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VM 580 - Vet Surgery & Anesthesia > Mod 1 - Monitoring 1 8/22 > Flashcards

Mod 1 - Monitoring 1 8/22 Flashcards

Quiz 2

1
Q

why do we monitor patients?

A

to maximize the safety of the anesthetic procedure

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2
Q

T/F - anesthesia records are legal documents and one person should be dedicated to monitoring the patient to maintain accurate records.

A

True

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3
Q

what is the lowest appropriate range for the intraoperative mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

A

60-80 mmHg

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4
Q

what is the highest appropriate range for the intraoperative partial pressure of CO2 (PaCO2) in dogs?

A

40-60 mmHg

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5
Q

we use an ECG to monitor what 2 things?

A
  1. HR
  2. heart rhythm
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6
Q

how can we directly measure blood pressure?

A

arterial catheter (connected to a pressure transducer)

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7
Q

what 2 ways do we indirectly monitor blood pressure?

A
  1. oscillotonometry
  2. Doppler
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8
Q

mean arterial pressure = 1 x 2

A

MAP = CO x systemic vascular resistance

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9
Q

cardiac output = 1 x 2

A

HR x stroke volume

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10
Q

what 3 things can affect CO?

A
  1. HR
  2. stroke volume
  3. contractility
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11
Q

if CO inc., what happens to MAP?

A

inc. (& vice versa)

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12
Q

vasoconstriction causes MAP to (inc./dec.), and therefore, BP (inc./dec.)

A

inc.
inc.

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13
Q

vasodilation causes ?, which causes MAP to (inc./dec.), and therefore, BP (inc./dec.)

A

relative hypovolemia
dec.
dec.

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14
Q

what is the normal HR for:
1. large dog
2. small dog

A
  1. 60-120 bpm
  2. 80-160 bpm
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15
Q

what is the normal HR for cats?

A

120-220 bpm

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16
Q

what is the normal HR for horses?

A

35-45 bpm

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17
Q

what is the normal HR for ruminants?

A

70-90 bpm

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18
Q

when should you treat bradycardia in:
1. large dogs
2. small dogs

A
  1. <50 bpm
  2. <60 bpm
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19
Q

when should you treat bradycardia in cats?

A

<90 bpm

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20
Q

when should you treat bradycardia in horses?

A

<25 bpm

21
Q

when should you treat bradycardia in ruminants?

A

<55 bpm

22
Q

T/F - when horses are bradycardic (<25 bpm), we almost always treat it.

A

False - worried about dec. GI motility

23
Q

The decision to treat bradycardia in a patient should always be based on what value?

A

MAP

24
Q

what are 3 common (overall) causes of bradycardia in a patient?

A
  1. inc. vagal tone
  2. hypothermia
  3. heart disease
25
Q

what class of drugs is used to treat bradycardia?

A. sympatholytics
B. anticholinergics
C. Ca++ channel blockers
D. local anesthetics
E. GABA agonists

A

B (like atropine or glycopyrrolate)

26
Q

what are 3 common (overall) causes of tachycardia?

A
  1. not enough anesthesia/analgesia
  2. drugs
  3. metabolic
27
Q

what are 3 metabolic causes of tachycardia?

A
  1. hypovolemia
  2. hypoxemia
  3. hypercapnea
28
Q

T/F - a light plane of anesthesia required immediate attention.

A

True!

29
Q

What percentage of the induction drug dose should you give to treat a light plane of anesthesia?

A

10-20%

30
Q

If HR is inc. while BP is dec., what are 4 possible problems that you should consider?

A
  1. hypovolemia
  2. sepsis
  3. cardiovascular collapse
  4. poor perfusion
31
Q

what class of drugs is used to treat tachycardia associated with atrial fibrillation?

A. anticholinergics
B. beta blockers
C. local anesthetics
D. GABA agonists
E. neuromuscular blockers

A

B.

32
Q

T/F - if HR is inc. and BP is dec., it’s more important to dec. HR than to worry about BP.

A

False - BP is already low - dec. HR will make it worse!

33
Q

what are 5 causes of anesthesia-related arrhythmias?

A
  1. hypoxemia
  2. poor perfusion
  3. direct drug effects
  4. “sensitization” by anesthetics
  5. electrolyte distrubances
34
Q

T/F - differently shaped VPC means different parts of the ventricle are firing each time. This should be treated immediately.

A

True

35
Q

what are the 4 classes of antiarrhythmic drugs?

A
  1. Na+ channel blockers
  2. beta blockers
  3. action potential duration prolongers (previously K+ channel blockers)
  4. Ca++ channel blockers
36
Q

a BP cuff width should be ?% of the tail diameter in elephants?

A

40%

37
Q

the point of maximum oscillations read by an oscillometric monitor has the most accurate reading of what value?

A

MAP

38
Q

when using a Doppler, what are you reading when you start to hear sound when letting off cuff pressure?

A

systolic pressure

39
Q

what are 4 common (overall) causes of hypotension?

A
  1. low venous return
  2. heart disease
  3. arrhythmias
  4. low systemic vascular resistance
40
Q

what are the 5 steps (in order) for troubleshooting hypotension?

A
  1. assess anesthetic conc.
  2. assess HR
  3. assess crystalloid fluids given over last 1hr
  4. consider giving hypertonic saline or colloid
  5. re-evaluate MAP
41
Q

what receptor does dobutamine act on?

A. cholinergic
B. beta-1
C. alpha-1
D. GABA
E. dihydropyridine

A

B.

42
Q

what receptor does norepinephrine act on?

A. cholinergic
B. beta-1
C. alpha-1
D. GABA
E. dihydropyridine

A

C.

43
Q

NE is a vaso(constrictor/dilator) and has a use in ?. otherwise, it is difficult to control effects.

A

vasoconstrictor
cardiac arrest

44
Q

what does it mean if you give a breath to a patient and the cardiac waveform squishes down?

A

patient is still hypovolemic

45
Q

what are packed red blood cells?

what does it contain? (3)

A

RBCs spun down in refrigerated centrifuge

  1. RBCs
  2. WBCs
  3. some plasma & anticoagulant
46
Q

what is fresh frozen plasma?

what does it contain? (3)

A

supernatant from FWB centrifugation

  1. plasma
  2. stable clotting factors
  3. labile clotting factors (5, 8, vWF)
47
Q

how long does fresh frozen plasma last?

A

1yr @ -20C

48
Q

what is frozen plasma?

what does it lack?

A

outdated fresh frozen plasma or not frozen within 8hrs

labile clotting factors (5, 8, vWF)

49
Q

frozen plasma is a source of ? for oncotic support.

A

albumin

VM 580 - Vet Surgery & Anesthesia (11 decks)

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