered vascular system

269
Q

How can a student differentiate between monocotyledons and dicotyledons in the embryonic stage?
A. Dicots will have one cotyledon, while monocots will have two cotyledons
B. Monocots will have one cotyledon, while dicots will have two cotyledons
C. Monocots will have cotyledons in multiples of three, while dicots have cotyledons in multiples of four or five
D. Dicots will have cotyledons in multiples of three, while monocots have cotyledons in multiples of four or five
E. Monocots will have one cotyledon, while dicots will have cotyledons in multiples of four or fiveE.

A

B. Monocots will have one cotyledon, while dicots will have two cotyledons

270
Q

The cotyledon of an angiosperm is dysfunctional? Which of the following describes the direct consequence of this dysfunction?
A. The roots of the plant will not form, inhibiting water intake into the plant
B. Nutrients will not be able to be stored to assist with the embryonic development of the plant
C. The flowers of the plant will not appear, inhibiting the housing of the plant’s reproductive organs
D. The stem of the plant will not appear, inhibiting the vascular system of the plant
E. The flowers will change color to be more of a blue hue

A

B. Nutrients will not be able to be stored to assist with the embryonic development of the plant

271
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the plants with flowers and defines the purpose of flowers?
A. Angiosperms, flowers house the plant’s reproductive organs
B. Angiosperms, flowers help absorb water to flow throughout the plant to its roots
C. Gymnosperms, flowers house the plant’s reproductive organs
D. Gymnosperms, flowers help absorb water to flow throughout the plant to its roots
E. Gymnosperms, flowers attract organisms to pollinate the plant so the plant can produce carbohydrates

A

A. Angiosperms, flowers house the plant’s reproductive organs

272
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Conifers are angiosperms that do not bear fruit
B. Conifers are angiosperms that bear fruit
C. Conifers are gymnosperms that have naked seeds
D. Conifers are gymnosperms without naked seeds
E. Conifers can be classified as gymnosperms or angiosperms

A

C. Conifers are gymnosperms that have naked seeds