Pregnancy and Chronic Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

Risks of pregnancy with diabetes

A

Fetal growth restriction
Spontaneous abortion
Major congenital malformations (congenital heart, neural tube, limb) - related to metabolic control in 1st trimester

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2
Q

Complications of ACEi use during pregnancy

A

2nd trimester: impaired fetal renal function
Oligohydramnios
Fetal growth restriction
Anuria
Renal failure
Hypotension
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Joint contractures
Death

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3
Q

When should zidovidine be administered for pregnant HIV patient?

A

IV in labor and for neonate

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4
Q

When is cesarian indicated for HIV patient?

A

Viral loads >1,000 copies/mL and prior to labor

Less benefit after onset of labor or ruptured membranes

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5
Q

Acute treatment of thyroid storm in pregnancy

A

Propylthiouracil (decreases thyroid hormone synthesis)
Propranolol
Sodium iodide
IV fluid replacement
Dexamethasone

DO NOT give radioactive iodine

Note: propylthiouracil also given for Graves disease management during pregnancy

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6
Q

Homeless women are at highest risk for what pregnancy complication?

A

Preterm birth (even after controlling for smoking)
Low birth weight

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7
Q

When should patients be screened for gestational diabetes, and how?

A

24-28 weeks for those without risk factors
First visit for those who do

1-hr 50-g oral glucose challenge test, followed by diagnostic 3-hr 100-g oral glucose tolerance test if initial results exceed

2-hr 75-g OGTT omits screening test

If early test normal, repeat between 24-28 weeks

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8
Q

Treatment for bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole or clindamycin

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9
Q

What maternal heart diseases can be acquired during pregnancy?

A

Heart failure, arrhythmia, MI, aortic dissection

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10
Q

What to do for symptomatic mitral valve prolapse?

A

Beta-blocker

Symptoms include anxiety, chest pain, palpitations, syncope

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11
Q

Which thalassemias are most severe?

A

Beta thalassemia
HbH disease (Alpha thalassemia with 3 nonfunctioning genes)

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12
Q

Obesity increases risk of…?

A

cHTN, GDM, preeclampsia, fetal macrosomia, C-section, postpartum complications

NOT preterm labor, post-term pregnancy, small for gestational age, or malpresentation

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13
Q

When should anticoagulation be given if history of VTE?

A

When pregnancy is diagnosed and inclusive of postpartum period; risk is highest in 3rd trimester and then even higher postpartum

Unfractionated heparin and LMWH

VTE more likely to occur with C-section compared to vaginal

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14
Q

Pruritis during pregnancy

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy –> bile salt retention –> pruritis

Treat with ursodeoxycholic acid if resistant to antihistamines, topical steroids, topical emollients, or opioid antagonist naltrexone

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15
Q

Challenge of appendicitis during pregnancy

A

Uterus may shift appendix up and out toward the flank
Symptoms similar to normal pregnancy symptoms

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16
Q

Patients with gastric bypass are at risk for…?

A

Iron deficiency, especially pregnant patients

17
Q

What are the signs of Mg toxicity, and what should you do

A

Muscle weakness; loss of reflexes; nausea; respiratory depression; cardiac arrest at very high doses

Discontinue and give calcium gluconate

18
Q

What is 2nd-line for eclampsia if Mg is contraindicated?

A

Valium; barbiturates

19
Q

At what levels does Mg cause which side effects?

A

Therapeutic: 4-7 mEq/L
Loss of reflexes: 7-10
Respiratory depression: 11
Cardiac arrest: 15

20
Q

When should baby aspirin be given for patient with hx of preeclampsia in previous pregnancy?

A

Before 16 wga and until term (also decreases risk of fetal growth restriction)

21
Q

How would lupus affect fetus?

A

Bradycardia due to AV block, caused by transfer of maternal anti-SSA (Ro) and anti-SSB (La) Ab

22
Q

What is treatment for sickle cell pain in pregnancy?

A

Fluid resuscitation and opioid pain control

23
Q

Sickle cell in pregnancy predisposes to what major condition?

A

Preeclampsia and its sequelae, requiring more frequent prenatal visits, baseline protein testing, and low-dose aspirin

24
Q

How does pregnancy unmask undiagnosed diabetes insipidus?

A

Placenta produces vasopressinase, which further breaks down vasopressin (ADH) and exacerbates

Normal sodium

25
Q

When should thyroidectomy be performed during pregnancy if absolutely necessary?

A

2nd trimester

26
Q

Gestational diabetes - postpartum management

A

Fasting glucose at 24-72 hr
2-hr 75-g GTT at 6- to 12-week visit (compare to 1-hr 50-g GCT or 3-hr 100-g GTT screening in 2nd trimester)

If negative, continue to screen every 3 years

27
Q

Gestational diabetes - 2nd-line management after diet

A

Insulin, glyburide (sulfonylurea, causes pancreas to produce insulin), metformin

28
Q

Fetus with spina bifida should be delivered how and why?

A

Cesarean delivery, even if repaired in utero (due to risk of uterine rupture with labor)

If not repaired in utero, cesarean is required because:
-Limited fetal mobility due to neural tube defect (NTD) space occupation
-Hydrocephalus from increased ventricular size with NTD

Also see:
-Polyhydramnios (due to impaired fetal swallowing, particularly with higher-level NTD such as anencephaly)
-Fetal growth restriction

29
Q

Indications for cell-free fetal DNA testing

A

Maternal age >=35
Abnormal maternal serum screening test (e.g. quadruple screen)
Abnormal ultrasound consistent with fetal aneuploidy
Prior pregnancy with fetal aneuploidy
Parental-balanced Robertsonian translocation

Can be performed at >=10 weeks gestation

Abnormal results confirmed by fetal karyotyping via 1st-trimester CVS or 2nd-trimester amniocentesis

30
Q

What is required for diagnosis of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome during pregnancy?

A

One of the following clinical + one lab showing positive Ab:
>=3 consecutive, unexplained fetal losses before 10th week
>=1 unexplained fetal loss after 10th week
>=1 premature birth of normal neonates before 34th week due to preeclampsia, eclampsia, or placental insufficiency
or hx of vascular thrombosis (arterial or venous, regardless of pregnancy)

APAS Ab can cause false positive VDRL or artificially prolonged aPTT

They disrupt function of platelets and vascular endothelial cells to create hypercoagulable state