Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Misc Boards Review > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

How does a brain tumor HA present?

A
  • Dull and persistent HA always in the same spot
  • Personality changes, vision changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How likely for TIA to develop into CVA?
What can we do?

A
  • 1/3 chance
  • Start aspirin and stop smoking/exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Wernicke’s area deficit
Who might get this?

A
  • Receptive aphasia - impaired speech comprehension
  • Alcoholics with B1 (thiamine) deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Broca’s area deficit

A
  • Expressive aphasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Characteristics of cluster HA (3)

A
  • Sudden, sharp, unilateral HA behind the eye
  • Sweaty
  • Runny nose and tears
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do cluster HAs occur?

A
  • Same time every day
  • May have multiple attacks in a week
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment of cluster HA (3)

A
  • 100% O2 for at least 20min
  • Imitrex SQ
  • Intranasal lidocaine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cluster HA prophylaxis

A
  • Verapamil
  • CCB that won’t cause a HA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cluster HA patients have a high risk of what?

A
  • Suicide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does Giant Cell Temporal Arteritis present? (3)
What kind of HA?

A
  • Unilateral HA
  • Cord-like temporal artery – painful, warm, pulsing
  • Jaw claudication (pain with chewing)
  • Possible vision loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lab elevated in Giant Cell Temporal Arteritis?
What is this condition associated with?

A
  • ESR/CRP
  • Polymyalgia Rheumatica
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How to diagnose Giant Cell Temporal Arteritis?

A
  • Biopsy of temporal artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What to do if patient with Giant Cell complains of blurry vision?

A
  • Send to ER to prevent permanent vision loss
  • Treat right away before diagnostics are back
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do we treat Giant Cell Temporal Arteritis?

A
  • Prednisone 1-2 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does HTN HA present?

A
  • Occipital HA usually in the morning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which HA present bilaterally?

A
  • Tension HA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Medications used for migraine prophylaxis (4)

A
  • Propranolol
  • TCAs – amitriptyline
  • Topamax
  • Depakote
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many migraines to qualify for prophylaxis?

A
  • 4+ HA per month
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Contraindications to triptans? (2)

A
  • Uncontrolled HTN/CAD
  • Serotonin meds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Do all triptans work the same?
How to take?

A
  • No – if one doesn’t work, another one might
  • Take as soon as they feel the HA coming on
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Common presentation of a migraine HA?

A
  • Unilateral throbbing HA
  • photophobia
  • phonophonia
  • N/V
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Migraine without aura Diagnostic criteria

A
  • At least 5 HA lasting 4-72hr
  • 2 of the following: unilateral, pulsing, mod/severe intensity, aggravation by regular activity
  • 1 of the following: N/V, photophobia/phonophobia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Migraine with aura diagnostic criteria

A
  • At least 2 HA lasting 4-72 hours
  • Clear description of aura
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens in Parkinson’s?

A
  • Depletion of Dopamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does Levodopa work?

A
  • Converts to Dopamine in the brain
  • Carbidopa prevents our body from destroying the dopamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When to start Sinemet?
What does it help with the most?

A
  • When symptoms interfere with quality of life
  • Bradykinesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Side effects of Sinemet?

A
  • Hypotension, dizziness, GI upset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long does Sinemet usually work?

A
  • 3-5 years
  • Wearing-off phenomenon – symptoms can worsen even before the next dose is due
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does Requip help with? (3)

A
  • RLS
  • Resting tremor
  • Delay starting of Sinemet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Side effects of Requip

A
  • Impulse control
  • Leg edema
  • Hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Medications used for Essential Tremor (2)
What else can help? (2)

A
  • BB
  • Botox
  • Physical activity and alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What can worsen an essential tremor? (2)

A
  • Caffeine
  • Sex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 3 A’s of Alzheimer’s?

A
  • Agnosia
  • Apraxia
  • Aphasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What test can we use to diagnose cognitive changes?

A

MMSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Medication used for Alzheimer’s (2)

A
  • Aricept (cholinesterase inhibitor)
  • Namenda (NMDA antagonist)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cranial Nerve I
Function

A
  • Olfactory
  • Smell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cranial Nerve II
Function

A
  • Optic
  • Visual acuity/SNELLEN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cranial Nerve III
Function

A
  • Oculomotor
  • Eye movement, focus, blink
39
Q

Cranial Nerve IV
Function

A
  • Trochlear
  • Eye movements: down and towards nose
40
Q

Cranial Nerve V
Function (2)

A
  • Trigeminal
  • Chewing, face sensation
41
Q

Cranial Nerve VI
Function

A
  • Abducens
  • Eye movements - outward
42
Q

Cranial Nerve VII
Function

A
  • Facial
  • Facial expression, raise eyebrows, puff cheeks
43
Q

Cranial Nerve VIII
Function

A
  • Vestibular
  • Hearing and balance
44
Q

Cranial Nerve IX
Function

A
  • Glossopharyngeal
  • Taste
45
Q

Cranial Nerve X
Function

A
  • Vagus
  • Swallowing, gut function
46
Q

Cranial Nerve XI
Function

A
  • Accessory
  • Move shoulders/neck
47
Q

Cranial Nerve XII
Function

A
  • Hypoglossal
  • Move tongue
48
Q

Which cranial nerve can be affected by an unresolved cholesteatoma?

A
  • CN VII
49
Q

Treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
Second line?

A
  • Tegretol
  • Second line: TCA
50
Q

Tegretol side effects

A
  • Bone marrow suppression
51
Q

Which CN is affected by Bell’s Palsy?

A
  • CN 7
52
Q

Bell’s Palsy
Diagnosis
Treatment

A
  • Dx based on clinical presentation
  • Start steroids within 72 hr
53
Q

What can precipitate Bell’s palsy? (3)

A
  • Pregnancy, HTN, DM, HSV
54
Q

What is sarcoidosis?
How can it present?

A
  • Formation of tiny inflammatory cells (granulomas)
  • Bilateral facial paralysis
55
Q

What is otosclerosis?
Biggest concern?

A
  • Disease of the inner ear
  • Permanent hearing loss d/t breakdown of the cochlea
56
Q

Symptoms of otosclerosis?
What kind of hearing loss?

A
  • Vertigo, tinnitus, nystagmus
  • Conductive hearing loss
57
Q

What is happening in MS
Common age?

A
  • Demyelination in the CNS
  • 20-40
58
Q

MS most common in who?

A
  • Northern European descent
59
Q

Symptoms of MS (4)
What usually presents first?

A
  • Weakness
  • Balance problems
  • Incontinence
  • Vision issues – often first complaint
60
Q

Complication of MS

A
  • Optic Neuritis
61
Q

Symptoms of optic neuritis

A
  • Vision loss in 1 eye
  • Blurred vision
  • Reduced color vision
62
Q

Treatment of optic neuritis

A
  • Steroids
63
Q

How is MS diagnosed?
Treatment?

A
  • MRI
  • Steroids and DMARDs
64
Q

People with MS at a higher risk of developing what?

A
  • Trigeminal Neuralgia and Optic Neuritis
65
Q

Treatment options for absence SZ (4)

A
  • Zarotin
  • Depakote
  • Dilantin
  • Lamictal
66
Q

What it an atonic seizure?

A
  • Drop attacks
  • Sudden loss of muscle strength
67
Q

When can we DC seizure meds?

A
  • No seizures for 2-4 years
68
Q

Side effects of Depakote

A
  • Weight gain and hair loss
69
Q

Who shouldn’t have Depakote or Dilantin?

A
  • Patients with liver problems
70
Q

Side effects of Dilantin

A
  • Gingival hyperplasia
  • Hirsutism
  • Decreased level of BC
71
Q

Treatment for postherpetic neuralgia

A
  • Gabapentin
72
Q

What is meclizine good for?

A
  • BPPV and Labyrinthitis
73
Q

What is ALS

A
  • Most common degenerative disease of motor neurons
74
Q

What is a sign of spinal stenosis

A
  • Neurogenic claudication relieved by sitting or lying down
75
Q

What is Topamax used for?

A
  • Migraine prophylaxis
  • Seizures
  • Weight loss
76
Q

Who should not have Topamax?

A
  • Renal and liver problems
  • Kidney stones
  • Hx anorexia
77
Q

How often can we use triptans?

A
  • 2 days a week d/t risk of rebound HA
78
Q

Symptoms of meningitis

A
  • Flu like symptoms
  • Progression: confusion, can’t walk, rash, severe unrelenting HA, stiff neck, photosensitivity
79
Q

How to diagnose meningitis

A
  • LP: WBCs
80
Q

What might kids need before returning to sports after a concussion?

A
  • Impact testing
81
Q

What is another medication that can be used in migraine attacks?

A
  • Rimegepant (Nurtec)
82
Q

Best treatment for tension HA?

A
  • NSAIDs and stress reduction
83
Q

What is the pathology of Alzheimer’s?

A
  • Deposits of beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tau protein tangles
84
Q

Pathology of vascular dementia

A
  • Ischemic changes secondary to CVA
85
Q

What is the confrontation test?

A
  • Evaluation of visual fields using counted fingers with central focus
86
Q

How to perform Romberg Test

A
  • Stand with feet together and eyes closed and open for 30 seconds
87
Q

Meniere’s disease symptoms (3)

A
  • Episodic vertigo
  • Hearing loss
  • Tinnitus
88
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Meniere’s disease

A
  • 2 or more episodes of spontaneous vertigo lasting 20min to 3 hours
  • Hearing loss that is confirmed by audiometry
  • Fluctuating tinnitus
89
Q

What is Wernicke Aphasia characterized by?

A
  • Impaired speech comprehension
90
Q

First line treatment for neuropathic pain

A

TCAs

91
Q

What is agnosia

A
  • Impairment in the ability to understand information in relation to the 5 senses
92
Q

What medications aside from steroids are used in severe Bell’s Palsy?

A
  • Acyclovir
93
Q

Chovsteks looks for what?

A
  • LOW calcium
94
Q

Which CN can cause blindness when affected by Herpes Zoster?

A
  • CN V

Misc Boards Review (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions