CAS 101 Chapter 3-5 Flashcards

1
Q

The process by which a sperm and an ovum- the male and female gametes, respectively- join to form a single new cell

A

Fertilization/Conception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the sex cells from the mother and father that form a new cell at conception

A

Gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the new cell formed by the process of fertilization

A

Zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The basic unit of genetic information

A

Genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the substance that genes are composed of that determines the nature of every cell in the body and how it will function

A

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rod-shaped portions of DNA that are organized in 23 pairs

A

chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Accounts for the replication of most types of cells, nearly all the cells of the body will contain the same 46 chromosomes as the zygote.

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In this process, each gamete receives one of the two chromosomes that make up each of the 23 pairs.

A

Meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Twins who are genetically identical

A

Monozygotic twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Twins who are produced when two separate ova are fertilized by two separate sperm at roughly the same time

A

Dizygotic twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A trait that is expressed when two competing traits are present

A

Dominant trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A trait within an organism that is present, but is not expressed. Can only be expressed if paired with a corresponding, mutual trait

A

Recessive trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The underlying combination of genetic material present (but not outwardly visible) in an organism

A

Genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An observable trait; the trait that is actually seen

A

Phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inheriting from parents similar genes for a given trait (bb, or BB)

A

Homozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

inheriting from parents different forms of a gene for a given trait (Bb)

A

Heterozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Inherited disorder, child is unable to process an essential amino acid called phenylalanine (Phe). Phe is toxic to the brain. pp means PKU expression

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inherited, a result of damaged genes, spontaneous mutation, or environmental factors

A

Genetic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A disorder produced by the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. It occurs in about 1 in 500 births, but the risk is much greater in mothers who are unusually young or old. this is the most frequent cause of mental retardation.

A

Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Occurs when a particular gene is injured on the X chromosome. The result is mild to moderate mental retardation.

A

Fragile X syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1/10 of Americans of African descent carry genes that produce this disorder, and 1 in 400 actually have the disease. it is a blood disorder that gets its name from the shape of the red blood cell in those who have it. Symptoms include poor appetite, stunted growth, swollen stomach, and yellowish eyes. People w/ the most severe form rarely live beyond childhood, but those with less severe cases have medical advances that have produced significant increases in life expectancy.

A

sickle-cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Occurring mainly in Jews of eastern European ancestry and in French Canadians, it usually causes death before its victims reach school age. There is no treatment for the disorder, which produces blindness and muscle degeneration prior to death.

A

Tay-Sachs disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

One male out of every 400 is born with this syndrome, the presence of an extra X chromosome. Resulting XXY complement produces underdeveloped genitals, extreme height, and enlarged breasts. There are other disorders that are produced by an improper number of sex chromosomes.

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Helps people deal with issues relating to inherited disorders. Possible genetic defects can be identified by assembling a karyotype

A

Genetic counseling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A chart containing enlarged photos of each of the chromosomes.

A

Karyotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Process in which high-frequency sound waves scan the mother’s womb to produce an image of the unborn baby, whose size and shape can then be assessed

A

Ultrasound sonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Combines a blood test and ultrasound sonography in the 11th-13th week of pregnancy.

A

First-trimester screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

a test used to find genetic defects that involves taking samples of hairlike material that surrounds the embryo

A

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the process of identifying genetic defects by examining a small sample of fetal cells drawn by a needle inserted into the amniotic fluid surrounding the unborn fetus

A

Amniocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Patterns of arousal and emotionality that represent consistent and enduring characteristics in an individual

A

Temperament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Three stages: germinal, embryonic, and fetal

A

Prenatal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fertilization to 2 weeks. The first and shortest stage of the prenatal period in which the zygote begins to divide and grow in complexity during the first 2 weeks following conception. The fertilized egg travels toward the uterus, where it becomes implanted in the uterus’s wall.

A

Germinal stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Serves as a conduit between the mother and fetus, providing nourishment and oxygen to the developing zygote.

A

Placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Period from two to eight weeks following fertilization. One of the highlights of this stage is the development of the major organs and basic anatomy.

A

Embryonic stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Outer layer of the embryo that will form skin, hair, teeth, sense organs, and the brain and spinal cord.

A

Ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Inner layer that produces the digestive system, liver, pancreas, and respiratory system.

A

Endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The muscles, bones, blood, and circulatory system are forged.

A

Mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Starts at about 8 weeks after conception and continues until birth. It formally starts when the differentiation of the major organs has occurred.

A

Fetal stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An insulating material that coats the fetus’s neurons and helps speed the transmission of messages from the brain to the rest of the body.

A

myelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The inability to conceive after 12-18 months of trying to become pregnant. Some 15% of couples suffer from this, and it is highly correlated with age.

A

Infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

a procedure in which a man’s sperm is placed directly into a woman’s vagina by a physician.

A

artificial insemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A procedure in which a woman’s ova are removed from her ovaries, and a man’s sperm are used to fertilize the ova in a laboratory.

A

In vitro fertilization (IVF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A spontaneous abortion that occurs when pregnancy ends before the developing child is able to survive outside the mother’s womb. The embryo detaches from the wall of the uterus and is expelled. Some 15-20% of all pregnancies end with this result.

A

miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A mother voluntarily chooses to terminate pregnancy. It is a complex set of physical, psychological, legal, and ethical issues that make the choice difficult for every woman.

A

Abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

An environmental agent such as a drug, chemical, virus, or other factor that produces a birth defect.

A

Teratogen

46
Q

a disorder that may include below-average intelligence and sometimes mental retardation, delayed growth, and facial deformities. Approximately 1/750 infants are born with this. It is now the primary preventable cause of mental retardation.

A

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

47
Q

a condition in which children display some, although not all, of the problems of FAS due to their mother’s consumption of alcohol during pregnancy.

A

Fetal alcohol effects (FAE)

48
Q

The term used for newborns.

A

Neonates

49
Q

An incision that is sometimes made to increase the size of the opening of the vagina.

A

episiotomy

50
Q

The uterine contractions initially occur around every 8 to 10 minutes and last about 30 seconds. Contractions occur more frequently as they increase to their greatest intensity in a period known as transition. labor takes 16 to 24 hours for firstborn children.

A

First stage of labor

51
Q

Typically lasts around 90 minutes, the baby’s head emerges further from the mother with each contraction. Labor ends when the baby has completely left the mother’s body.

A

Second stage of labor

52
Q

About 266 days after conception, this triggers the release of various hormones

A

CRH

53
Q

Child’s umbilical cord and placenta are expelled from the mother. The quickest and easiest stage of labor, taking just a few minutes.

A

Third stage of labor

54
Q

Uses breathing and relaxation techniques. Mothers learn strategies with their “coach” during training sessions. Goal of training is learning to cope with pain by focusing on breathing and relaxation.

A

Lamaze birthing techniques

55
Q

“Husband-coached childbirth.” Based on principle that childbirth should be as natural as possible. Mothers are taught to tune-in to their bodies through relaxation techniques and good health practices. There are no medical interventions or medicine.

A

Bradley Method

56
Q

Uses a form of self-hypnosis to produce a place of peace and calm to deal with the pain. Produce focused concentration to relax and focus inward. Research supports its effectiveness in reducing pain.

A

Hypnobirthing

57
Q

Physicians who specialize in delivering babies. Have been the childbirth attendant of choice.

A

Obstetrician

58
Q

Nurses that specialize in childbirth. used primarily in pregnancies in which no complications are expected.

A

midwife

59
Q

A person trained to provide emotional, psychological, and educational support. Does not replace traditional obstetricians or do medical exams.

A

Doula

60
Q

Numbs pain from the waist down. It is a huge one-time use needle.

A

epidural

61
Q

Multiple shots that gradually reduces pain

A

Dual-spinal epidural

62
Q

Born prior to 38 weeks after conception (also known as premature infants). Unusually sensitive to environmental stimuli, uncoordinated movements, slower development, mild problems such as lower than average IQ, difficulties with physical coordination, learning disabilities, behavioral disorders, etc.

A

Preterm infants (check notes for traits)

63
Q

Weigh less than 2,500 grams (around 5 1/2 pounds) at birth

A

Low-birthweight infants (LBW)

64
Q

Because of delayed fetal growth, weigh 90% (or less) of the average weight of infants of the same gestational age

A

Small-for-gestational-age infants

65
Q

Newborn that weighs 3,400 grams (7 1/2 pounds)

A

Average newborn

66
Q

Weigh less than 1250 grams (around 2 1/4 pounds) or have been in the womb fewer than 30 weeks regardless of weight. In grave danger the moment they are born due to immaturity of organ systems. Age of viability is 22 weeks. Experiences major physical and cognitive problems.

A

very-low-birthweight infants

67
Q

Technique used to support VLBW infants. They are held skin-to-skin against parents’ chests

A

Kangaroo care

68
Q

Birth in which the baby is surgically removed from uterus, rather than traveling through birth canal. This makes up 32% of all deliveries. This occurs most frequently when fetus shows distress or fi it has a large head.

A

Cesarean delivery

69
Q

Period of deep depression following the birth of a child. Affects 10% of all new mothers. Symptoms may include enduring, deep feelings of sadness and unhappiness that lasts months or even years. In most severe cases, a total break from reality may ensue. May be triggered by pronounced swings in hormone production that occur after birth.

A

Postpartum depression

70
Q

Linked to caesarean deliveries and can detect the heartbeats of a neonate.

A

Fetal monitor

71
Q

Death within the first year of life. Rates in US higher than many other countries. Higher rate of low-birthweight and preterm deliveries, higher poverty, and poorer medical care.

A

Infant mortality

72
Q

The delivery of a child who is not alive, occurring in fewer than 1 delivery in 100.

A

Stillbirth

73
Q

A restriction of oxygen to the baby, lasting a few minutes during the birth process, which can produce brain damage and can result in language delays and/or intellectual disabilities. One cause may be that the umbilical cord gets pinched or wraps around the fetus’s neck.

A

anoxia

74
Q

A standard measurement system that looks for a variety of indications of good health in newborns. Appearance, Pulse, Grimace/reflex irritability, Activity/muscle tone, and Respiration.

A

APGAR scale

75
Q

A thick, greasy substance that smooths the passage through the birth canal.

A

Vernix

76
Q

Fine, dark fuzz that covers the newborn.

A

Lanugo

77
Q

due to accumulation of liquids during birth

A

Puffy eyes

78
Q

When an object is placed into the baby’s mouth, the infant will suck on it. Assists the infant with breastfeeding and ingesting food.

A

Sucking and swallowing reflex

79
Q

When touched on the cheek, a baby will turn his or her head to the side where he or she felt the touch and seek to put the object into his or her mouth.

A

rooting reflex

80
Q

Unlearned, organized involuntary responses that occur automatically in the presence of certain stimuli.

A

Reflexes

81
Q

A greenish-black material that is a remnant of the neonate’s days as a fetus.

A

Meconimum

82
Q

Liver doesn’t work effectively at first, which gives newborns a yellowish tinge to their eyes. It is not dangerous but is most likely to occur in preterm and low-weight neonates. Treatment consists of putting baby under fluorescent lights or administering medicine.

A

Neonatal jaundice

83
Q

The decrease in the response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same stimulus. Difficulties habituating may be due to intellectual disability.

A

Habituation

84
Q

When infants become quiet, attentive, and their heart rate slows, as they take in novel stimuli.

A

Orienting response

85
Q
  • Clear that some forms of imitation begin very early in life. Variations in research result about when true imitation begins. Neonate characteristics mesh with adult behavior to help produce social relationships. Social interactive capabilities of infants and caregivers’ subsequent responses are precursors to future social interactions.
A

Social competence

86
Q

Different degrees of sleep and wakefulness through which newborns cycle, ranging from deep sleep to great agitation.

A

States of arousal

87
Q

States that growth follows a direction and pattern that begins with the head and upper body parts and then proceeds to the rest of the body.

A

Cephalocaudal principle

88
Q

States that development proceeds from the center of the body outward. The trunk of the body grows before the extremities of the arms and legs.

A

Proximodistal principle

89
Q

Simple skills typically develop separately and independently. Later they are integrated into more complex skills.

A

Principle of Hierarchical Integration

90
Q

Different body systems grow at different rates

A

Principle of the Independence of Systems

91
Q

The process whereby certain functions are located more in one hemisphere of the brain than in the other. Increasing differentiation and specialization in two hemispheres, which act in tandem.

A

Lateralization

92
Q

The degree to which a developing behavior or physical structure is modifiable.

A

Plasticity

93
Q

Process eliminates weaker synaptic contacts while stronger connections are kept and strengthened.

A

Synaptic pruning

94
Q

Plays an important role in honing fine motor skills and several other aspects of development. The production of art involves practice with tools such as paintbrushes, crayons, pencils, and markers. This can allow preschoolers to learn how to gain motor control skills that will help them learn to write.

A

Art development

95
Q

The end product appears to be random scrawls across a paper that can be categorized into 20 distinct types, such as horizontal lines and zigzags.

A

Scribbling stage

96
Q

By age 3, the art of infants are marked by the appearance of shapes such as squares and circles. Children draw shapes such as X’s and plus signs.

A

shape stage

97
Q

Characterized by the ability to combine more than one simple shape into a more complex one.

A

Design stage

98
Q

Between the ages of 4 and 5. Drawings begin to approximate recognizable objects.

A

Pictorial stage

99
Q

The period during which the sexual organs mature. it begins earlier for girls (11-12 y/o) at around (13-14 y/o)

A

Puberty

100
Q

The onset of menstruation and the most obvious signal of puberty.

A

Menarche

101
Q

A pattern of change occurring over several generations. Occurs when a physical characteristic changes over the course of several generations, such as earlier onset of menstruation or increased height that has occurred because of better nutrition over the centuries.

A

secular trend

102
Q

Associated with the development of the organs and structures of the body that directly relate to reproduction. Girls: Changes in the vagina and uterus. Boys: penis and scrotum grow, enlargement of the prostate gland and seminal vesicles, which produce semen.

A

Primary sex characteristics

103
Q

Visible signs of sexual maturity that do not involve the sex of organs directly. Boys: pubic hair, underarm, and facial hair grows. Boys’ voices deepen as the vocal cords become longer and the larynx becomes larger. Girls: Development of breasts and pubic hair, as well as underarm hair appearing two years.

A

secondary sex characteristics

104
Q

The physical stimulation of the sense organs

A

Sensation

105
Q

The mental process of sorting out, interpretating, analyzing, and integrating stimuli from the sense organs and brain.

A

Perception

106
Q

The ability to combine the images coming to each eye to see depth and motion, is achieved at around 14 weeks.

A

Binocular vision

107
Q

Infants reliably prefer to look at stimuli that include patterns than to look at simpler stimuli. They are genetically preprogrammed to prefer particular kinds of stimuli.

A

Visual preference

108
Q

Infants can hear from the time of birth and responds to sounds outside of the womb. Infants are more sensitive to certain very high and very low frequencies than adults but are less sensitive than adults to middle-range frequencies.

A

Auditory perception

109
Q

Permits us to pinpoint the direction from which a sound is emanating. Infants have difficulty determining from which direction sound is coming because their heads are smaller than adults.

A

Sound location

110
Q

Infants can listen with a keen ear to the melodies of lullabies their mothers and fathers sing to them. Infants can discriminate groups of different sounds based on their patterns and other acoustical characteristics.

A

Preferences & ability to discriminate