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AKT > Administration & Statistics > Flashcards

Administration & Statistics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the incidence?

A

Number of new cases within a specific time period (usually 1 year)

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2
Q

What is the prevalence?

A

Proportion of the population with a certain condition at any given time

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3
Q

How can prevalence be calculated?

A

Prevalence = Number of existing cases / total population

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4
Q

What is the standard deviation?

A

Measure of dispersion for a subject data set from the mean

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5
Q

What does a high standard deviation mean?

A

The value is far from the mean of the group

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6
Q

What is the standard error of the mean?

A

How far a sample mean is likely to be from the population mean

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7
Q

How can standard error of the mean be calculated?

A

SD of multiple different data set means

SEM = SD / (square root of sample size)

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8
Q

What is the power of a study?

A

The ability of a study to detect a statistically significant result

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9
Q

How can the power of a study be defined in relation to the hypothesis of the study?

A

Power is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis if it is false

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10
Q

What is the null hypothesis?

A

Theory at start of a study that states there is no difference between current method and new proposed method

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11
Q

What is the alternative hypothesis?

A

Theory at start of a study that states there is a difference between current method and new proposed method

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12
Q

How can the power be calculated?

A

Power = 1 - (probability of a type 2 error)

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13
Q

How can the power of a study be increased?

A

Increasing the sample size or reducing the p value

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14
Q

What is the p value of a study?

A

The probability of getting the results that have been found if the null hypothesis is true

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15
Q

What value is usually ascribed to p?

A

<0.05

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16
Q

What does a p value of 0.05 mean?

A

There is 95% chance that the given results did not occur by chance

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17
Q

What are the names given to the normal distribution curve?

A

Bell curve or Gaussian curve

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18
Q

Where does the normal distribution curve occur?

A

In many natural phenomenon e.g. if you plotted the heights of all the people in a room

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19
Q

What is plotted along the x axis of the normal distribution curve?

A

Z score

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20
Q

What is the z score along x axis of normal distribution curve?

A

The standard deviations from the average

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21
Q

How can the mean, median, and mode be calculated from a normal distribution curve?

A

They are all the same and will occur at the zero line in the centre of the curve

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22
Q

In the normal distribution curve, what percentage of the results will lie within 1 standard deviation of the mean?

A

68%

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23
Q

In the normal distribution curve, what percentage of the results will lie within 2 standard deviations of the mean?

A

95%

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24
Q

In the normal distribution curve, what percentage of the results will lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean?

A

> 99%

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25
Q

How can the normal distribution curve be skewed?

A

Positively or negatively

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26
Q

What does a positively skewed distribution curve look like?

A

More of the data lies on the positive side of the graph, peak is moved to the left with long tail of data to right/positive side

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27
Q

What happens to the averages on a positively skewed distribution curve?

A

The mean > median > mode

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28
Q

What does a negatively skewed distribution curve look like?

A

More of the data lies on the negative side of the graph, peak is moved to the right with long tail of data to left/negative side

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29
Q

What happens to the averages on a negatively skewed distribution curve?

A

The mean < median < mode

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30
Q

What is a type 1 error?

A

Detection of an effect that is not present

i.e. rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true

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31
Q

What is a type 2 error?

A

Failing to detect an effect that is present

i.e. not rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false

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32
Q

What does lead time bias apply to mostly?

A

Screening tests

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33
Q

What is the term for overestimation of survival due to earlier detection of a disease by screening than by clinical presentation?

A

Lead time bias

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34
Q

What is the term for overestimation of survival due to relative excess of cases detected that are progressing slowly?

A

Length time bias

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35
Q

What is the name of the effect whereby subjects of a study alter their behaviour due to awareness that they are being observed?

A

Hawthorne effect

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36
Q

How does sampling bias occur?

A

Not selecting a truly random sample which is representative of the larger population

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37
Q

What is recall bias?

A

Differences in accuracy or completeness of recall of past events or experiences

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38
Q

Why is recall bias most commonly seen in case control studies?

A

They are often retrospective and rely on people memories

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39
Q

What is this an example of:

Patients with lung cancer when asked about smoking history are more likely to give an accurate history than those who have not had lung cancer

A

Recall bias

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40
Q

What is the Pygmalion effect?

A

Aka Rosenthal effect

Phenomenon whereby the expectations of a target person affect the performance of that person

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41
Q

What is an example of the Pygmalion effect?

A

Teachers belief in a student and high expectations lead to a student achieving a better outcome

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42
Q

What is the name of the bias that occurs from data gathering at an inappropriate time?

A

Late look bias

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43
Q

What is the lowest rung on the pyramid of evidence?

A

Editorials or expert opinion

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44
Q

Where do case reports and case series rank on the pyramid of evidence?

A

Just above expert opinion

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45
Q

What are the observational studies on the pyramid of evidence?

A

Case control studies and cohort studies

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46
Q

Why do case control and cohort studies lie above case reports/series on the pyramid of evidence?

A

Higher number of cases within a structured observational study

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47
Q

Which is less likely to be subject to recall bias - cohort studies or case control? Why?

A

Cohort studies - case control usually retrospective but cohort studies follow a group through time

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48
Q

Why do randomised control trials rank higher on pyramid of evidence than observational studies?

A

They are interventional studies with a random group of people, rather than observational which can be more susceptible to bias

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49
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

An observational study following a group of people with a characteristic in common, to observe outcomes over time

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50
Q

What is a case control study?

A

A retrospective observational study looking at a group of people with a certain outcome and a group without that outcome, and comparing a potential common causality

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51
Q

What is the best form of evidence/at the top of the pyramid of evidence?

A

Systematic reviews and meta-analysis

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52
Q

What is the difference between systematic reviews and meta-analysis?

A

Meta-analysis is a quantitative analysis of multiple RCTs to find an overall average.

Systematic reviews are a qualitative analysis of multiple RCTs to assess their quality.

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53
Q

What is the odds ratio?

A

Estimation of risk of being exposed to risk factor

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54
Q

What does it mean if the odds ratio is 2?

A

You are twice as likely to have the outcome if you were exposed to the risk factor

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55
Q

How is odds ratio calculated?

A

(exposed cases / non exposed cases) / (exposed controls / non exposed controls)

(a/c)/(b/d) which can also be written as ad/bc

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56
Q

What kind of study is odds ration relevant for?

A

Case control studies

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57
Q

What kind of study is relative risk relevant for?

A

Cohort study and Randomised Control Trial

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58
Q

What is the relative risk?

A

Ratio of probability of an event occurring in an exposed group to probability of event occurring in non-exposed group

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59
Q

How is relative risk calculated?

A

(exposed cases/(exposed cases + exposed disease free)) / (non exposed cases/(non exposed cases + disease free non exposed cases)

i.e. (a/a+b)/(c/c+d)

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60
Q

Which type of study is absolute risk relevant to?

A

Randomised Control Trials

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61
Q

What is absolute risk?

A

A persons risk of developing a disease

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62
Q

What are some examples of absolute risk calculations used in every day practice?

A

Q risk
CHADSVASC
Frax score

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63
Q

What is numbers needed to treat?

A

The number of people who need a particular intervention in order for 1 person to benefit or to prevent an adverse event in one person

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64
Q

How is numbers needed to treat calculated?

A

NNT = 1 / Absolute Risk Reduction

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65
Q

What is the name of the graph that shows meta-analysis of RCTs?

A

Forest Plot

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66
Q

What does a Forest plot allow us to see easily for meta-analysis?

A

Shows effect size of each study, precision of each study, and overall combined effect

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67
Q

What does box size indicate on a forest plot?

A

The size of contribution to overall effect

i.e. the larger the box, the larger the contribution

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68
Q

What do the horizontal lines from the box indicate on a forest plot?

A

Confidence interval

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69
Q

What is the line of no effect?

A

The line on a forest plot at odds ratio/risk ratio of 1

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70
Q

What does a confidence interval on the right of/crossing the RR=1 line mean?

A

There is potential for increased risk therefore the result is not statistically significant

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71
Q

What does a long line through the box mean on a forest plot?

A

The longer the line, the wider the confidence interval, the less precise the study is.

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72
Q

What graph can show if there is publication bias in a study?

A

Funnel plot

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73
Q

Describe how a funnel plot appears?

A

Scatter plot of treatment effect vs study precision. If the study falls within the funnel shaped bounds, publication bias is unlikely to be present

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74
Q

What are the 5 measures of Screening Test Validity?

A
  1. Sensitivity
  2. Specificity
  3. Positive Predictive Value
  4. Negative Predictive Value
  5. Likelihood Ratio
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75
Q

What is the term for the proportion of true positives successfully identified by a test?

A

Sensitivity

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76
Q

What is the term for the proportion of true negatives successfully identified by a test?

A

Specificity

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77
Q

How is sensitivity calculated?

A

= true positives / (true positives + false negatives)

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78
Q

How is specificity calculated?

A

= true negatives / (true negatives + false positives)

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79
Q

What is the term used to describe the likelihood of having a disease given a positive result?

A

Positive predictive value

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80
Q

How is positive predictive value calculated?

A

= true positives / (true positives + false positives)

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81
Q

What is the term used to describe the likelihood of not having a disease given a negative result?

A

= true negatives / (true negatives + false negatives)

82
Q

What is the philosophy behind generalism?

A

Person not disease centred practice

83
Q

On average, how many consultations do people in the UK have with their GP in a year?

A

> 5.5

84
Q

What is the difference between the role of a GP and the role of a specialist in serious diseases?

A

GPs exclude serious disease, Specialists confirm the presence of serious disease

85
Q

What is the difference between the role of a GP and the role of a specialist in managing uncertainty?

A

GPs tolerate uncertainty, specialists reduce uncertainty

86
Q

Who is the first point of contact in the healthy system in UK?

A

The GP

87
Q

What terms are used to designate any organisation providing NHS primary care services?

A

Primary care provider or practice

88
Q

What is the practice list?

A

All patients registered with a particular primary care provider

89
Q

What is a primary care network?

A

Multiple practices coming together in some form of collaboration

90
Q

How often does revalidation occur?

A

Every 5 years

91
Q

What is an appraisal?

A

Yearly assessment of doctors to maintain license to practice

92
Q

What is the BMA?

A

British Medical Association - voluntary professional association and independent trade union of doctors

93
Q

What is the Care Quality Commission (CQC)?

A

Independent public body that assesses and manages health and social care, regulates, publishes information about the state of health and social care, and coordinates reviews and assessments.

94
Q

What is the GPC?

A

General Practitioners Committee

BMA committee with authority to deal with all matters affecting NHS GPs, representing all GPs regardless of if they are registered with the BMA

95
Q

What is a local medical committee?

A

Committee of GPs representative of GPs in their area

96
Q

What is the National Association of Sessional GPs?

A

Acts as voice and resource for all NHS GPs who work outside of traditional GP principle model

97
Q

What categories of risk are relevant to general practice?

A

-Clinical care
-Non clinical risks
-Risk to health of workforce
-Organisational risk
-Financial risk

98
Q

What % of prescriptions contain a prescribing error?

A

20%

1 in 5

99
Q

What is the main part of the money paid to GP practices called?

A

The global sum

100
Q

What does the global sum consist of?

A

Costs for staff and practice running costs for essential services, additional services, and out of hours if not opted out

101
Q

What are enhanced services that a practice may be paid for?

A

Services in addition to the global sum services that a practice may offer e.g. more advanced minor surgery, intrapartum care, childhood vaccine targets etc

102
Q

What is the payment for premises and IT?

A

Part of GP funding for practices to reimburse those who rent their premises, and all IT costs

103
Q

What are the quality payments made to a GP practice?

A

Payments made in relation to performance against QOF targets

104
Q

What are QOF targets?

A

Quality and Outcomes Framework - quality incentive scheme which is updated and reviewed yearly

105
Q

How can a practice prevent penalisation when unable to meet targets?

A

Exception Reporting e.g. reporting if a patient failed to attend a review or a medication is contraindicated

106
Q

How long can a patient register at a surgery for temporarily?

A

> 24 hours but < 3 months

107
Q

In what situations can a patient be removed from the practice list?

A
  1. Violence
  2. Crime & deception
  3. Relocation to an address out of practice area
108
Q

What is urgent care?

A

Range of services provided to people who need or perceive they need urgent advice/care/diagnosis

109
Q

What is the summary care record?

A

Electronic medical notes summary extracted from GP IT systems that can be viewed by healthcare staff in other NHS settings

110
Q

What can be used for a patient to access their GP records online?

A

Patient Online

111
Q

How should patient subject access requests be made?

A

Usually in writing (electronic or paper)

112
Q

Can a practice charge for subject access requests?

A

No, although they may charge for repeat requests

113
Q

How quickly should a record by provided after a subject access request?

A

Within 1 month

114
Q

Who can request patient information?

A

-Any competent person may seek their own record, including children

-Any person with parental responsibility may request their child’s record under 18

-A third party with written permission from the patient e.g. solicitor/insurance company

115
Q

How should manual records be stored?

A

Securely, closed, in a logical order, with a tracking system in place

116
Q

How can electronic records be kept safe?

A

-Log out of a computer when you leave it
-Do not share logins or passwords
-Change passwords regularly
-Make sure passwords are secure
-Keep smart cards secure

117
Q

What is the name of the fundamental rules and regulations that guide patient confidentiality?

A

Caldicott Principles

118
Q

What are the Caldicott Principles?

A
  1. Justifiable purpose
  2. Don’t use patient identifiable information unless necessary
  3. Use minimum amount of patient identifiable information
  4. Share on strict need-to-know basis
  5. Everyone involved should be aware of their responsibilities
  6. Understand and comply with the law
119
Q

Is there a right to information about a deceased individual?

A

Records since 1991 have permitted limited disclosure in order to satisfy a claim arising from death, but not otherwise

120
Q

When MIGHT a breach of confidentiality be justified?

A

-Emergencies
-Statutory requirement
-Public interest or public health
-Required by law e.g. for court case
-Complaints
-Adverse drug reactions

121
Q

What is defined as the willingness of a patient to undergo examination, investigation, or treatment?

A

Consent

122
Q

What forms might consent come in?

A

-Expressed
-Implied

123
Q

When a patient makes a complaint, who might they complain to?

A

-PCO
-PALS
-Practice

124
Q

Who would PALS direct a complaint to?

A

The PCO or Practice

125
Q

How quickly does a complaint need to be aknowledged?

A

48 hours

126
Q

Following a complaint, how long does the complaints manager have to manage the complaint and respond to the complainant?

A

<25 days after the original complain

127
Q

If after the practice has responded to a complaint the complainant is not happy with the outcome, where can they take their concerns?

A

The NHS Ombudsman

128
Q

Until what time can someone make a complaint to a GP surgery?

A

Up to 1 year after the incident, or up to 1 year after the complainant became aware of the matter

129
Q

What time limit is placed on civil clinical negligence cases?

A

3 years, although children can claim up to their 21st birthday

130
Q

How should complaints be recorded?

A

In full and separately from patient notes

131
Q

Should complaints documentation go to a new surgery with their notes if a patient moves?

A

No

132
Q

What are the 4 steps of quality improvement?

A

RAID:
Review
Agree
Intervene
Demonstrate

133
Q

What is a never event?

A

A validated list of events known to cause severe harm that are completely preventable

134
Q

According to studies, what % of information given to patients in a consultation is believed to be forgotten within a few minutes of leaving the surgery?

A

> 50%

135
Q

What are 4 useful resources for practicing evidence-based medicine?

A

-NICE
-Cochrane
-PubMed Central
-Google Scholar

136
Q

What does the law require regarding the role of a doctor during death?

A

That the/a doctor who attended the patient during their final illness to issue a certificate detailing cause of death

137
Q

What proportion of deaths occur at home?

A

1 in 4

138
Q

How many doctors are involved in the cremation form?

A

2

139
Q

Who fills out the Cremation 4 form?

A

The patient’s usual medical practitioner - in he community this is usually the GP

140
Q

Who fills out the Cremation 5 form?

A

Another doctor with full GMC registration for 5 years or more who is not connected with the patient or the doctor who issued part 4

141
Q

What 2 methods can be used to contact the coroner?

A

Electronic referral (preferred) or via the police

142
Q

Does reporting a death to the coroner automatically entail a post-mortem?

A

No

143
Q

What is the job of the local medical examiner as of April 2019?

A

To check all death certificates issued by treating doctors for accuracy and coroner notification obligations

144
Q

What benefits may be available to family etc after a death?

A

-Benefits for widows/widowers
-Budgeting loans for funerals

145
Q

Do the following circumstances require that the death is reported to the coroner?

Patient dies following injuries sustained in a fight

A

Yes - violent or suspicious death

146
Q

Do the following circumstances require that the death is reported to the coroner?

A patient who has not seen their GP for a number of years despite multiple health issues is brought into ED malnourished and unkempt, and dies soon after.

A

Yes - death may be due to self-neglect or neglect by others

147
Q

Do the following circumstances require that the death is reported to the coroner?

A patient who was released from prison a week ago was found dead in the street

A

Yes - this could be either due to violence/suspicious cause, or death that occurred during or shortly after police/prison custody

148
Q

Do the following circumstances require that the death is reported to the coroner?

A patient dies of mesothelioma

A

Yes - if industrial disease or related to employment

149
Q

What are the 4 absolute contraindications to any organ donation?

A

-Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (or any neurodegen condition assoc with infection)
-Ebola virus infection
-Cancer that has spread in last 12 months
-HIV or hepatitis C

150
Q

Is organ donation opt-in or opt out in England?

A

Opt-out (as of the last few years)

151
Q

What different blood components can people donate?

A

Whole blood or platelets

152
Q
A
153
Q

What are the two groups of driving licence holders?

A

Group one - cars and motorcycles

Group two - large lorries and buses

154
Q

Which driving group has higher medical standards?

A

Group 2 (large lorries/buses)

155
Q

After what age is a group 1 driving licence renewal required every 3 years?

A

70

156
Q

How long is a group 2 driving licence valid for?

A

5 years maximum

157
Q

What is the role of a medical practitioner in renewing a group 2 licence?

A

New applicants for group 2 licence require a medical examination

158
Q

Beyond what age do group 2 drivers require a medical examination every year?

A

65

159
Q

What is the responsibility of the driver to the DVLA regarding injury or illness?

A

To inform then if injury/illness would have a likely impact on safe driving ability

Respond fully and accurately to requests for information

Comply with the regulations of the issued licence

160
Q

What is the responsibility of the doctor to the driver/DVLA regarding injury or illness?

A

-Advise the driver of impact of illness/injury on safe driving ability

-Advise the individual of legal requirements re informing DVLA

-Notify DVLA directly if an individual cannot or will not themselves

161
Q

Where can a notification to DVLA be made in UK?

A

via GOV.UK website, or nidriect.gov.uk for those living in Northern Ireland

162
Q

Where can a doctor find comprehensive written guidance about notifying the DVLA if a patient won’t or can’t?

A

GMC guidelines 2017

163
Q

What principles underpin the GMC guidance regarding notification to DVLA when a patient will not or cannot do it themselves?

A

Doctors owe a duty of confidentiality to the patient, but also have a wider duty to protect and promote health of patients and the public

164
Q

What DVLA resource can be used to assess fitness to drive?

A

Assessing fitness to drive guidance or DVLA medical advisor

165
Q

What can be suggested if a patient refuses to accept a diagnosis that can affect their ability to drive?

A

Offer/get a second opinion, and advise them not to drive in the meantime

166
Q

What does the DVLA classify as epilepsy?

A

2 or more unprovoked seizures over a period greater than 24 hours

167
Q

A patient who was diagnosed with epilepsy with a group 1 licence had their last seizure 8 months ago.

How much longer do they need to wait before they can drive again?

A

They must be seizure free for 4 more months

168
Q

A large lorry driver has just been diagnosed with epilepsy. What do you need to tell them about their group 2 licence?

A

They must be seizure free without medication for 10 years before licencing may be considered again

169
Q

A previously well patient with a group 1 licence presented to ED with a first episode of seizure, but they forgot the advice they were given about driving when they left.

What advice should you give them regarding driving?

A

-Must not drive and must notify DVLA
-Driving must stop for 6 months from date of seizure, or 12 months if there is an ongoing underlying risk factor

170
Q

A previously well lorry driver with a group 2 licence presented to ED with a first episode of seizure, but they forgot the advice they were given about driving when they left.

What advice should you give them regarding driving?

A

-Must not drive and must notify the DVLA
-Driving must cease for 5 years from date of the seizure
-Licence may be restored after 5 years if full medical evaluation shows risk of <2% of a further seizure

171
Q

How long must a driver (group 1 and 2) cease driving following a provoked seizure e.g. from alcohol/ilicit drugs?

A

Group 1 - 6 months
Group 2 - 5 years

172
Q

How long must a driver (group 1 and 2) cease driving following a dissociative seizure?

A

Group 1 - 3 months
Group 2 - 3 months if other criteria are met

173
Q

What exemption may apply to seizures and driving?

A

If seizures only happen during sleep and this is a provable and established pattern

174
Q

What advice is given regarding driving while weaning down of anti-epilepsy medication?

A

Individuals should not drive while it is being withdrawn or for 6 months after the last dose

175
Q

Regarding transient loss of consciousness and driving licence:

What 3 ps are considered when assessing a patient?

A

Provocation
Posture
Prodrome

176
Q

A group 1 licence holder has a single episode of simple vasovagal syncope while standing - do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

No

177
Q

A group 2 licence holder has a single episode of simple vasovagal syncope while standing - do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

Yes and must not drive

178
Q

A group 1 licence holder has a single episode of simple vasovagal syncope while sitting - do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

If there is an avoidable trigger that will not occur while driving - No

Otherwise yes they must inform the DVLA and not drive

179
Q

A group 2 licence holder has a single episode of simple vasovagal syncope while sitting - do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

Yes and must not drive for 3 months. They will require investigation.

180
Q

A group 1 licence holder has a single episode of triggered syncope (reversible cause) while standing - do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

No and they may drive

181
Q

A group 1 licence holder has a single episode of triggered syncope (reversible cause) while sitting - do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

Yes and they must not drive for 4 weeks - they can drive again after 4 weeks if a cause is identified and treated

182
Q

A group 2 licence holder has a single episode of triggered syncope (reversible cause) while standing - do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

Yes and they must not drive

183
Q

A group 2 licence holder has a single episode of triggered syncope (reversible cause) while sitting - do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

Yes and must not drive for 3 months until a cause is identified and treated

184
Q

A group 1 licence holder has a transient loss of consciousness due to a cardiac cause - do they need to notify the DVLA?

A

Yes and they must not drive - if cause is identified and treated after 4 weeks, they can drive.
If no cause identified, licence is revoked for 6 months.

185
Q

A group 2 licence holder has a transient loss of consciousness due to a cardiac cause - do they need to notify the DVLA?

A

Yes and they must not drive - if cause is identified and treated after 3 months, they can drive.
If no cause identified, licence is revoked for 12 months.

186
Q

A driver with a group 1 licence experiences cough syncope - what are the rules regarding driving?

A

Must not drive, must notify DVLA

No driving for 6 months after a single episode, or 12 months following multiple episodes over a 5 year period

187
Q

A driver with a group 2 licence experiences cough syncope - what are the rules regarding driving?

A

Must not drive, must notify DVLA

No driving for 12 months after a single episode, or 5 years following multiple episodes over a 5 year period

188
Q

A patient with a group 1 licence is diagnosed with narcolepsy. What are the rules here regarding driving?

A

Must not drive and must notify DVLA
May be reissued a licence when there has been symptom control for 3 months or more

189
Q

A patient with a group 2 licence is diagnosed with narcolepsy. What are the rules here regarding driving?

A

Must not drive and must notify DVLA
May be reissued a licence when there has been symptom control for 3 months or more if they pass a specialised assessment

190
Q

A patient with a group 1 licence is diagnosed with motor neurone disease. What are the rules regarding driving and chronic neurological disorders?

A

They must notify the DVLA, but may drive if they can keep safe control at all times

A short duration licence may be issued

191
Q

A patient with a group 2 licence is diagnosed with motor neurone disease. What are the rules regarding driving and chronic neurological disorders?

A

They must notify the DVLA, but may drive if they can keep safe control at all times

A short duration licence may be issued and subject to yearly review and medical reports

192
Q

Does a patient with sudden and unprovoked disabling dizziness episodes need to inform the DVLA?

A

Yes and they must not drive

193
Q

A patient with a group 1 licence had a stroke 1 month ago and wants to know about driving rules. What does this depend on?

A

If satisfactory clinical recovery has occurred, driving may resume after 1 month without informing the DVLA

If there is residual neurological deficit that affects safe driving, DVLA should be informed

194
Q

A patient with a group 2 licence had a stroke and wants to know about driving rules. What do you tell them?

A

They must notify the DVLA and must not drive - relicensing may be considered after 1 year.

This is the same for a single or multiple TIAs

195
Q

A patient has visual inattention. Does it matter what type of licence they have?

A

No - both group 1 and group 2 need to stop driving and notify the DVLA

196
Q

A patient with a group 1 licence is diagnosed with carotid artery stenosis. Do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

No, and they can continue driving

197
Q

A patient with a group 2 licence is diagnosed with carotid artery stenosis. Do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

Yes - they must not drive unless they have been specifically assessed

198
Q

What is the Wilcoxon signed-rank test used for?

A

To assess the change in a particular measure in a single sample before and after an intervention

199
Q

What is the Fisher’s exact test?

A

A significance test used to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between 2 frequencies.

200
Q

What is Pearson correlation coefficient?

A

Significance test used to assess if there is a correlation between 2 sets of continuous data

201
Q
A

AKT (22 decks)

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