exam 1 make up Flashcards

1
Q

how many parts in a neuron

A

4

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2
Q

what are the 4 parts of a neuron

A

dendrite, cell body, axon, axon terminal

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3
Q

dendrite job

A

receive info

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4
Q

cell body job

A

process info

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5
Q

axon job

A

carry info

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6
Q

axon terminal job

A

transmit info

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7
Q

what is a bundle of axons traveling together called

A

nerve

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8
Q

transmission of neuronal signal is dependent on

A

movement of ions

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9
Q

3 main ions in cells

A

sodium, potassium, chloride

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10
Q

at rest Na is ___ inside

A

lower

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11
Q

electrical gradient

A

difference in charge across membrane

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12
Q

ionic imbalance

A

electrochemical gradient

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13
Q

membrane potential

A

difference in total charge inside and outside the cell

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14
Q

membrane potential at rest

A

-70mV

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15
Q

ions need what to facilitate their movement

A

protein in the membrane

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16
Q

ion channel

A

where ions pass in the membrane

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17
Q

ions cross through membrane by ____ diffusion ____concentration gradient

A

passive,against

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18
Q

voltage gated channels open when

A

membrane potential reaches certain value

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19
Q

ligand gated channels open when

A

triggered by specific molecule

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20
Q

mechanically gated channels open when

A

physical force

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21
Q

graded potential

A

change in membrane is small

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22
Q

sodium-potassium pump energy generated by

A

ATP hydrolysis to actively transport ions

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23
Q

Na K pump–> Na transported ___, K transported ___

A

out, in

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24
Q

how many Na out, how many K in

A

3, 2

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25
Q

membrane needs to reach what charge to fire action potential

A

-55

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26
Q

where is an action potential triggered

A

axon hillock

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27
Q

Na rushes ___, inside becomes more ___, depolarization

A

in, positive

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28
Q

what is it called when the inside becomes more positive

A

depolarization

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29
Q

K flows ___, more ____, repolarization

A

out, negative

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30
Q

what is it called when the inside becomes more negative

A

repolarization

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31
Q

hyper polarization

A

membrane potential is less then -70

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32
Q

absolute refractory period

A

time when a nerve cannot fire another action potential

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33
Q

what does the absolute refractory period do

A

prevents AP from happening too quickly and from traveling backward

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34
Q

does the size or frequency of an AP change

A

frequency

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35
Q

conduction velocity increased by

A

myelin sheath

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36
Q

saltatory conduction

A

AP jumps along part of axon covered by sheath

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37
Q

myelin sheaths are formed from

A

glial cells

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38
Q

glial cells in

A

PNS

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39
Q

myelin sheaths are made by

A

oligodendrocytes

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40
Q

oligodendrocytes in

A

CNS

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41
Q

nodes of ranvier

A

gaps between myelin

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42
Q

synapse

A

space between axon and dendrite

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43
Q

pores between 2 cells that allow ions to pass through to neighboring cells

A

electrical synapse

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44
Q

electrical synapse speed

A

fast

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45
Q

chemical synapse

A

AP causes chemical to be released into synaptic cleft

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46
Q

is electrical or chemical synapse faster

A

electrical

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47
Q

which synapse is not common in humans

A

electrical

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48
Q

brain stem parts

A

medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain

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49
Q

brain stem function

A

basic needs (digestion, circulation, breathing)
route, filter info

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50
Q

cerebellum function

A

motor control, motion memory

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51
Q

thalamus location

A

top of brainstem

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52
Q

thalamus parts

A

hypothalamus, posterior pituitary

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53
Q

thalamus function

A

sort data, send

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54
Q

hypothalamus function

A

homeostasis

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55
Q

posterior pituitary function

A

send hormones

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56
Q

cerebrum function

A

integration

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57
Q

how does an MRI look at brain parts

A

blood flow with diff stimuli

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58
Q

how many hemispheres

A

2

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59
Q

hemispheres connected by

A

corpus collosum

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60
Q

corpus collosum

A

collection of nerves

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61
Q

left hemisphere function

A

math, reasoning, logic

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62
Q

right hemisphere function

A

facial recognition, creativity

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63
Q

basal ganglia

A

bunch of nuclei

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64
Q

basal ganglia location

A

below corpus collosum, cerebral cortex

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65
Q

basal ganglia controls

A

motor function

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66
Q

80% of brain

A

cerebral cortex

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67
Q

4 lobes

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal

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68
Q

frontal lobe

A

executive function, emotions

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69
Q

motor cortex point of integration

A

frontal lobe

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70
Q

pariteal lobe

A

sensation

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71
Q

somatosensory cortex point of integration

A

parietal

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72
Q

occipital lobe

A

vision

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73
Q

temporal lobe

A

language, hearing, memory

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74
Q

most primitive part of brain

A

hindbrain

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75
Q

how many segments of the spinal cord

A

31

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76
Q

what are the spinal cord segments

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

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77
Q

how many cervical

A

8

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78
Q

how many thoracic

A

12

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79
Q

how many lumbar

A

5

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80
Q

how many sacral

A

5

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81
Q

how many coccygeal

A

1

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82
Q

spinal nerves are singular or paired

A

paired

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83
Q

cervical and lumbar enlargements

A

c4-t1, L1-s3

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84
Q

nerve plexuses innervate

A

upper-lower limbs

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85
Q

conus medullaris

A

terminal end of spinal cord

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86
Q

filum terminal

A

attaches conus medullar is to coccygeal

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87
Q

cauda equina

A

collection of spinal nerves coming off conus medullar is

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88
Q

nerves emerge from what part of the spine

A

intervertebral foramina

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89
Q

rootlets converge to form

A

ventral and dorsal roots

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90
Q

ventral and dorsal roots converge to form

A

spinal nerve

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91
Q

after nerves leave the intervertebral foramina they divide into

A

ventral or dorsal ramus

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92
Q

is ventral or dorsal ramus thicker

A

ventral

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93
Q

ventral ramus supplies

A

muscles and skin of the front

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94
Q

dorsal supplies

A

muscles and skin of the back

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95
Q

dorsal root ganglion

A

cell bodies of the primary efferent neurons which enter the dorsal horn

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96
Q

cell bodies of the ventral root are with ___ matter

A

gray

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97
Q

afferent ___ efferent ___

A

arrive, exit

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98
Q

sensory, afferent or efferent

A

afferent

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99
Q

motor, afferent or efferent

A

efferent

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100
Q

dorsal, afferent or efferent

A

afferent

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101
Q

ventral, afferent or efferent

A

efferent

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102
Q

peripheral NS overal deals with

A

pain

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103
Q

why do we each experience pain differently

A

quality of our sensory organs, past experiences

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104
Q

A delta fibers

A

fast, quick, accurate, sharp

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105
Q

C fibers

A

slow, lasting dull ache

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106
Q

pain first synapse

A

posterior horn of spinal cord

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107
Q

pain:
posterior horn of spinal cord–>cross ____–> ascend as part of ____–>______

A

midline, anterolateral systen, thalamus

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108
Q

ultimate arbiter of what info goes wehre

A

thalamis

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109
Q

what always cuts through the thalamus

A

pain

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110
Q

lateral aspect

A

primary somatosensory cortex

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111
Q

primary somatosensory cortex location

A

post central gyrus, partial

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112
Q

medial side

A

emotions, affection, visceral pain response

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113
Q

medial side pathway
thalamus–> ____–>_____

A

anterior cingulate cortex, prefrontal cortex

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114
Q

what is active when we see others in pain

A

posterior cingulate gyrus

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115
Q

amygdala

A

fear

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116
Q

what two parts of the brain together forms memories of how pain occurred

A

amygdala, hippocampus

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117
Q

when hurt, connections to ___ and ____ harness the urgency

A

cerebellum, basal ganglia

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118
Q

what part of the brain influences visceral response

A

hypothalamus

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119
Q

visceral response

A

bp, heart rate, sweat, nausea

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120
Q

reflexes are tested to identify

A

abnormalities in the reflex pathway

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121
Q

when testing reflexes we are looking at

A

contraction of muscle

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122
Q

sensory nerve fibers deliver info to

A

CNS

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123
Q

motor fibers carry commands to

A

effectors via PNS

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124
Q

reflex arc

A

neural wiring of single reflex

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125
Q

reflex arc 5 “parts”

A
  1. receptor, react to stimulus
  2. afferent neuron transmits impulse through peripheral nerve to CNS
  3. information processing in CNS
  4. efferent neuron deliver response
  5. response-effector
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126
Q

4 reflex arc classifications

A

development, response, complexity, processing site

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127
Q

reflex arc: development

A

innate or acquired

128
Q

reflex arc: response

A

somatic, superficial or deep, visceral

129
Q

reflex arc: complexity

A

monosynaptic or poly

130
Q

reflex arc: processing site

A

spinal cord or brain

131
Q

monosynaptic aka

A

stretch

132
Q

simple reflex arc with single synapse between afferent and efferent

A

monoynaptic

133
Q

patella reflex type

A

monosynaptic

134
Q

polysynaptic produces

A

more complex responses

135
Q

2 parts polysnaptic

A

interneurons, distribution to other segments, reciprocal inhibition

136
Q

withdrawal reflex
1. stimulus –> ____
2. activate ____
3. ____ processing center
4. synapse with ____, enable sensory neurons to _____
5. ___ stimulate muscle

A
  1. receptors
  2. afferent neuron
  3. spinal cord
  4. interneurons, communicate with other neurons
  5. efferent
137
Q

2 types in interneurons

A

excitatory, inhibitory

138
Q

excitatory interneuron

A

stimulate efferent

139
Q

inhibitory interneuron

A

inhibit efferent, prevent contraction

140
Q

babinski sign positive or negative

A

positive

141
Q

babinski sign: __ neuron lesion–> toes curl ___

A

upper, up

142
Q

autonomic NS divided into

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

143
Q

autonomic NS innervates

A

smooth and cardiac –> involuntary

144
Q

autonomic NS melin on neurons

A

lightly or not at all

145
Q

2 neuron chain in autonomic NS

A

preganglionic, postganglionic

146
Q

rest and digest

A

parasympathetic

147
Q

parasympathetic main functions

A

digestion, expulsion waste, general maintenance

148
Q

sympathetic

A

increase hr, blood vessels constrict, glucose released

149
Q

fight or flight

A

sympathetic

150
Q

parasympathetic fiber location

A

brain, sacral region of spinal cord

151
Q

parasympathetic fibers: long ___, short____

A

pre, post

152
Q

sympathetic fiber location

A

thoracic and lumbar regions

153
Q

sympathetic fibers: long ___, short____

A

post, pre

154
Q

parasympathetic ganglia location

A

effector organs

155
Q

sympathetic ganglia location

A

near spinal cord

156
Q

central NS consists of

A

brain and spinal cord

157
Q

nervous system split into (2)

A

CNS, PNS

158
Q

peripheral split into (2)

A

sensory, motor

159
Q

motor division split into (2)

A

somatic, autonomic

160
Q

sensory division connects

A

body to brain

161
Q

sensory division goes towards

A

brain

162
Q

motor division connects

A

brain to body

163
Q

motor division controls

A

body movement, blood pressure, etc.

164
Q

somatic NS controls

A

voluntary, controlled physical movement

165
Q

autonomic NS controls

A

involuntary, fight or flight

166
Q

biggest cells in body

A

neuron

167
Q

nervous tissue is composed of

A

2 types of cells

168
Q

neurons for ___
glia for _____

A

communication
support

169
Q

cell body aka

A

soma

170
Q

pre-synaptic knobs

A

connect to next cell

171
Q

neuron polarity

A

direction of nerve impulse

172
Q

pseudo-unipolar neurons for

A

sensory

173
Q

bipolar neurons in

A

nose and eye, sensory

174
Q

multipolar neurons

A

1 axon, 2+ dendrit, motor

175
Q

nearly all neurons are which type

A

multipolar

176
Q

astrocytes are to ___ as satellite are to ___

A

CNS, PNS

177
Q

astrocytes and satellite cells function

A

support neurons and maintain environment surrounding neurons

178
Q

oligodendrocytes are to ___ as schwann cells are to ____

A

CNS, PNS

179
Q

oligodendrocyte/schwann function

A

produce myelin

180
Q

microglia are part of

A

CNS

181
Q

microglia function

A

immune surveillance

182
Q

ependymal cells are part of

A

CNS

183
Q

ependymal cell function

A

CSF production

184
Q

the brain floats in

A

ependymal cells/CSF

185
Q

blood brain barrier highly

A

selective

186
Q

blood brain barrier formed by ____ joined by ______, _____, _____

A

capillary endothelial cells, tight junctions, pericytes, astrocyte foot processes

187
Q

blood brain barrier can always diffuse

A

gas and lipid soluble molecules
O2, CO2, fatty acid, caddie, nicotine, alcohol

188
Q

blood brain barrier can facilitate/sometimes diffuse

A

small polar molecules
water, electrolytes, glucose, amino acids, some hormones

189
Q

blood brain barrier never allows

A

large molecules
WBC, antibodies, toxins, pathogens

190
Q

sodium potassium pump is always

A

active

191
Q

Na-K pump flows ____ concentration gradient

A

against

192
Q

at resting membrane potential, ___ is higher inside, ___ is higher outside

A

K, Na

193
Q

ligand gated opened by

A

any molecule that binds to receptor

194
Q

gated channels always open are common in what organ

A

kidney

195
Q

mechanically gated opened by

A

physical force

196
Q

voltage gated opened by

A

voltage

197
Q

is ligand or voltage gated opening bigger

A

voltage

198
Q

threshold of activation

A

-55mV

199
Q

why does overshot happen

A

to get to at least -55

200
Q

schwann cells are never in

A

brain, spinal cord

201
Q

saltitory conduction is for

A

faster speeds

202
Q

all or nothing phenomena

A

once reach threshold, all fire

203
Q

myelinated axon ___ conduction
unmyelinated axon ___ conduction

A

saltatory
continuous

204
Q

axodendritic synapse

A

axon-dendrite

205
Q

axosomatic synapse

A

axon-soma

206
Q

axoaxonic synapse

A

axon-axon

207
Q

dendrodendritic synapse

A

dendrite-dendrite

208
Q

most common synapse type

A

axodendritic

209
Q

why does dendrodendritic happen

A

unknown

210
Q

how are synaptic messages communicated
1. nerve impulse arrives at ______
2. ____ channels activated
3. ___ triggers neurotransmitter release
4. neurotransmitters bind and ___ post synaptic ___ channel
5. ___ ions enter post-synaptic cell
6. membrane potential ___ in post synaptic cell
7. threshold of activation is reached and ______

A
  1. pre-synaptic terminal
  2. voltage gated Ca
  3. Ca
  4. open, Na
  5. Na
  6. increases
  7. AP is triggered
211
Q

a postsynaptic neuron has a resting membrane potential od -70mV. 18 neurons from axiomatic synapses at the postsynaptic neuron. near the axon hillock, 15 of the neurons process EPSPs of 2mV each, while the others produce ISPS of 3mV each. The threshold of excitation is -50mV. Will the postsynaptic cell produce an AP.

A

15(2) =30
3(3)= 9
__________
21
-70
_________
-49
yes

212
Q

conscious sedation is the practice of inducing brief, but heavy sedation of a patient, for example, to reduce. patient distress during uncomfortable procedures such as reducing a shoulder dislocation. Many pharmacological agents are available for conscious sedation, ie. Ketamine. IV administration of Ketamine rapidly induces dissociative anesthesia, a translate state providing pain relief, sedation, and amnesia by interfering with neuronal communication. While axonal impulse propagation is unaffected, synaptic transmission of signals is inhibited by ketamine by virtue of its action on presynaptic neurons.
Based on your understanding of the AP and synaptic transmission, explain the most likely mechanism of action of ketamine

A

interferes with voltage gated Ca channels

213
Q

lateral sulcus

A

temporal, frontal

214
Q

central sulcus

A

frontal, parietal

215
Q

Pareto-occipital sulcus

A

parietal, occipital

216
Q

cerebellum for

A

balance, equilibrium, coordination, fine motor movement

217
Q

diencephalon parts

A

thalamus
hypothalamus
subthalamus
epithalamus

218
Q

brainstem parts

A

midbrain, pons, medulla

219
Q

circle of willis importance

A

back up system for getting blood to brain

220
Q

artery most affected by stroke

A

middle cerebral artery

221
Q

4 main arteries of circle of willis

A

middle cerebral (left)
anterior cerebral (right top)
anterior choroidal (right middle)
posterior cerebral (right bottom)

222
Q

nipple line dermatome

A

T4

223
Q

bellybutton dermatome

A

t10

224
Q

dorsal and ventral roots merge to form ____, this then divides to _______

A

spinal nerve, posterior anterior rami

225
Q

white matter made of

A

neuronal cell axons, myelin

226
Q

gray matter made of

A

neuronal cell bodies

227
Q

in the PNS a bundle of cell bodies is called

A

ganglion

228
Q

in the CNS a bunch of cell bodies is called

A

nucleus

229
Q

dorsal root ganglion made of

A

cluster of cell bodies

230
Q

ascending pathways for

A

sensory

231
Q

descending pathways for

A

motor

232
Q

the further to the front of the spinal column, more sensory or motor, vise versa

A

motor

233
Q

post central gyrus in

A

parietal lobe

234
Q

desiccation of pyramids

A

cross at midline

235
Q

somatosensory pathways: which cross in spinal cord

A

pain, temp, coarse touch

236
Q

somatosensory pathways: which cross after in the brain

A

fine tough, vibration, pressure, proprioception

237
Q

somatosensory pathways: first order (primary) neuron type

A

pseudo-unipolar

238
Q

somatosensory pathways: second and third order neuron types

A

multipolar

239
Q

spinal cord injury complete meaning

A

entire cord

240
Q

spinal cord injury incomplete meaning

A

partial

241
Q

SCI: c4 and above

A

respiratory failure

242
Q

SCI c8 and above

A

quadriplegia

243
Q

SCI t1 and below

A

paraplegia

244
Q

SCI t6 and above

A

neurogenic shock

245
Q

SCI L1-2 and above

A

hypertonia

246
Q

SCI L1-2 and below

A

hypotonia

247
Q

hyper/hypotonia

A

spastic or flacid bladder

248
Q

sensory pathway
stimuli–>_____–>synapse–>____–>____–> synapse in ___–>______

A

dorsal ganglion, spinal, brain, thalamus, post central

249
Q

contralateral

A

opposite side

250
Q

ipsilateral

A

same side

251
Q

lateral system ___ pain
medial system ___ pain

A

find
emotions

252
Q

when nerves baseline firing rate stops what happens

A

numbness

253
Q

Ruffinis endings

A

stretch, pressure

254
Q

krauses end bulbs

A

dont know

255
Q

pacinian corpuscles

A

deep pressure, deep vibration

256
Q

meissners corpuscle

A

high pitch vibration

257
Q

merkel disks

A

sensitive, light touch, texture

258
Q

root hair plexus

A

feel hair moving

259
Q

free nerve endings

A

no attachment, temp/pain

260
Q

free nerve ending ion channels

A

mechanically gated

261
Q

number of ____+___ of AP=CNS intensity

A

receptors activated, frequency

262
Q

longer or stronger stimuli release ___ neurotransmitters

A

more

263
Q

neurotransmitter dose higher or lower depending on

A

pain level

264
Q

localizing pain

A

the receptive field of 3 primary sensory neurons overlap to form one large secondary receptive field

265
Q

______ size determines sensitivity

A

secondary receptive field

266
Q

many primary sensory neurons converge onto a single secondary neuron, secondary receptive field is ____ causing _____

A

large, two stimuli feeling like one

267
Q

when fewer primary neurons converge, secondary receptive field is ____, causing ____

A

small, separate feelings

268
Q

____ increases contrast between receptive fields

A

lateral inhibition

269
Q

lateral inhibition:
stimulus–> primary neuron response is ____to stimulus strength–>pathway ___ to stimulus inhibits neighbors–> inhibitor of lateral neurons enhances_____

A

proportional, closest, perception of stimulus

270
Q

referred pain

A

pain perceived at a location other than the painful stimulus’ site of origin

271
Q

gallbladder referred pain location

A

right shoulder

272
Q

lung referred pain

A

neck/top of chest

273
Q

heart referred pain

A

left cheek, neck, chest, arm

274
Q

spleen referred pain

A

left shoulder

275
Q

ureter referred pain

A

groin/hips

276
Q

monosynaptic reflex example

A

knee jerk

277
Q

upper motor neurons

A

conscious

278
Q

upper motor neurons inhibit

A

sensory input

279
Q

upper motor neurons membrane potential

A

more -, needs a very strong stimulus

280
Q

lower motor neurons

A

spinal cord

281
Q

above and below level of SCI, reflexes

A

work

282
Q

at the level of SCI reflexes

A

do not work

283
Q

below SCI, how does the reflex differ

A

dont feel it, more exaggerated
lose control of upper motor neuron, lose inhibition

284
Q

supralesional
upper:
lower:
reflex:

A

unaffected
unaffected
normal

285
Q

lesion
upper:
lower:
reflex:

A

affected
affected
absent

286
Q

infralesional
upper:
lower:
reflex:

A

affected
unaffected
hyperactive

287
Q

cremastic reflex

A

males, inner thigh

288
Q

spinal nerve c4/c5 reflex

A

biceps tendon

289
Q

c7/c8 reflex

A

triceps

290
Q

t8-t12 reflex

A

abdominal

291
Q

L2 reflex

A

cremastic

292
Q

L3/4 reflex

A

patellar tendon

293
Q

s1 reflex

A

achilles tendon

294
Q

babinski reflex

A

extensor plantar response, toes fanned

295
Q

craniosacral outflow belongs to

A

Parasympathetic

296
Q

thoracolumbar outflow belongs to

A

sympathetic

297
Q

autonomic dysfunction in SCI: above t6

A

loss of sympathetic innervation of heart, vessels

298
Q

autonomic dysfunction in SCI: above L1

A

upper motor neuron injury, hyperreflexic

299
Q

autonomic dysfunction in SCI: below L1

A

hyporeflexic

300
Q

sympathetic ganglion are close to

A

spinal cord

301
Q

sympathetic norepinephrine receptors

A

alpha-adrenergic receptor
beta-adrenergic receptor

302
Q

parasympathetic neurotransmitter

A

ACh

303
Q

sympathetic main neurotransmitter

A

norepinephrine

304
Q

parasympathetic ACh receptor

A

muscarinic AChR (M2)

305
Q

axon of ANS fibers contain multiple swellings called

A

varicosities

306
Q

when the neuron is stimulated the varicosities release neurotransmitters over a

A

large surface area of effector tissue

307
Q

alpha 1 receptor is stim or inhib

A

stimulatory

308
Q

alpha 1 receptor muscle

A

vascular smooth

309
Q

beta 1 receptor is stim or inhibition

A

stimulatory

310
Q

beta 1 receptor muscle

A

cardiac

311
Q

beta 2 receptor is stim or inhib

A

inhib

312
Q

beta 2 receptor muscles

A

lung smooth, liver, skeletal

313
Q

agonist

A

molecule that binds to an activates a receptor

314
Q

antagonist

A

molecule that binds to and blocks a receptor

315
Q

beta-blocker is an example of agonist or antagonist

A

antagonist

316
Q
A