Chapter 13-28 study

Question 1

As part of the learning process, the __________ can rework electrical connections as new information arrives.

A. brain
B. hypothalamus gland
C. nerves
D. heart

Answer 1

A. brain

Question 2

Which system controls and adjusts the activities of other organ systems?

A. nervous system
B. digestive system
C. lymphoid system
D. cardiovascular system

Answer 2

A. nervous system

Question 3

Which of the following is known as the visceral motor system?

A. efferent division
B. autonomic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. afferent division

Answer 3

B. autonomic nervous system

Question 4

The afferent division begins at the __________.

A. effector
B. somatic
C. receptor
D. visceral

Answer 4

C. receptor

Question 5

Which division of the nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord and the control centers responsible for processing?

A. central nervous system
B. peripheral nervous system
C. autonomic nervous system
D. All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 5

A. central nervous system

Question 6

What is an axon?

A. a long, slender cytoplasmic process of a neuron that is capable of propagation and action potential

B. a membranous wrapping that increases the speed of action potential propagation

C. a neuronal process that is specialized to respond to specific stimuli in the extracellular environment

D. the cell body of a neuron

Answer 6

A. a long, slender cytoplasmic process of a neuron that is capable of propagation and action potential

Question 7

Action potentials are the change in the __________ that develops after the plasmalemma is stimulated to a level known as threshold.

A. effector
B. reflex
C. membrane potential
D. receptor

Answer 7

C. membrane potential

Question 8

Which cell in the central nervous system is the largest and most numerous glial cell, maintains the blood–brain barrier, provides structural support, and absorbs and recycles neurotransmitters?

A. oligodendrocyte
B. microglia
C. astrocyte
D. ependymal cell

Answer 8

C. astrocyte

Question 9

Which type of neuron has continuous dendritic and axonal processes and has a cell body that lies off to one side?

A. anaxonic neuron
B. bipolar neuron
C. pseudounipolar neuron
D. multipolar neuron

Answer 9

C. pseudounipolar neuron

Question 10

Which sensory receptors monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints?

A. interoceptors
B. exteroceptors
C. proprioceptors
D. None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 10

C. proprioceptors

Question 11

Which cells in the peripheral nervous system regulate the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the neuron cell body and the extracellular fluid?

A. satellite cells
B. neurolemmocytes
C. Schwann cells
D. All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 11

A. satellite cells

Question 12

Why is it complicated for regeneration to occur within the central nervous system?

A. Astrocytes release chemicals that block the regrowth of axons.
B. Astrocytes produce scar tissue that can prevent axon growth across the damaged area.
C. Many more axons are likely to be involved.
D. All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 12

D. All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 13

Place the steps involved in the repair of a peripheral nerve in order from beginning to end.

1. Axon sends buds into network of Schwann cells and then starts growing along cord of Schwann cells.
2. Fragmentation of axon and myelin occurs in distal stump.
3. Axon continues to grow into distal stump and is enfolded by Schwann cells.
4. Schwann cells form cord, grow into cut, and unite stumps. Macrophages engulf degenerating axon and myelin.

A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 3, 1, 2, 4
C. 3, 4, 1, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2

Answer 13

D. 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 14

__________ is the ability of a plasmalemma to respond to an adequate stimulus.

A. inhibitory
B. electrical synapse
C. excitability
D. chemical synapse

Answer 14

C. excitability

Question 15

Place the sequence of events of a chemical vesicular synapse in order from start to finish.

1. Receptor binding results in a change in the permeability of the postsynaptic cell membrane.
2. Arrival of the action potential at the terminal bouton triggers release of neurotransmitter from secretory vesicles, through exocytosis at the presynaptic membrane.
3. The effects of one action potential on the postsynaptic membrane are short-lived because the neurotransmitter molecules are either enzymatically broken down or reabsorbed.
4. The neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
5. If the degree of excitation is sufficient, receptor binding may lead to the generation of an action potential in the axon or sarcolemma.

A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
B. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
C. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
D. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

Answer 15

A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

Question 16

The following are collections of neuron cell bodies in the central nervous system.

A. columns
B. ganglia
C. tracts
D. nuclei

Answer 16

D. nuclei

Question 17

Which function of a neural circuit occurs when several neurons or neuronal pools are processing the same information at one time?

A. parallel processing
B. divergence
C. convergence
D. serial processing

Answer 17

A. parallel processing

Question 18

What term is used to describe a group of interconnected neurons with specific functions that is defined on the basis of function rather than anatomical grounds?

A. neural circuit
B. nonvesicular synapse
C. neuronal pool
D. vesicular synapse

Answer 18

C. neuronal pool

Question 19

Which portion of gray matter in the central nervous system is located on the surface of the brain?

A. neural cortex
B. centers
C. nuclei
D. higher centers

Answer 19

A. neural cortex

Question 20

A collection of neuron cell bodies with a common function is referred to as __________.

A. columns
B. tracts
C. center
D. pathways

Answer 20

C. center

Question 21

A group of neuron cell bodies in the central nervous system, which share a common function, is known as a _______________.

A. center
B. tract
C. column
D. neural cortex
E. soma
F. ganglion

Answer 21

A. center

Question 22

Sensory neurons of the peripheral nervous system are usually _______________.

A. multipolar
B. anaxonic
C. pseudounipolar
D. bipolar
E. multipolar AND anaxonic
F. multipolar AND pseudounipolar

Answer 22

C. pseudounipolar

Question 23

Which of the following is/are NOT (a) function(s) of ependymal cells?

A. They line the ventricles in the brain and the central canal in the spinal cord.

B. They assist in producing, circulating, and monitoring cerebrospinal fluid.

C. They remove cell debris, wastes, and pathogens by phagocytosis.

D. They regulate ion, nutrient, and dissolved-gas concentrations.

E. They remove cell debris, wastes, and pathogens by phagocytosis AND they regulate ion, nutrient, and dissolved-gas concentrations.

Answer 23

E. They remove cell debris, wastes, and pathogens by phagocytosis AND they regulate ion, nutrient, and dissolved-gas concentrations.

Question 24

Which of the following receptors monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints?

A. interneurons
B. exteroceptors
C. proprioceptors
D. neuroeffectors
E. interoceptors
F. visceral motor neurons

Answer 24

C. proprioceptors

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT a type of neuroglia found in the central nervous system (CNS)?

A. satellite cells
B. astrocytes
C. ependymal cells
D. microglia
E. oligodendrocytes

Answer 25

A. satellite cells

Question 26

Nerve impulses would travel most quickly through axons of which of the following characteristics?

A. 20 µm diameter, unmyelinated
B. 15 µm diameter, unmyelinated
C. 20 µm diameter, myelinated
D. 0.5 µm diameter, myelinated
E. 0.5 µm diameter, unmyelinated
F. 1 µm diameter, myelinated

Answer 26

C. 20 µm diameter, myelinated

Question 27

Which of the following structures is/are usually lost by neurons during differentiation?

A. neurofibrils
B. neurofilaments
C. centrioles
D. Nissl bodies
E. chromatophilic substance
F. perikaryon

Answer 27

C. centrioles

Question 28

Which of the following neural circuits is characterized by a system in which information is relayed in a stepwise sequence, from one neuron to another, or from one neural pool to the next, and in a sequential manner?

A. reverberation
B. Wallerian processing
C. serial processing
D. parallel processing
E. divergence
F. convergence

Answer 28

C. serial processing

Question 29

Which of the following most accurately describes the neuroglia of the central nervous system (CNS)?

A. Cytoplasmic processes of astrocytes facilitate the exchange of proteins with the extracellular fluid within the CNS.

B. The processes of oligodendrocytes are slender and more numerous compared to those of astrocytes, and they tie clusters of axons together and improve the functional performance of neurons.

C. The microglia appear early in embryonic development through the division of endodermal stem cells.

D. The astrocytes are packed with neurofibrils that extend across the breadth of the cell, forming a structural network that supports the neurons of the brain and spinal cord.

E. Ependymal cells are cuboidal to columnar in form, have slender processes that branch extensively, and make direct contact with glial cells.

Answer 29

E. Ependymal cells are cuboidal to columnar in form, have slender processes that branch extensively, and make direct contact with glial cells.

Question 30

Which of the following statements regarding peripheral nerve regeneration after injury is FALSE?

A. The injured axon sends buds into a network of Schwann cells.

B. Fragmentation of the axon and myelin occurs in the proximal stump.

C. Macrophages engulf the degenerating axon and myelin.

D. The axon is enfolded by Schwann cells.

Answer 30

B. Fragmentation of the axon and myelin occurs in the proximal stump.

Question 31

Neurons that are located entirely within the brain and spinal cord, that outnumber all other neurons combined (in both total number and in types), and that process sensory information and coordinate motor activity are known as

Answer 31

interneurons

Question 32

In the embryonic brain, astrocytes appear to be involved in directing the growth and interconnection of developing neurons through the secretion of chemicals known as

Answer 32

neurotropic factors

Question 33

The white matter of the central nervous system (CNS) contains bundles of axons that share common origins, destinations, and functions. These bundles are called

Answer 33

tracts

Question 34

Every peripheral axon, whether it is unmyelinated or myelinated, is covered by

Answer 34

Schwann cells, neurolemmocytes

Question 35

The perikaryon of a representative neuron contains groups of fixed and free ribosomes that are present in large numbers and are called

Answer 35

chromatophilic substance, Nissl bodies

Question 36

During nerve regeneration in the peripheral nervous system, after injury, oligodendrocytes form a cord, grow into the cut, and unite stumps.

True or False

Answer 36

False

Question 37

Sensory neurons of the peripheral nervous system are usually of this structural classification, and they may have myelinated axons and have a single elongate process with the cell body situated to one side.

Answer 37

pseudounipolar neurons

Question 38

This is a functional classification of neurons that innervate peripheral effectors other than skeletal muscles. There are two groups; one has cell bodies inside the CNS, and the other has cells in the peripheral ganglia.

Answer 38

visceral motor neurons

Question 39

This is a functional classification of neurons that transmit information about internal conditions and the status of other organ systems.

Answer 39

visceral sensory neurons

Question 40

Relatively rare, this structural classification of neurons plays an important role in relaying sensory information concerning sight, smell, and hearing, and it also has two processes separated by the cell body.

Answer 40

bipolar neurons

Question 41

This is a structural classification of neurons with poorly understood functions that are found only in the central nervous system and in special sense organs. They have more than two processes, but the axons cannot be distinguished from dendrites.

Answer 41

anaxonic neurons

Question 42

Which of the following is the most common type of neuron in the central nervous system, having several dendrites and one axon and being exemplified by all the motor neurons that control skeletal muscle?

A. pseudounipolar neurons
B. bipolar neurons
C. anaxonic neurons
D. multipolar neurons

Answer 42

D. multipolar neurons

Question 43

Histologically, neural tissue dominated by myelinated axons is defined as __________.

A. gray matter
B. neural cortex
C. neuroglia
D. white matter

Answer 43

D. white matter

Question 44

A synapse between neurons may involve a synaptic terminal and which of the following structures?

A. a dendrite
B. an axon
C. a cell body
D. All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 44

D. All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 45

Axons connecting the ganglion cells with the peripheral effectors are known as which of the following?

A. terminal arborizations
B. postganglionic fibers
C. terminal boutons
D. preganglionic fibers

Answer 45

B. postganglionic fibers

Question 46

Which of the following divisions carries motor commands to muscles and glands?

A. the efferent division of the central nervous system

B. the afferent division of the central nervous system

C. the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system

D. the afferent division of the peripheral nervous system

Answer 46

C. the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system

Question 47

Many oligodendrocytes cooperate in the formation of the myelin sheath along the entire length of a myelinated axon; the relatively large areas wrapped in myelin are called

Answer 47

internodes

Question 48

Which cells appear early in embryonic development through the division of mesodermal stem cells?

A. Schwann cells
B. oligodendrocytes
C. ependymal cells
D. microglia

Answer 48

D. microglia

Question 49

Schwann cells sheathe every axon in the peripheral nervous system.

True OR False

Answer 49

False

Question 50

Histologically, neuronal processes that are specialized to respond to specific stimuli in the extracellular environment are called

Answer 50

dendrites

Question 51

Which of the following components of the nervous system controls skeletal muscle contractions?

A. somatic nervous system
B. autonomic nervous system
C. parasympathetic nervous system
D. sympathetic nervous system

Answer 51

A. somatic nervous system

Question 52

Which of the following statements regarding Schwann cells is/are true?

A. Unmyelinated axons are enclosed by Schwann cell processes.

B. A Schwann cell can myelinate only about 10 mm down the length of a single axon.

C. A single Schwann cell may surround several different unmyelinated axons.

D. Both the statement “Unmyelinated axons are enclosed by Schwann cell processes” and the statement “A single Schwann cell may surround several different unmyelinated axons” are true.

Answer 52

D. Both the statement “Unmyelinated axons are enclosed by Schwann cell processes” and the statement “A single Schwann cell may surround several different unmyelinated axons” are true.

Question 53

The cell bodies of sensory neurons and visceral motor neurons within the peripheral nervous system are found in which of the following structures?

A. ganglia
B. tracts
C. columns
D. pathways

Answer 53

A. ganglia

Question 54

Astrocytes within the central nervous system are packed with microfilaments that extend across the breadth of the cell, forming a structural framework that supports the neurons of the brain and spinal cord.

True OR False

Answer 54

True

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes?

A. produce myelin, which wraps axons and functions as an insulator

B. perform repairs in damaged neural tissue

C. guide neuron development

D. maintain the blood–brain barrier

Answer 55

A. produce myelin, which wraps axons and functions as an insulator

Question 56

Some neural circuits utilize positive feedback to produce which of the following?

A. convergence
B. serial processing
C. reverberation
D. divergence

Answer 56

C. reverberation

Question 57

Neuron cell bodies in the peripheral ganglia are surrounded by ________
, which regulate the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the neuron cell body and the extracellular fluid.

Answer 57

satellite cells

Question 58

In a multipolar neuron, which specialized region connects the initial segment of the axon to the soma?

A. collateral
B. axon hillock
C. terminal bouton
D. telodendria

Answer 58

B. axon hillock

Question 59

Regarding nerve impulses, an action potential develops immediately before the plasmalemma is stimulated to threshold.

True OR False

Answer 59

False

Question 60

Which of the following statements regarding interoceptors is FALSE?

A. They monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints.

B. They monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems.

C. They provide sensations of deep pressure and pain.

D. They provide the sensation of taste.

Answer 60

A. They monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints.

Question 61

In the peripheral nervous system, the process known as __________
defines the deterioration of an axon distal to a site of injury.

Answer 61

Wallerian degeneration

Question 62

The ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord are lined by a cellular layer called the ___________

Answer 62

ependyma, ependymal cells

Question 63

Demyelination is NOT associated with which of the following conditions?

A. diphtheria
B. rabies
C. multiple sclerosis
D. Guillain-Barré syndrome

Answer 63

B. rabies

Question 64

Label

Answer 64

Question 65

Label

Answer 65

Question 66

Label

Answer 66

Question 67

Label

Answer 67

Question 68

Label the Neuronal Pools

Answer 68

Question 69

The __________ consists of the brain and spinal cord.
a) somatic nervous system (SNS)
b) peripheral nervous system (PNS)
c) central nervous system (CNS)
d) autonomic nervous system (ANS)

Answer 69

c) central nervous system (CNS)

Question 70

The adult spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the inferior border of the __________.
a) L1 vertebra
b) L2 vertebra
c) L3 vertebra
d) L4 vertebra

Answer 70

a) L1 vertebra

Question 71

Which of the following describes a filum terminale?
a) It extends from the conus medullaris along the length of the vertebral canal as far as the dorsum of the coccyx.
b) It is a slender strand of fibrous tissue.
c) Its origin is the inferior tip of the conus medullaris.
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 71

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 72

Where are the denticulate ligaments located?
a) arachnoid mater
b) pia mater
c) dura mater
d) subarachnoid space

Answer 72

b) pia mater

Question 73

What is the outermost covering of the spinal cord and brain?
a) arachnoid mater
b) pia mater
c) dura mater
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 73

c) dura mater

Question 74

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with the cervical vertebrae?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 12

Answer 74

c) 7

Question 75

The arachnoid mater consists of simple squamous epithelium and is separated from the pia mater by which of the following?
a) denticulate ligaments
b) subdural space
c) epidural space
d) subarachnoid space

Answer 75

d) subarachnoid space

Question 76

The projections of gray matter toward the outer surface of the spinal cord are called __________.
a) descending tracts
b) ascending tracts
c) horns
d) central canal

Answer 76

c) horns

Question 77

Which white mater columns are between the posterior gray horns and the posterior median sulcus?
a) lateral white columns
b) posterior white columns
c) anterior white columns
d) None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 77

b) posterior white columns

Question 78

Which gray horns contain neurons concerned with somatic motor control?
a) gray commissures
b) lateral gray horns
c) anterior gray horns
d) posterior gray horns

Answer 78

c) anterior gray horns

Question 79

Which of the following statements about spinal contusion is true?
a) It occurs when the spinal cord becomes physically squeezed or distorted within the vertebral canal.
b) It produces a period of spinal shock due to a jolt of energy.
c) It occurs when the spinal cord is completely severed.
d) It is hemorrhage occurring in the meninges and within the spinal cord as a result of whiplash or falls.

Answer 79

d) It is hemorrhage occurring in the meninges and within the spinal cord as a result of whiplash or falls.

Question 80

Which spinal segment of the cervical plexus innervates the skin of the upper chest, shoulder, neck, and ear?
a) C3–C5
b) C1–C5
c) C2–C3
d) C1–C4

Answer 80

c) C2–C3

Question 81

Which nerve of the brachial plexus innervates the serratus anterior muscle?
a) subscapular nerve
b) suprascapular nerve
c) long thoracic nerve
d) dorsal scapular nerve

Answer 81

c) long thoracic nerve

Question 82

Which nerve of the lumbar plexus innervates the adductor muscles of the hip, the gracilis muscle, and skin over the medial surface of the thigh?
a) femoral nerve
b) obturator nerve
c) saphenous nerve
d) genitofemoral nerve

Answer 82

b) obturator nerve

Question 83

Which nerve of the sacral plexus innervates the skin of the perineum and the posterior surface of the thigh and leg?
a) gluteal nerve
b) posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
c) pudendal nerve
d) sciatic nerve

Answer 83

b) posterior femoral cutaneous nerve

Question 84

Which nerve plexus innervates the pectoral girdle and upper limbs?
a) brachial plexus
b) lumbar plexus
c) sacral plexus
d) cervical plexus

Answer 84

a) brachial plexus

Question 85

Place in order the following steps of a stretch reflex.
1) activation of a motor neuron
2) arrival of stimulus and activation of the receptor
3) response by effector
4) information processing in the CNS
5) activation of a sensory neuron

a) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
b) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
d) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1

Answer 85

b) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

Question 86

Which type of reflex is genetically determined?
a) innate reflex
b) acquired reflex
c) somatic reflex
d) visceral reflex

Answer 86

a) innate reflex

Question 87

Place in order the following steps of the stretch reflex.
1) stimulus
2) information processing at a motor neuron
3) response
4) activation of a sensory neuron
5) activation of motor neuron

a) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
b) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
c) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
d) 1, 2, 4, 2, 5

Answer 87

b) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

Question 88

Which type of reflex controls the actions of smooth and cardiac muscles and the actions of glands?
a) acquired reflex
b) spinal reflex
c) visceral reflex
d) somatic reflex

Answer 88

c) visceral reflex

Question 89

The spinal meninges surround the dorsal and ventral roots within the intervertebral foramina.

True or False

Answer 89

True

Question 90

Which of the following is an example of a reflex classification based on the nature of the resulting motor response?
a) monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes
b) autonomic, visceral, and somatic reflexes
c) innate and acquired reflexes
d) cranial and spinal reflexes

Answer 90

b) autonomic, visceral, and somatic reflexes

Question 91

Regarding gross anatomy of the spinal cord, which of the following structures supplies/supply nerves to the pectoral girdle?
a) dorsal root
b) rami communicantes
c) lumbosacral enlargement
d) cervical enlargement

Answer 91

d) cervical enlargement

Question 92

Which nerve of the lumbar plexus is responsible for supplying the abdominal muscles (external and internal obliques and transversus abdominis) and the skin over the inferior abdomen and buttocks?
a) genitofemoral nerve
b) iliohypogastric nerve
c) ilioinguinal nerve
d) obturator nerve

Answer 92

b) iliohypogastric nerve

Question 93

Where is cerebrospinal fluid found?
a) in the subarachnoid space
b) in the epidural space
c) within the pia mater
d) in the subdural space

Answer 93

a) in the subarachnoid space

Question 94

Which of the following statements regarding the stretch reflex is/are true?
a) It provides automatic regulation of skeletal muscle.
b) It is a simple monosynaptic reflex.
c) It responds to information provided by the stretch receptors of muscle spindles.
d) All of the listed statements are true.

Answer 94

d) All of the listed statements are true.

Question 95

Within the brachial plexus, all three posterior divisions of the trunks unite to form the posterior cord, and the anterior divisions of the superior and middle trunks unite to form the ___________

Answer 95

lateral cord

Question 96

Which structure of the spinal cord contains axons crossing from one side of the cord to the other before reaching a destination within the gray matter?
a) posterior (dorsal) gray horn
b) anterior (ventral) gray horn
c) gray commissure
d) lateral gray horn

Answer 96

c) gray commissure

Question 97

The median nerve of the brachial plexus supplies the flexor muscles of the arm, including the biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles.

True or False

Answer 97

False

Question 98

Reflexes classified by development as being genetically determined are called __________, in contrast to acquired reflexes, which are learned.

Answer 98

innate reflexes

Question 99

Which of the spinal meninges consist(s) of a layer of dense, irregular connective tissue with an epithelial covering on both inner and outer surfaces?
a) pia mater
b) dura mater
c) arachnoid mater
d) dura mater and arachnoid mater

Answer 99

b) dura mater

Question 100

The brachial plexus consists of which spinal nerve segments?
a) C5–T1
b) C1–C5
c) C5–T6
d) C1–C8

Answer 100

a) C5–T1

Question 101

Which of the following is a structure of the rami communicantes that supplies postganglionic fibers to smooth muscles and glands of the body wall and limbs?
a) gray ramus
b) ventral ramus
c) white ramus
d) dorsal ramus

Answer 101

a) gray ramus

Question 102

Regarding the rami communicantes, the gray ramus is typically distal to the white ramus and includes unmyelinated postganglionic fibers.

True OR False

Answer 102

False

Question 103

Which structure of the spinal cord contains somatic and visceral sensory nuclei?
a) posterior white column
b) posterior (dorsal) gray horn
c) anterior (ventral) gray horn
d) lateral white column

Answer 103

b) posterior (dorsal) gray horn

Question 104

Which of the following statements regarding nerve plexuses is FALSE?
a) They form during development as small skeletal muscles fuse with their neighbors to form larger muscles with compound origins.
b) They include the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses.
c) They exist where dorsal rami are converging and branching to form compound nerves.
d) None of the listed statements is false.

Answer 104

c) They exist where dorsal rami are converging and branching to form compound nerves.

Question 105

White and gray rami communicantes are found only in spinal nerve segments
_____________________.

Answer 105

T1–L2

Question 106

Which connective tissue covering of a peripheral nerve is composed of collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, and fibrocytes and divides the nerve into a series of fascicles?
a) epineurium
b) perineurium
c) dura mater
d) endoneurium

Answer 106

b) perineurium

Question 107

Spinal cord tracts show a regional organization comparable to that found in the nuclei of the gray matter of the cord.

True or False

Answer 107

True

Question 108

Which nerve of the brachial plexus supplies the rhomboid and levator scapulae muscles?
a) suprascapular nerve
b) dorsal scapular nerve
c) thoracodorsal nerve
d) subscapular nerve

Answer 108

b) dorsal scapular nerve

Question 109

Regarding the sacral plexus, as the
_____________ nerve approaches the popliteal fossa, it divides to form two branches: the common fibular nerve and the tibial nerve.

Answer 109

sciatic

Question 110

Spinal nerves are classified as
_________________ because they contain both afferent and efferent fibers.

Answer 110

mixed nerves

Question 111

The distribution of the sensory fibers within which of the following structures illustrates the segmental division of dermatomes supplied by the spinal cord?
a) ventral and white rami
b) gray and white rami
c) dorsal and ventral rami
d) dorsal and gray rami

Answer 111

c) dorsal and ventral rami

Question 112

Match the spinal segments of the lumbar and sacral plexuses with the associated nerve.

1. S1–S3__
2. L2–L4__
3. L4–S3__
4. L1, L2__
5. ## S2–S4__A. genitofemoral nerve
   B. obturator nerve
   C. posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
   D. sciatic nerve
   E. pudendal nerve

Answer 112

1. c
2. b
3. d
4. a
5. 3

Question 113

Match the nerve of the brachial plexus with the structures it innervates.

1. subscapular nerves______
2. radial nerve ____
3. medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve______
4. long thoracic nerve______
5. axillary nerve_____
   _____________________________________
   A. serratus anterior muscle
   B. teres major muscle
   C. deltoid and teres minor muscles; sensory fibers from skin of shoulder
   D. sensory fibers from skin over anterior, medial surface of arm and forearm
   E. many extensor muscles of arm and forearm, supinator muscle, and digital extensor muscles

Answer 113

1. b
2. e
3. d
4. a
5. c

Question 114

The ________________________
consists of muscular and cutaneous branches of the ventral rami of spinal nerve C1-C4, and some nerve fibers of C5.

Answer 114

cervical plexus

Question 115

The neural “wiring’ of a reflex is called a ________________________
, which begins at a receptor and ends at a peripheral effector, such as a muscle or gland cell.

Answer 115

reflex arc

Question 116

Every spinal segment is associated with a pair of ___________________
that contain the cell bodies of sensory neurons.

Answer 116

dorsal root ganglia

Question 117

The ___________________________
of each spinal nerve provides sensory innervation from, and motor innervation to, a specific segment of the skin and muscles of the neck and back.

Answer 117

dorsal ramus

Question 118

Specialized membranes collectively known as the _______________
provide protection, physical stability, and shock absorption for the spinal cord.

Answer 118

spinal meninges

Question 119

Answer 119

Question 120

Answer 120

Question 121

Answer 121

Question 122

Answer 122

Question 123

Answer 123

Question 124

Afferent sensory and efferent motor information travels by several different routes, depending on which of the following factors?
a) the priority level of the information
b) where the information is going
c) where the information is coming from
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 124

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 125

Which of the following sensory neurons deliver the action potential to the Central Nervous System?
a) third-order neuron
b) second-order neuron
c) first-order neuron

Answer 125

c) first-order neuron

Question 126

Which item is an anatomical principle of neurons within sensory tracts?
a) medial-lateral rule
b) sensory modality arrangement
c) somatotopic arrangement
d) All listed responses are correct.

Answer 126

d) All listed responses are correct.

Question 127

What tract carries sensations of pain, temperature, and “crude” sensations of touch and pressure?
a) inferior spinocerebellar tract
b) posterior spinocerebellar tract
c) anterior spinocerebellar tract
d) spinothalamic tract

Answer 127

d) spinothalamic tract

Question 128

Which corticospinal tracts provide conscious motor control of skeletal muscles?
a) lateral corticospinal tracts
b) anterior corticospinal tracts
c) corticobulbar tracts
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 128

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 129

Subconscious regulation of balance and muscle tone is a function of which of the following tracts?
a) rubrospinal tracts
b) vestibulospinal tracts
c) reticulospinal tracts
d) tectospinal tracts

Answer 129

b) vestibulospinal tracts

Question 130

Subconscious regulation of upper limb muscle tone and movement is a function of which of the following tracts?
a) tectospinal tracts
b) reticulospinal tracts
c) rubrospinal tracts
d) vestibulospinal tracts

Answer 130

c) rubrospinal tracts

Question 131

Along the length of pyramids, what is the percentage of axons that cross the decussate to enter the descending lateral corticospinal tracts?
a) 15 percent
b) 45 percent
c) 65 percent
d) 85 percent

Answer 131

d) 85 percent

Question 132

Fine-touch, vibration, pressure, and proprioception sensations from the right side of the body are the functions of ____________.
a) spinocerebellar tracts
b) lateral spinothalmic tracts
c) posterior columns
d) anterior spinothalmic tracts

Answer 132

c) posterior columns

Question 133

What is the function of the lateral spinothalmic tract?
a) crude touch and pressure sensations from the right side of the body
b) pain and temperature sensations from the right side of the body
c) proprioceptive input from the Golgi tendon, organs, muscle spindles, and joint capsules
d) fine touch, vibration, pressure, and proprioception sensations from the right side of the body

Answer 133

b) pain and temperature sensations from the right side of the body

Question 134

The sensation of proprioception, fine touch, pressure, and vibration from levels at or superior to T6 is controlled by which tract(s)?
a) fasciculus cuneatus
b) spinothalamic tracts
c) fasciculus gracilis
d) spinocerebellar tracts

Answer 134

a) fasciculus cuneatus

Question 135

Which of the following may issue somatic motor commands as a result of processing performed at a subconscious level?
a) diencephalon
b) brain stem
c) cerebrum
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 135

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 136

Which somatic motor control modifies voluntary and reflexive motor patterns at the subconscious level?
a) brain stem
b) medulla oblongata
c) basal nuclei
d) hypothalamus

Answer 136

c) basal nuclei

Question 137

Which somatic motor control plans and initiates voluntary activity?
a) cerebellum
b) thalamus
c) medulla oblongata
d) cerebral cortex

Answer 137

d) cerebral cortex

Question 138

Which somatic motor control controls reflexes in response to visual and auditory stimuli?
a) brain stem and spinal cord
b) thalamus and mesencephalon
c) pons and superior medulla oblongata
d) basal nuclei and hypothalamus

Answer 138

b) thalamus and mesencephalon

Question 139

What somatic motor control does the cerebellum possess?
a) coordinates complex motor patterns
b) controls simple cranial and spinal reflexes
c) controls basic respiratory reflexes
d) plans and initiates voluntary motor activity

Answer 139

a) coordinates complex motor patterns

Question 140

What somatic motor control is under the command of the inferior medulla oblongata?
a) controlling basic respiratory reflexes
b) coordinating complex motor patterns
c) controlling balance reflexes and more-complex respiratory reflexes
d) modifies voluntary and reflexive motor patterns at the subconscious level

Answer 140

a) controlling basic respiratory reflexes

Question 141

Which of the following control(s) simple cranial and spinal reflexes?
a) cerebellum
b) inferior medulla oblongata
c) brain stem and spinal cord
d) pons and superior medulla oblongata

Answer 141

c) brain stem and spinal cord

Question 142

Over which of the following do the pons and superior medulla oblongata have somatic motor control?
a) coordinating complex motor patterns
b) modifying voluntary and reflexive motor patterns at the subconscious level
c) balance reflexes and more-complex respiratory reflexes
d) basic respiratory reflexes

Answer 142

c) balance reflexes and more-complex respiratory reflexes

Question 143

What somatic motor control does the hypothalamus possess?
a) plans and initiates voluntary motor activity
b) controls stereotyped motor patterns related to eating, drinking, and sexual activity, and modify respiratory reflexes
c) controls basic respiratory reflexes
d) controls simple cranial and spinal reflexes

Answer 143

b) controls stereotyped motor patterns related to eating, drinking, and sexual activity, and modify respiratory reflexes

Question 144

All of the levels of somatic motor control affect the activity of ______
neurons.

Answer 144

lower motor

Question 145

Regarding anterior spinocerebellar tracts, axons of most ___________
cross before entering the tract, and then cross again within the cerebellum.

Answer 145

second-order neurons, Second order neurons , 2nd order neurons

Question 146

The ________________________
tracts, sometimes called the pyramidal system, provide voluntary control over skeletal muscles.

Answer 146

corticospinal

Question 147

Control of muscle tone and gross movements of the neck, trunk, and proximal limb muscles are primarily controlled by the ________________
pathway.

Answer 147

subconscious motor

Question 148

Highly localized information about “what,” “where,” “when” of sensations, such as fine touch and vibration, enter the spinal cord inferior to T6 and travels to the medulla oblongata within the __________.

Answer 148

fasciculus gracilis

Question 149

Roughly how many neurons are in the brain?
a) 20 thousand
b) 20 million
c) 20 billion
d) 20 trillion

Answer 149

c) 20 billion

Question 150

Which brain region contains, as its major function, relaying and processing centers for sensory information?
a) thalamus
b) pons
c) mesencephalon
d) hypothalamus

Answer 150

a) thalamus

Question 151

The body of which ventricle lies within the parietal lobes with an anterior horn extending into the frontal lobe of the brain?
a) fourth ventricle
b) lateral ventricles
c) third ventricle
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 151

b) lateral ventricles

Question 152

Protection, support, and nourishment of the brain involve each of the following EXCEPT __________.
a) the cerebrospinal fluid
b) the blood-brain barrier
c) the skin of the skull
d) the cranial meninges

Answer 152

c) the skin of the skull

Question 153

Which of the following is a function of the cerebrospinal fluid?
a) supporting brain
b) preventing contact between delicate neural structures and the surrounding bones
c) transporting nutrients, chemical messengers, and waste products
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 153

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 154

Which part of the medulla oblongata has the function to regulate heart rate and force of contraction?
a) respiratory rhythmicity centers
b) cardiac centers
c) vasomotor centers
d) None of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 154

b) cardiac centers

Question 155

Which of the following cranial nerves are associated with the medulla oblongata?
a) CN VIII, CN IX, CN X, CN XI, CNXII
b) CN VII, CN IX, CN X, CNXI, CN XII
c) CN VII, CN VI, CN X, CNXI, CN XII
d) CN III, CN IV, CN V, CN X, CN XII

Answer 155

a) CN VIII, CN IX, CN X, CN XI, CNXII

Question 156

Which item below describes the function of the respiratory centers of the pons?
a) It interconnects the pontine nuclei with the cerebellar hemispheres on the opposite side.
b) It modifies output in the medulla oblongata.
c) It interconnects the cerebellar hemispheres.
d) It is the nuclei associated with four cranial nerves and the cerebellum.

Answer 156

b) It modifies output in the medulla oblongata.

Question 157

The pons extends inferiorly from the mesencephalon to where?
a) medulla oblongata
b) hypothalamus
c) telencephalon
d) thalamus

Answer 157

a) medulla oblongata

Question 158

What gives the red nucleus of the mesencephalon its red color?
a) hormones
b) blood vessels
c) cerebrospinal fluid
d) lymphoid vessels

Answer 158

b) blood vessels

Question 159

Which structure(s) in the mesencephalon regulates activity in the basal nuclei?
a) reticular formation
b) red nuclei
c) cerebral peduncles
d) substantia nigra

Answer 159

d) substantia nigra

Question 160

Centers controlling emotions, autonomic functions, and hormone production occur in which structure in the brain?
a) pons
b) hypothalamus
c) medulla oblongata
d) thalamus

Answer 160

b) hypothalamus

Question 161

Which of the following structures are found in the diencephalon?
a) hypothalamus
b) thalamus
c) epithalamus
d) All listed responses are correct.

Answer 161

d) All listed responses are correct.

Question 162

What structure(s) connects the cerebellar cortex and nuclei with cerebellar peduncles?
a) cerebellar peduncles
b) arbor vitae
c) cerebellar cortex
d) cerebellar nuclei

Answer 162

b) arbor vitae

Question 163

Which cerebellar peduncle links the cerebellum with the mesencephalon, diencephalon, and cerebrum?
a) middle cerebellar peduncle
b) inferior cerebellar peduncle
c) superior cerebellar peduncle
d) None of the listed choices are correct.

Answer 163

c) superior cerebellar peduncle

Question 164

The part of the cerebral cortex that functions in conscious control of the skeletal muscles is called __________.
a) primary sensory cortex
b) primary motor cortex
c) auditory cortex
d) visual cortex

Answer 164

b) primary motor cortex

Question 165

Which structure(s) connect the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum, and the spinal cord?
a) longitudinal fasciculi
b) projection fibers
c) arcuate fibers
d) association fibers

Answer 165

b) projection fibers

Question 166

Which cranial nerve innervates the superior oblique muscle of the eye?
a) CN XI accessory nerve
b) CN II optic nerve
c) CN VII facial nerve
d) CN IV trochlear nerve

Answer 166

d) CN IV trochlear nerve

Question 167

What does the maxillary branch of the CN (V) trigeminal nerve innervate?
a) lower eyelid, upper lip, gums and teeth, cheek, part of the nose, palate, and part of the pharynx
b) tongue musculature
c) lateral rectus muscle

Answer 167

a) lower eyelid, upper lip, gums and teeth, cheek, part of the nose, palate, and part of the pharynx

Question 168

What does the external branch of the CN (XI) accessory nerve innervate?
a) skeletal muscles of the palate, pharynx, and larynx
b) olfactory epithelium
c) sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
d) retina of the eye

Answer 168

c) sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

Question 169

The external branch of the accessory nerve (N XI) controls the
___________ and trapezius muscles.

Answer 169

sternocleidomastoid muscle

Question 170

The ___________________________
is a continuation of the dural sheet that lines the sella turcica of the sphenoid; thereby anchoring the dura mater to the sphenoid and sheathing the base of the pituitary gland.

Answer 170

diaphragma sellae

Question 171

Axons leaving the vestibular and cochlear nuclei relay the sensory information to other centers or initiate _____________________
.

Answer 171

reflexive motor responses

Question 172

Why are longer, deeper states of unconsciousness NOT necessarily dangerous?
a) Dreaming takes place.
b) Hormone balance is maintained.
c) Blood flow is reduced.
d) Nourishment is provided.

Answer 172

d) Nourishment is provided.

Question 173

Which statement(s) describe(s) the autonomic nervous system’s (ANS) neurotransmitters and their effects?
a) Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers also release ACh, but the effects may be either stimulatory or inhibitory, depending on the nature of the receptor.
b) All preganglionic autonomic fibers release ACh at their synaptic terminals, and their effects are stimulatory.
c) Most postganglionic sympathetic terminals release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (NE), with usually a stimulatory effect.
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 173

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 174

Which division of the ANS gives rise to the “fight-or-flight” response?
a) sympathetic division
b) craniosacral division
c) parasympathetic division
d) None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 174

a) sympathetic division

Question 175

Which division(s) of the ANS give(s) rise to the “rest-and-response” response?
a) craniosacral division
b) sympathetic division
c) thoracolumbar division
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 175

a) craniosacral division

Question 176

The sympathetic division of the ANS consists of which of the following?
a) specialized neurons in the interior portion of the suprarenal gland
b) preganglionic neurons located between segments T1 and L2 of the spinal cord
c) ganglionic neurons in the ganglia near the vertebral column
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 176

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 177

Which sympathetic pathway’s general function is to innervate visceral organs in the abdominopelvic cavity?
a) collateral ganglia
b) postganglionic fibers
c) preganglionic fibers
d) suprarenal medullae

Answer 177

a) collateral ganglia

Question 178

When sympathetic activation occurs, what effect does an individual experience?
a) a general elevation in muscle tone through stimulation of the extrapyramidal system so that the person looks tense and may even begin to shiver
b) a feeling of energy or euphoria, often associated with a disregard for danger and a temporary insensitivity to painful stimuli
c) increased alertness through stimulation of the reticular activating system, causing the individual to feel “on edge”
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 178

c) increased alertness through stimulation of the reticular activating system, causing the individual to feel “on edge”

Question 179

Why are the preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division short?
a) because the ganglia are close to the brain
b) because the ganglia are close to the spinal cord
c) so they don’t need epinephrine to work
d) None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 179

b) because the ganglia are close to the spinal cord

Question 180

Which sympathetic ganglion is located near the base of the inferior mesenteric artery and innervates the small intestine and the initial segments of the large intestine?
a) inferior mesenteric ganglion
b) celiac ganglion
c) superior mesenteric ganglion
d) None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 180

c) superior mesenteric ganglion

Question 181

Which splanchnic nerve innervates the small and large intestine?
a) greater splanchnic nerve
b) lesser splanchnic nerve
c) sacral splanchnic nerve
d) lumbar splanchnic nerve

Answer 181

b) lesser splanchnic nerve

Question 182

Which ganglion of the parasympathetic division innervates the eye?
a) pterygopalatine ganglia
b) ciliary ganglion
c) submandibular ganglion
d) otic ganglion

Answer 182

b) ciliary ganglion

Question 183

The general functions of the parasympathetic division include which of the following?
a) increase smooth muscle activity along the digestive tract
b) constrict respiratory passageways
c) reduce heart rate and force of contraction
d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 183

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 184

Which cranial nerve is associated with the parasympathetic division’s sending signals to the lacrimal gland?
a) CN III
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X

Answer 184

b) CN VII

Question 185

Which target organ(s) does CN IX effect?
a) nasal glands, tear glands, and salivary glands
b) visceral organs in the inferior portion of the abdominopelvic cavity
c) parotid salivary gland
d) intrinsic eye muscles

Answer 185

c) parotid salivary gland

Question 186

Which target organ(s) does CN III effect?
a) parotid salivary gland
b) intrinsic eye muscles
c) visceral organs in the inferior portion of the abdominopelvic cavity
d) visceral organs of the neck, thoracic cavity, and most of the abdominal cavity

Answer 186

b) intrinsic eye muscles

Question 187

Which parasympathetic division ganglion innervates the lacrimal gland?
a) submandibular ganglion
b) pterygopalatine ganglion
c) otic ganglion
d) None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 187

b) pterygopalatine ganglion

Question 188

Which visceral reflex stimulates the sudden rise in blood pressure in the carotid artery?
a) baroreceptor reflex
b) cardioacceleratory reflex
c) swallowing reflex
d) vasomotor reflex

Answer 188

a) baroreceptor reflex

Question 189

In the sympathetic division, varicosities and enlarged terminal knobs that release transmitter near target cells are characteristic of which of the following?
a) visceral motor neurons
b) postganglionic fibers
c) neuroeffector junction
d) preganglionic fibers

Answer 189

c) neuroeffector junction

Question 190

The stimulus of the swallowing reflex is the movement of food and drink into the pharynx. What is its response?
a) reduction in heart rate and force of contraction
b) sudden explosive ejection of air
c) smooth muscle and skeletal muscle contractions
d) increased glandular secretions and sensitivity

Answer 190

c) smooth muscle and skeletal muscle contractions

Question 191

Irritation of the digestive tract lining is the stimulus, and the response is the reversal of the normal action of smooth muscle to eject the contents of the digestive tract. This describes which visceral reflex?
a) vasomotor reflexes
b) vomiting reflex
c) gastric and intestinal reflexes
d) defecation

Answer 191

b) vomiting reflex

Question 192

The modified neurons of the suprarenal medulla have relatively long axons that, when stimulated, release norepinephrine and epinephrine into an extensive network of capillaries.

True or False

Answer 192

False

Question 193

Match the parasympathetic or sympathetic reflex to its characteristic (stimulus, response, and comments).

1. gastric and intestinal reflexes
2. vomiting reflex
3. emission and ejaculation
4. direct light and consensual light reflexes
5. ## pupillary reflex

a. mediated by the vagus nerve (CN X)
b. constriction of pupils of both eyes
c. reversal of normal smooth muscle action to eject contents
d. low light level reaching visual receptors
e. involves the contraction of the bulbospongiosus muscles

Answer 193

1. a
2. c
3. e
4. b
5. d

Question 194

From which spinal segments do preganglionic fibers originate and pass through the sympathetic chain ganglia and the celiac ganglion, WITHOUT synapsing, and proceed to the suprarenal medulla?
a) T3–T6
b) T5–T8
c) T7–T10
d) T9–T12

Answer 194

b) T5–T8

Question 195

Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
a) Preganglionic neurons are located in lateral gray horns of spinal cord segments T1–L2.
b) It is also referred to as the thoracolumbar division of the ANS.
c) Preganglionic fibers release ACh, stimulating ganglionic neurons.
d) Most postganglionic fibers release ACh at neuroeffector junctions.

Answer 195

d) Most postganglionic fibers release ACh at neuroeffector junctions.

Question 196

Which of the following statements about collateral ganglia is FALSE?
a) They are single structures.
b) They consist of a pair of interconnected masses of gray matter situated at the base of the celiac trunk.
c) They are located anterior and medial to the descending aorta.
d) They are embedded in an extensive weblike network of nerve fibers.

Answer 196

c) They are located anterior and medial to the descending aorta.

Question 197

Which of the following statements is true of the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
a) It predominates under resting conditions.
b) It has preganglionic fibers that release ACh, stimulating ganglionic neurons.
c) It consists of preganglionic fibers originating in either the brain stem or the sacral spinal cord.
d) All of the listed responses are true.

Answer 197

d) All of the listed responses are true.

Question 198

Which of the following statements about beta receptors is FALSE?
a) They trigger changes in the metabolic activity of target cells.
b) They are sensitive to epinephrine.
c) They are found in skeletal muscle and in smooth muscles surrounding respiratory airways, the heart, and the liver.
d) They are stimulated primarily by norepinephrine.

Answer 198

d) They are stimulated primarily by norepinephrine.

Question 199

In the sympathetic division, the sacral splanchnic nerves end in the
___________ , an autonomic network supplying pelvic organs and the external genitalia.

Answer 199

hypogastric plexus

Question 200

Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic ganglion?
A) submandibular ganglion
B) otic ganglion
C) celiac ganglion
D) ciliary ganglion

Answer 200

C) celiac ganglion

Question 201

Regarding the sympathetic chain ganglia, only the thoracic and superior lumbar ganglia receive preganglionic fibers from the white rami.

True or False

Answer 201

True

Question 202

Exposure to nicotinic receptors by acetylcholine always causes excitation of the ganglionic neuron or muscle fiber through the opening of plasmalemma _________
.

Answer 202

ion channels

Question 203

Which of the following accurately describes preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division of the ANS?
A) Their myelinated fibers are carried together as the white ramus communicans into a nearby collateral ganglion.
B) Their axons enter the ventral roots of spinal segments T1–L2.
C) Their cell bodies occupy the lateral portion of anterior gray horns of spinal segments T1–L2.
D) None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 203

B) Their axons enter the ventral roots of spinal segments T1–L2.

Question 204

Which of the following statements about muscarinic receptors is FALSE?
A) They are stimulated by a toxin produced by some poisonous mushrooms.
B) When stimulated, they produce responses that reflect the activation or inactivation of specific enzymes.
C) When stimulated, they produce longer-lasting effects than do nicotinic receptors.
D) They are found at all adrenergic neuroeffector junctions.

Answer 204

D) They are found at all adrenergic neuroeffector junctions.

Question 205

Which of the following sympathetic structures are NOT adrenergic?
A) most ganglionic neurons
B) most postganglionic terminals or fibers
C) all preganglionic fibers
D) All of the structures listed are adrenergic.

Answer 205

C) all preganglionic fibers

Question 206

Extensive divergence occurs in the sympathetic division, with one preganglionic fiber synapsing on as many as 22 ganglionic neurons.

True or False

Answer 206

True

Question 207

Which of the following is a specialized cell or cell process that monitors conditions in the body or the external environment and which, when it is stimulated, directly or indirectly alters the production of action potentials in a sensory neuron?
A) sense organ
B) sensation
C) perception
D) sensory receptor

Answer 207

D) sensory receptor

Question 208

The special senses include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) equilibrium
B) gustation
C) olfaction
D) All of the listed responses are special senses.

Answer 208

D) All of the listed responses are special senses.

Question 209

A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as ________.
A) adaption
B) labeled line
C) receptor specificity
D) sensory coding

Answer 209

A) adaption

Question 210

What are free nerve endings?
A) the connection between receptor and cortical neurons
B) the dendrites of sensory neurons, which are the simplest receptors
C) structures that provide information on the intensity and rate of change of a stimulus
D) single receptor cells

Answer 210

B) the dendrites of sensory neurons, which are the simplest receptors

Question 211

What information does sensory coding provide?
A) the variation of a stimulus
B) the strength of a stimulus
C) the duration of a stimulus
D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 211

D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 212

Which general sensory receptors are stimulated or inhibited by physical distortion, contact, or pressure on their plasmalemmae?
A) thermoreceptors
B) nociceptors
C) mechanoreceptors
D) chemoreceptors

Answer 212

C) mechanoreceptors

Question 213

Which mechanoreceptors are found where tactile sensitivities are extremely well developed and are common at the eyelids, lips, fingertips, nipples, and external genitalia?
A) Ruffini corpuscles
B) lamellated corpuscles
C) Meissner’s corpuscles
D) pacinian corpuscles

Answer 213

C) Meissner’s corpuscles

Question 214

Which general sensory receptors are specialized neurons that can detect small changes in the concentration of specific chemicals or compounds?
A) nociceptors
B) thermoreceptors
C) chemoreceptors
D) mechanoreceptors

Answer 214

C) chemoreceptors

Question 215

In olfactory organs, the lamina propria contains which of the following?
A) blood vessels
B) olfactory glands that produce thick, pigmented mucus
C) nerves
D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 215

D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 216

Where is olfactory epithelium located?
A) covering the inferior surface of the cribriform plate
B) covering the superior nasal conchae of the ethmoid bone
C) covering the superior portions of the nasal septum
D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 216

D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 217

Of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves, which one arises from the axons leaving the olfactory epithelium in bundles?
A) CN XII
B) CN II
C) CN III
D) CN I

Answer 217

D) CN I

Question 218

Which of the following is a type of papilla on the human tongue?
A) fungiform
B) circumvallate
C) filiform
D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 218

D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 219

Which cranial nerves monitor taste buds?
A) CN VI, CN XI
B) CN VII, CN X
C) CN IV, CN IX
D) CN VI, CN XII

Answer 219

B) CN VII, CN X

Question 220

Which of the following is NOT a primary taste sensation?
A) sweet
B) sour
C) salty
D) All of the listed responses are primary taste sensations.

Answer 220

D) All of the listed responses are primary taste sensations.

Question 221

Which of the following bones is NOT considered an auditory ossicle?
A) stapes
B) incus
C) petrous part of the temporal bone
D) malleus

Answer 221

C) petrous part of the temporal bone

Question 222

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the vestibular nuclei?
A) to relay information from the vestibular apparatus to the cerebral cortex, providing a conscious sense of position and movement
B) to integrate the sensory information concerning balance and equilibrium arriving from each side of the head
C) to relay information from the vestibular apparatus to the parietal lobe of the brain
D) to send commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord

Answer 222

C) to relay information from the vestibular apparatus to the parietal lobe of the brain

Question 223

Which of the following is NOT a function of the vascular tunic of the eye?
A) providing a route for blood vessels and lymphatics that supply tissues of the eye
B) regulating the amount of light exiting the anterior portion of the eye
C) secreting and reabsorbing the aqueous humor that circulates within the eye
D) controlling the shape of the lens

Answer 223

B) regulating the amount of light exiting the anterior portion of the eye

Question 224

Which portion of the eye begins at the junction between the cornea and sclera and extends posteriorly to the ora serrata?
A) iris
B) pupil
C) suspensory ligaments
D) ciliary body

Answer 224

D) ciliary body

Question 225

Which two systems of the body work together to monitor and adjust the body’s physiological activities?
endocrine system and lymphoid system
endocrine system and nervous system
endocrine system and cardiovascular system
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 225

endocrine system and nervous system

Question 226

Melatonin is secreted by which endocrine gland?
parathyroid gland
pineal gland
suprarenal gland
thyroid gland

Answer 226

pineal gland

Question 227

Which hormone types are small molecules with a five-carbon ring at one end and are released by most body cells with the compounds coordinating cellular activities and affecting enzymatic processes that occur in extracellular fluids?
peptide hormones
eicosanoids
steroid hormones
amino acid derivatives

Answer 227

eicosanoids

Question 228

Which of the following describes hypothalamus control over endocrine organs?
control of sympathetic output to suprarenal medullae
secretion of regulatory hormones to control activity of the pars distalis of the pituitary gland
production of ADH and oxytocin
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 228

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 229

Of the pituitary hormones, which one affects the reabsorption of water, the elevation of blood volume, and blood pressure throughout the body?
ACTH
GH
MSH
ADH

Answer 229

ADH

Question 230

Which hormone is NOT secreted by the adenohypophysis?
LH
ACTH
ADH
GH

Answer 230

ADH

Question 231

Which hormone(s) secreted by the thyroid gland affect(s) the decrease of calcium ion concentration in body fluids?
calcitonin
triiodothyronine
thyroxine
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 231

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 232

What manufactures, stores, and secretes thyroid hormones and is typically lined by a simple cuboidal epithelium composed of T thyrocytes?
thyroid cartilage
follicle cavity
thyroid follicle
colloid

Answer 232

thyroid follicle

Question 233

What types of endocrine cell are glandular and produce PTH?
chief cells
principal cells
parathyroid cells
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 233

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 234

What is the importance of hormones produced by the thymus gland?
stimulates production of red blood cells
stimulates osteoclasts
the development and maintenance of normal immunological defenses
synthesizes vitamin D

Answer 234

the development and maintenance of normal immunological defenses

Question 235

Which region(s) of the suprarenal cortex produce(s) mineralocorticoids?
zona glomerulosa
zona fasciculata
zona reticularis
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 235

zona glomerulosa

Question 236

Which region of the suprarenal gland secretes epinephrine?
zona glomerulosa
zona reticularis
zona fasciculata
suprarenal medulla

Answer 236

suprarenal medulla

Question 237

Which hormone stimulates the secretion of aldosterone by the suprarenal cortex?
angiotensin II
angiotensin I
angiotensinogen
renin

Answer 237

angiotensin II

Question 238

Insulin is secreted by which pancreatic cells?
alpha cells
beta cells
F cells
delta cells

Answer 238

beta cells

Question 239

Which pancreatic hormone inhibits the secretion of insulin and glucagon?
pancreatic polypeptide
glucagon
somatostatin
insulin

Answer 239

somatostatin

Question 240

Which hormone inhibits gallbladder contractions and regulates the production of pancreatic enzymes?
beta cells
F cells
alpha cells
delta cells

Answer 240

F cells

Question 241

Which reproductive system hormone accelerates the movement of the oocyte along the uterine tube and prepares the uterus for the arrival of the developing embryo?
estradiol
inhibin
estrogen
progesterone

Answer 241

progesterone

Question 242

The functions of testosterone include which of the following?
to maintain the secretory glands of the male reproductive tract
to stimulate muscle growth
to promote the production of functional sperm
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 242

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 243

The pineal gland is located in which region of the diencephalon?
epithalamus
thalamus
hypothalamus
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 243

epithalamus

Question 244

The effects of aging on the hormones include which of the following?
At puberty, the levels of reproductive hormones change.
At menopause, the concentration of reproductive hormones in women declines.
Most tissues can become less responsive to circulating hormones even though hormone concentration remains normal.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 244

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 245

The __________ is also called the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and contains the axons and axon terminals of __________ neurons.
adenohypophysis; hippocampal
adenohypophysis; hypothalamic
neurohypophysis; hypothalamic
neurohypophysis; hippocampal

Answer 245

neurohypophysis; hypothalamic

Question 246

Which of the following statements comparing the nervous system to the endocrine system is FALSE?
In general, the nervous system produces short-term effects, whereas the endocrine system’s effects may last for days.
The adrenal medulla is a modified sympathetic ganglion.
The activities of the nervous and endocrine systems are coordinated closely, and their effects are typically in opposition to one another.
Endocrine glands release hormones into the bloodstream for distribution throughout the body.

Answer 246

The activities of the nervous and endocrine systems are coordinated closely, and their effects are typically in opposition to one another.

Question 247

Antidiuretic hormone, or ADH, is released in response to a variety of stimuli, most notably to which of the following?
a rise in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a fall in blood volume or pressure
a fall in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a rise in blood volume or pressure
a rise in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a rise in blood volume or pressure
a fall in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a fall in blood volume or pressure

Answer 247

a rise in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a fall in blood volume or pressure

Question 248

Which of the following statements regarding the hypothalamic control of the adenohypophysis is true?
After leaving the hypothalamus, the capillary network unites to form a series of larger vessels that spiral around the infundibulum.
The secondary capillary plexus in the floor of the tuberal area receives blood from the superior hypophyseal artery.
The hypophyseal portal system delivers hormones to the posterior pituitary.
The vessels between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis are called the hypophyseal portal system.

Answer 248

The vessels between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis are called the hypophyseal portal system.

Question 249

Which class of hormones consists of small molecules with a five-carbon ring at one end that coordinate cellular activities and enzymatic processes in extracellular fluids?
peptide hormones
steroid hormones
amino acid derivatives
eicosanoids

Answer 249

eicosanoids

Question 250

Which of the following adenohypophyseal hormones induces ovulation in women and promotes the ovarian secretion of progestins to prepare the body for possible pregnancy?
luteinizing hormone
prolactin
follicle-stimulating hormone
growth hormone

Answer 250

luteinizing hormone

Question 251

Which of the following syndromes occurs as a result of overproduction of thyroxine?
gigantism
Graves’ disease
Cushing’s disease
Addison’s disease

Answer 251

Graves’ disease

Question 252

Which term actually applies to a blend of several different complementary hormones that promote the maturation and functional competence of the immune system?
triiodothyronine (T3)
thymosin
parathyroid hormone
calcitonin

Answer 252

thymosin

Question 253

Which of the following pancreatic hormones targets all cells EXCEPT red blood cells and the cells of the brain, kidney, and digestive tract epithelium?
glucagon
somatostatin
insulin
pancreatic polypeptide

Answer 253

insulin

Question 254

Which of the following hormones increases calcium ion concentrations in body fluids and increases bone mass?
calcitonin
thymosin
parathyroid hormone
thyroxine (T4)

Answer 254

parathyroid hormone

Question 255

Which of the following reproductive hormones support follicle maturation, the development of female secondary sex characteristics, and associated behaviors?
inhibins
androgens
progestins
estrogens

Answer 255

estrogens

Question 256

Which hormone increases the rate of cellular metabolism and oxygen consumption in almost every cell of the body and accounts for roughly 90 percent of all thyroid secretions?
thymosin
triiodothyronine (T3)
calcitonin
thyroxine (T4)

Answer 256

thyroxine (T4)

Question 257

Which of the following suprarenal structures produces mineralocorticoids, steroid hormones that affect the electrolyte composition of body fluids?
adrenal medulla
zona glomerulosa
zona reticularis
zona fasciculata

Answer 257

zona glomerulosa

Question 258

Components of the cardiovascular system include which of the following?
heart
blood
blood vessels
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 258

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 259

What substance in the body distributes nutrients and hormones, carries metabolic waste, and transports specialized cells for defense?
heart
blood
lymph
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 259

blood

Question 260

Blood distributes oxygen to approximately how many cells in the human body?
75 thousand
75 million
75 billion
75 trillion

Answer 260

75 trillion

Question 261

Which of the following is NOT a formed element?
plasma
RBC
platelet
WBC

Answer 261

plasma

Question 262

What percentage of plasma consists of water?
72 percent
79 percent
88 percent
92 percent

Answer 262

92 percent

Question 263

Of the different types of plasma proteins, which one makes up 65 percent of the total volume of plasma?
albumins
fibrinogen
globulins
None of the listed answers is correct.

Answer 263

albumins

Question 264

Essential components of clotting systems include which of the following?
electrolytes
fibrinogen
albumins
RBCs

Answer 264

fibrinogen

Question 265

What is another name for immunoglobins?
serum
fibrin
antibodies
lipoproteins

Answer 265

antibodies

Question 266

Which formed element has a very large, kidney-bean-shaped nucleus with an abundant pale cytoplasm?
neutrolphil
monocyte
basophil
eosinophil

Answer 266

monocyte

Question 267

Which cell in the blood is responsible for the cell’s ability to transport O2 and CO2?
hemoglobin
eosinophil
lymphocyte
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 267

hemoglobin

Question 268

Of the different blood types, which constitutes the blood type of approximately 40 percent of the U.S. population?
AB
O
B
A

Answer 268

A

Question 269

What is agglutination?
the rupture of RBCs
the situation when the donor and recipient blood are the same type
the clumping of RBCs
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 269

the clumping of RBCs

Question 270

What term is used to describe an abnormally low platelet count?
anemia
thrombocytosis
polycythemia
thrombocytopenia

Answer 270

thrombocytopenia

Question 271

The function of platelets includes which of the following?
the formation of a temporary patch in the walls of damaged blood vessels
the transport of chemicals important to blood clotting
the active contraction after clot formation has occurred
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 271

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 272

What stem cell in the body divides to form all the blood cells in the process of blood cell formation?
myeloid
pluripotential
lymphoid
progenitor

Answer 272

pluripotential

Question 273

A specialist in blood formation and function is called a(n) ________.
histologist
hematologist
cardiologist
endocrinologist

Answer 273

hematologist

Question 274

Which of the following best describes the name of the stem cell responsible for the production of white blood cells?
leukopoietic
lymphopoietic
erythropoietic
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 274

leukopoietic

Question 275

The effects of erythropoietin include which of the following?
stimulates increased rates of cell division in erythroblasts
accelerates the rate of hemoglobin synthesis
speeds up the maturation of RBCs
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 275

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 276

Megakaryocytes give rise to ________.
granulocytes
agranulocytes
platelets
RBCs

Answer 276

platelets

Question 277

Progenitor cells give rise to which of the following?
monocytes
basophils
eosinophils
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 277

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 278

Which of the following statements regarding blood types is FALSE?
The blood of a type A, type B, or type O individual always contains antibodies that will attack foreign surface antigens.
The surface antigens are glycoproteins or glycolipids, whose characteristics are genetically determined.
A typical white blood cell plasmalemma contains a number of surface antigens, or agglutinogens, exposed to the plasma.
An individual’s blood type is determined by the presence or absence of specific components in erythrocyte cell membranes.

Answer 278

A typical white blood cell plasmalemma contains a number of surface antigens, or agglutinogens, exposed to the plasma.

Question 279

Which of the following plasma proteins function(s) to transport ions, hormones, and lipids, and also has/have an immune function?
regulatory proteins
globulins
fibrinogen
albumins

Answer 279

globulins

Question 280

Which of the following granular leukocytes migrate to sites of injury and discharge their histamine-containing granules into the interstitial fluids, which dilate blood vessels?
eosinophils
acidophils
neutrophils
basophils

Answer 280

basophils

Question 281

The blood does NOT function in _______________.
defense against toxins and pathogens
transport of metabolic wastes from sites of excretion to peripheral tissues
delivery of hormones and enzymes to target tissues
stabilization of body temperature

Answer 281

transport of metabolic wastes from sites of excretion to peripheral tissues

Question 282

Which of the following white blood cells account for 2–4 percent of the total leukocytes?
basophils
neutrophils
lymphocytes
eosinophils

Answer 282

eosinophils

Question 283

Which of the following leukocytes are two to three times the diameter of a typical red blood cell and are known as “free macrophages” outside the bloodstream?
lymphocytes
basophils
eosinophils
monocytes

Answer 283

monocytes

Question 284

What does the hematocrit value indicate?
the percentage of whole blood contributed by formed elements
the percentage of whole blood contributed by albumins and globulins
the percentage of whole blood contributed by platelets
the percentage of whole blood contributed by leukocytes

Answer 284

the percentage of whole blood contributed by formed elements

Question 285

Megakaryocytes give rise to _______________.
basophils
monocytes
erythrocytes
platelets

Answer 285

platelets

Question 286

Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?
spleen and red bone marrow
red bone marrow and thymus gland
spleen and thymus gland
thymus gland and tonsils

Answer 286

red bone marrow and thymus gland

Question 287

Which of the following statements regarding platelets is/are true?
All of the listed responses are true.
Platelets are continually replaced, and an individual platelet circulates for 10–12 days before being removed by phagocytes.
About one-half of the platelets in the body, at any moment, are held in the spleen and other vascular organs.
A microliter of circulating blood contains an average of 100,000 platelets.

Answer 287

Platelets are continually replaced, and an individual platelet circulates for 10–12 days before being removed by phagocytes.

Question 288

What is the primary site of blood cell formation in the adult?
thymus
spleen
red bone marrow
yellow bone marrow

Answer 288

red bone marrow

Question 289

Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils arise from which precursor cells?
myeloblasts
proerythroblasts
monoblasts
lymphoblasts

Answer 289

myeloblasts

Question 290

Why does every living cell rely on surrounding interstitial fluid for survival?
It is a source of O2.
It is a source of nutrients.
It is a place to dispose waste products.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 290

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 291

The performance of the heart is closely monitored by what system of the body?
muscular system
respiratory system
nervous system
cardiovascular system

Answer 291

nervous system

Question 292

Of the different types of blood vessel, which types are considered exchange vessels?
arteries
veins
capillaries
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 292

capillaries

Question 293

Which type of blood vessel transports blood to the heart?
vein
capillary
artery
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 293

vein

Question 294

Which of the following is the name of a serous membrane lining the pericardial cavity?
visceral pericardium
fibrous pericardium
parietal pericardium
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 294

visceral pericardium

Question 295

Pertaining to the heart, what substance acts as a lubricant by reducing friction between opposing surfaces?
fibrous pericardium
pericardial fluid
visceral pericardium
parietal pericardium

Answer 295

pericardial fluid

Question 296

What type of tissue composes the valves within the heart?
myocardium
visceral pericardium
endocardium
epicardium

Answer 296

endocardium

Question 297

Characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue include which of the following?
Cardiac muscle has specialized cell junctions called intercalated discs.
Cardiac muscle cells contract without instructions from the nervous system.
Cardiac muscle cells have relatively short T tubules that do not form triads with the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 297

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 298

Intercalated discs are specialized cell-to-cell junctions that do which of the following?
lock two muscle cells together while helping maintain a three-dimensional structure of tissue
aid the muscle cells to pull together with maximum efficiency because the myofibril of adjacent cells and the intercalated discs tie together
allow cardiac muscle cells to be connected by gap junctions
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 298

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 299

The extensive connective tissue network of the heart is the fibrous skeleton that includes all the following functions EXCEPT which one?
reinforcing the valves of the heart and helping prevent underexpansion of the heart
providing elasticity that helps return the heart to its original shape after each contraction
distributing the forces of contraction
stabilizing the position of the muscle cells and valves in the heart

Answer 299

reinforcing the valves of the heart and helping prevent underexpansion of the heart

Question 300

Why would a midsagittal section of the thoracic cavity NOT cut the heart in half?
The heart lies to the left of the midline of the thoracic cavity.
The heart sits at an angle to the longitudinal axis of the body.
The heart is rotated toward the left side.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 300

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 301

What term is used to describe the division between the left and right ventricles indicating a linear depression on the anterior surface of the heart?
posterior interventricular sulcus
anterior interventricular sulcus
sternocostal surface
diaphragmatic surface

Answer 301

anterior interventricular sulcus

Question 302

Which border of the heart extends to the apex of the heart?
superior border
right border
inferior border
left border

Answer 302

inferior border

Question 303

Which sulcus of the heart marks the border between the atria and ventricles?
coronary sulcus
anterior interventricular sulcus
posterior interventricular sulcus
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 303

coronary sulcus

Question 304

Which chamber of the heart contracts and sends blood into the pulmonary trunk?
left atrium
right ventricle
right atrium
left ventricle

Answer 304

right ventricle

Question 305

Which valves of the heart are located on the left side of the heart?
aortic valve and mitral valve
aortic valve and tricuspid valve
pulmonary valve and bicuspid valve
pulmonary valve and tricuspid valve

Answer 305

aortic valve and mitral valve

Question 306

The major branches of the right coronary artery include which of the following?
atrial branches
posterior interventricular branch
right marginal branch
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 306

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 307

Which cranial nerve innervates the heart for parasympathetic control?
CN IX
CN X
CN XI
CN XII

Answer 307

CN X

Question 308

Which of the following statements regarding cardiac muscle tissue is FALSE?
Myofibrils in muscle cells anchor firmly to the sarcolemma at the intercalated disc.
Cardiocytes average 10–20 µm in diameter and 50–100 µm in length.
Cardiac muscle cells are connected by gap junctions, which create an indirect electrical connection.
All of the listed statements are true; none is false.

Answer 308

Cardiac muscle cells are connected by gap junctions, which create an indirect electrical connection.

Question 309

The autonomic centers for cardiac control are found in which area?
the cardiac centers of the pons
the hypothalamic cardiac centers
the cardiac centers of the medulla oblongata
the hippocampal cardiac centers

Answer 309

the cardiac centers of the medulla oblongata

Question 310

Which of the following structures are known as “exchange vessels” because of the exchange of nutrients, dissolved gases, and waste products that occurs through their walls?
veins
arterioles
capillaries
venules

Answer 310

capillaries

Question 311

Which of the following statements regarding the cardiac cycle is FALSE?
The atrioventricular and semilunar valves help ensure a one-way flow of blood despite pressure oscillations.
Blood will flow from a ventricle into an arterial trunk only as long as the semilunar valve is open, and arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure.
Blood will flow out of an atrium only as long as the atrioventricular valve is open, and atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure.
All of the listed statements are true; none is false.

Answer 311

Blood will flow from a ventricle into an arterial trunk only as long as the semilunar valve is open, and arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure.

Question 312

Which of the following layers of the heart wall is relatively thin and contains layers that form figure-eights as they pass from atrium to atrium?
atrial endocardium
atrial myocardium
ventricular myocardium
atrial epicardium

Answer 312

atrial myocardium

Question 313

Regarding the conducting system of the heart, the signal for contraction passes from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node via which of the following?
internodal pathways
cardiac pacemaker cells
bundle of His (HIS)
Purkinje fibers

Answer 313

internodal pathways

Question 314

Which of the following valves is/are found between the right atrium and the right ventricle?
bicuspid valve
mitral valve
tricuspid valve
mitral valve and bicuspid valve

Answer 314

tricuspid valve

Question 315

Which of the following statements regarding the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes is true?
Nodal fibers require stimulation from the nervous system to cause depolarization.
When norepinephrine is released by sympathetic neurons, the rate of hyperpolarization increases, and the heart rate accelerates.
Any factor that changes either the resting potential or the rate of spontaneous depolarization at the SA node will alter the heart rate.
Under normal resting conditions, sympathetic activity reduces the heart rate from the inherent nodal rate of 80–100 impulses per minute to 70–80 beats per minute.

Answer 315

Any factor that changes either the resting potential or the rate of spontaneous depolarization at the SA node will alter the heart rate.

Question 316

Which vessel(s) collect(s) blood from smaller veins draining the myocardial capillaries and deliver(s) this blood to the coronary sinus?
middle cardiac vein
great cardiac vein
anterior cardiac vein
great cardiac vein and middle cardiac vein

Answer 316

great cardiac vein and middle cardiac vein

Question 317

Blood flows from the ascending aorta through the aortic arch into which of the following vessels?
aortic sinuses
descending aorta
right and left coronary arteries
ascending aorta

Answer 317

descending aorta

Question 318

Physical isolation of atrial muscle cells from ventricular muscle cells is a function of which of the following?
the fibrous skeleton
the Purkinje fibers
the bundle of His
the internodal pathway

Answer 318

the fibrous skeleton

Question 319

How many papillary muscles are normally found in the left ventricle?
two
three
four
five

Answer 319

two

Question 320

Which of the following statements regarding cardiac muscle tissue is FALSE?
Cardiac muscle cells are almost totally dependent on aerobic respiration to obtain the energy needed to continue contracting.
Cardiac muscle fibers have gap junctions in the intercalated discs.
The circulatory supply of cardiac muscle tissue is more extensive than that of skeletal muscle tissue.
The relatively short T tubules of cardiac muscle do not form triads with the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Answer 320

Cardiac muscle cells are almost totally dependent on aerobic respiration to obtain the energy needed to continue contracting.

Question 321

Which of the following describes the serous membrane portion that is in direct contact with the heart?
fibrous pericardium
parietal pericardium
visceral pericardium
pericardial sac

Answer 321

visceral pericardium

Question 322

What type of system is the cardiovascular system?
closed
semipermeable
open
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 322

closed

Question 323

All chemical and gaseous exchange between the blood and interstitial fluid takes place across which vessel walls?
vein
artery
capillary
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 323

capillary

Question 324

Which blood vessel structure forms a connective tissue sheath around a vessel?
internal elastic membrane
intima
media
adventitia

Answer 324

adventitia

Question 325

The basic mechanisms that are responsible for the exchange of materials across the walls of capillaries and sinusoids include all of the following EXCEPT __________.
diffusion through the pores in arterioles and venules
vesicular transport by endothelial cells, water, and specific bound and unbound solutes
diffusion through gaps between adjacent endothelial cells
diffusion across the capillary endothelial cells

Answer 325

diffusion through the pores in arterioles and venules

Question 326

Which type of vein collects blood directly from the capillaries?
large vein
venule
medium-sized vein
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 326

venule

Question 327

Which of the following does NOT help in distinguishing an artery from a vein?
When not opposed by blood pressure, arterial walls contract.
The walls of arteries are thicker than veins.
Veins have a pleated appearance from endothelium.
The media layer of arteries contains more smooth muscle and elastic fibers than that of a vein.

Answer 327

Veins have a pleated appearance from endothelium.

Question 328

A __________ is a band of smooth muscle that guards the entrance to each capillary and the diameter of the capillary entrance by reducing or stopping the flow of blood.
capillary plexus
thoroughfare channel
metarteriole
precapillary sphincter

Answer 328

precapillary sphincter

Question 329

Which type of blood vessel transports oxygen-rich blood to the body’s skeletal muscle and internal organs?
large veins
muscular arteries
elastic arteries
medium-sized veins

Answer 329

muscular arteries

Question 330

Arterial anastomosis provides a reliable blood supply to the tissues, so if one arterial supply becomes blocked, the other will supply blood to the capillary bed where in the body?
heart
other organs or body regions with significant circulatory demands
brain and stomach
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 330

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 331

Which vessel below gives blood to the right thyrocervical truck?
right vertebral artery
right brachiocephalic artery
right subclavian artery
right internal thoracic artery

Answer 331

right subclavian artery

Question 332

Which vessel does NOT arise off the aortic arch?
right brachiocephalic artery
left subclavian artery
left common carotid artery
left brachiocephalic artery

Answer 332

left brachiocephalic artery

Question 333

Which vessel(s) supplies/supply blood to the thumb and the fingers?
superficial palmar arch
digital arteries
radial artery
ulnar artery

Answer 333

digital arteries

Question 334

Which of the following vessels does NOT receive blood from the celiac trunk?
left gastric artery
splenic artery
common hepatic artery
superior mesenteric artery

Answer 334

superior mesenteric artery

Question 335

Which arteries originate between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries?
renal arteries
splenic artery
gonadal arteries
inferior phrenic arteries

Answer 335

gonadal arteries

Question 336

The deep palmar veins drain into the radial vein and ulnar vein, and then those veins, along with the anterior crural interosseous vein, drain into which vein?
brachial vein
axillary vein
medium antebrachial vein
cephalic vein

Answer 336

brachial vein

Question 337

Which vein forms the major tributary of the superior vena cava by joining the superior vena cava at the level of the T2 vertebra?
esophageal vein
hemiazygos vein
azygos vein
intercostal vein

Answer 337

azygos vein

Question 338

Which vessel(s) bring(s) oxygen and nutrients to the developing fetus from the mother?
umbilical vein
placenta
umbilical arteries
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 338

umbilical vein

Question 339

Which of the following is an interatrial opening in the fetal heart?
fossa ovalis
foramen ovale
ductus arteriosus
ligamentum arteriosum

Answer 339

foramen ovale

Question 340

Of the different types of blood vessels, which gradually decline with age?
medium-sized veins
elastic arteries
capillaries
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 340

capillaries

Question 341

Which of the following can occur with age-related changes in the blood?
a thrombus
pooling of blood in the veins of the legs because valves are not working effectively
a pulmonary embolism
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 341

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 342

Collagen fibers in blood vessels bind which structures?
the media to the adventitia only
the intima to the adventitia
the media to both the intima and adventitia
the media to the intima only

Answer 342

the media to both the intima and adventitia

Question 343

Which of the following is NOT an age-related change of the cardiovascular system?
Scar tissue replaces damaged cardiac muscle fibers.
Inelastic walls of arteries become less tolerant of sudden increases in pressure, which may lead to an aneurysm.
The hematocrit increases.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 343

The hematocrit increases.

Question 344

Which of the following vessels have a poorly defined adventitia and a media consisting of scattered smooth muscle fibers, which do NOT form a complete layer?
sinusoids
fenestrated capillaries
arterioles
venules

Answer 344

arterioles

Question 345

Which of the following vessels do NOT have valves?
large veins
medium-sized veins
venules
large veins and venules

Answer 345

large veins

Question 346

The media of which vessels contain a high density of elastic fibers and smooth muscle fibers?
thoroughfare channels
muscular arteries
arterioles
elastic arteries

Answer 346

elastic arteries

Question 347

The arteriolar segment of a passageway in a capillary bed, which contains smooth muscle cells capable of altering its diameter, is known as __________.
an arteriole
a metarteriole
a thoroughfare channel
a precapillary sphincter

Answer 347

a metarteriole

Question 348

Which of the following is NOT considered to be an arterial trunk?
mesenteric trunk
thyrocervical trunk
pulmonary trunk
celiac trunk

Answer 348

mesenteric trunk

Question 349

The shunt that permits most blood to bypass the fetal liver and enter the inferior vena cava is known as __________.
the foramen ovale
the ductus arteriosus
the fossa ovalis
the ductus venosus

Answer 349

the ductus venosus

Question 350

The azygos vein is the major tributary of which of the following vessels?
the internal thoracic vein
the inferior vena cava
the brachiocephalic vein
the superior vena cava

Answer 350

the superior vena cava

Question 351

The pulmonary circuit contains about how much of the total blood volume?
1 percent
9 percent
25 percent
50 percent

Answer 351

9 percent

Question 352

Two umbilical arteries leave the __________, enter the umbilical cord, and deliver blood to the placenta.
external iliac arteries
abdominal aorta
internal iliac arteries
femoral artery

Answer 352

internal iliac arteries

Question 353

Which of the following unpaired arterial vessels supplies the pancreas?
inferior mesenteric artery
left gastric artery
common hepatic artery
superior mesenteric artery

Answer 353

superior mesenteric artery

Question 354

Which of the following tributaries of the superior vena cava collects blood from the cranium, spinal cord, and vertebrae?
vertebral vein
cephalic vein
internal jugular vein
external jugular vein

Answer 354

vertebral vein

Question 355

Arteries called collaterals can fuse to form an __________ connecting one artery directly to another.
arteriovenous anastomosis
arteriole
capillary
arterial anastomosis

Answer 355

arterial anastomosis

Question 356

Which system interacts with other systems and tissues to defend the body against infection and disease?
cardiovascular system
lymphoid system
integumentary system
respiratory system

Answer 356

lymphoid system

Question 357

What is the name of the liquid connective tissue that is transported and monitored by the lymphoid system?
water
lymph
blood
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 357

lymph

Question 358

Lymph consists of which of the following?
interstitial fluid
lymphocytes
macrophages
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 358

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 359

The primary functions of the lymphoid system include which of the following?
provide an alternative route for the transport of hormones, nutrients, and waste products
maintain normal blood volume and eliminate local variations in the chemical composition of the interstitial fluid
produce, maintain, and distribute lymphocytes
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 359

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 360

Superficial lymphatics travel with superficial veins and are found in all of the following locations EXCEPT __________.
the loose connective tissue of the serous membranes lining the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities
the deep layer next to the bone
the loose connective tissue of the mucous membranes lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 360

the deep layer next to the bone

Question 361

The __________ receives lymph from the inferior region of the abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs through the right and left lumbar trunks and intestinal trunks.
cisterna chyli
thoracic duct
right lymphatic duct
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 361

cisterna chyli

Question 362

What happens if a lymphatic vessel is compressed or blocked or its valves are damaged?
The entire lymphoid system stops functioning until the issue is fixed.
Lymph drainage speeds up in the affected area.
Lymph drainage slows or ceases in the affected area.
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 362

Lymph drainage slows or ceases in the affected area.

Question 363

Under what conditions do lymphocytes respond?
in the presence of invading organisms
in the presence of foreign proteins
in the presence of abnormal body cells
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 363

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 364

What cells are responsible for the production and secretion of antibodies?
plasmocytes
T cells
NK cells
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 364

plasmocytes

Question 365

T cells are made in the __________ and are activated in the __________.
thymus gland; red bone marrow
red bone marrow; thyroid gland
thyroid gland; red bone marrow
red bone marrow; thymus gland

Answer 365

red bone marrow; thymus gland

Question 366

Which tonsil is located at the base of the tongue?
pharyngeal
palatine
lingual
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 366

lingual

Question 367

Which type of lymphoid tissue has lymphocytes that are loosely aggregated within connective tissue of the mucous membrane of the respiratory and urinary tracts?
lymphoid nodules
diffuse lymphoid tissue
tonsils
MALT

Answer 367

diffuse lymphoid tissue

Question 368

Which of the following is an aggregation of lymphocytes contained within a supporting framework of reticular fibers?
lymph
lymphatic duct
lymphoid nodule
lymphatic vessel

Answer 368

lymphoid nodule

Question 369

The aggregation of lymphocytes in the __________ gather and remove pathogens that enter the pharynx in either food or inspired air.
liver
spleen
pancreas
tonsils

Answer 369

tonsils

Question 370

Which lymph nodes filter lymph arriving from the urinary and reproductive systems?
mesenteric lymph nodes
cervical lymph nodes
thoracic lymph nodes
abdominal lymph nodes

Answer 370

abdominal lymph nodes

Question 371

What is the largest lymphoid organ in the body?
spleen
thymus gland
stomach
large intestine

Answer 371

spleen

Question 372

Which part of the thymus gland contains lymphoid stem cells that divide rapidly, producing daughter cells that mature into T cells and migrate into the medulla?
septa
cortex
medulla
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 372

cortex

Question 373

Which group of lymph nodes monitors lymph originating in the head and neck?
thoracic lymph nodes
inguinal lymph nodes
popliteal lymph nodes
cervical lymph nodes

Answer 373

cervical lymph nodes

Question 374

In the spleen, which portion forms splenic cords that contain large quantities of RBCs?
red pulp
pink pulp
white pulp
blue pulp

Answer 374

red pulp

Question 375

With increase in age, why is there an increased susceptibility to viral and bacterial infection?
B cells are less responsive and antibody levels do not rise as quickly after antigen exposure.
T cells become less responsive to antigens.
Fewer cytotoxic T cells respond to an infection.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 375

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 376

With advancing age, __________ become less responsive to antigens. Additionally, __________ are less responsive, and antibody levels do NOT rise as quickly after antigen exposure.
B cells; T cells
T cells; B cells
B cells; lymphocytes
macrophages; T cells

Answer 376

T cells; B cells

Question 377

Most immune responses begin in __________, where immature or activated __________ divide to produce many cells of the same type.
secondary lymphoid structures; lymphocytes
secondary lymphoid structures; macrophages
primary lymphoid structures; macrophages
primary lymphoid structures; lymphocytes

Answer 377

secondary lymphoid structures; lymphocytes

Question 378

Which of the following statements regarding the spleen is/are true?
Areas of white pulp form splenic cords, which contain erythrocytes.
Areas of red pulp form lymphoid nodules.
The cell population of the red pulp includes all of the normal components of the circulating blood, plus fixed and free macrophages.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 378

The cell population of the red pulp includes all of the normal components of the circulating blood, plus fixed and free macrophages.

Question 379

Which of the following statements concerning lymph is/are FALSE?
Lymph contains macrophages of various types.
Lymph contains lymphocytes, which are cells responsible for the immune response.
Lymph contains interstitial fluid, which resembles blood plasma but has a higher concentration of proteins.
All of the listed statements are correct.

Answer 379

Lymph contains interstitial fluid, which resembles blood plasma but has a higher concentration of proteins.

Question 380

What color are lymphatics in living tissue?
dark blue
bright red
pale golden
dark red

Answer 380

pale golden

Question 381

Regarding the thymus, __________ cells are scattered among lymphocytes and produce thymic hormones that promote the differentiation of __________.
reticular; T cells
reticular; B cells
plasmocytes; B cells
plasmocytes; B cells

Answer 381

reticular; T cells

Question 382

Superficial lymphatics are NOT found in, or do NOT collect lymph from, which of the following locations?
the loose connective tissues of the mucous membranes lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts
the loose connective tissues of the serous membranes lining the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities
skeletal muscles and other organs of the neck, limbs, and trunk
the subcutaneous tissue next to the skin

Answer 382

skeletal muscles and other organs of the neck, limbs, and trunk

Question 383

Which lymph nodes filter lymph arriving from the urinary and reproductive systems?
intestinal lymph nodes
inguinal lymph nodes
abdominal lymph nodes
mesenteric lymph nodes

Answer 383

abdominal lymph nodes

Question 384

Where are lymphatic capillaries especially numerous?
in connective tissue deep to skin and mucous membranes and in the mucosa and submucosa of the digestive tract
in the bone marrow
in the mucosa and submucosa of the digestive tract
in connective tissue deep to skin and mucous membranes

Answer 384

in connective tissue deep to skin and mucous membranes and in the mucosa and submucosa of the digestive tract

Question 385

Which of the following cells become activated only if the same antigen appears in the body at a later date?
memory T cells and memory B cells
memory T cells
memory B cells
cytotoxic T cells

Answer 385

memory T cells and memory B cells

Question 386

Which of the following lymphocytes is responsible for immunological surveillance as they continuously circulate through peripheral tissues?
mature T cells
helper T cells
natural killer (NK) cells
B cells

Answer 386

natural killer (NK) cells

Question 387

Which of the following areas of a typical lymph node is dominated by T cells?
the deep cortical area
the medulla
the outer cortex
the medullary cords

Answer 387

the deep cortical area

Question 388

The __________ segment of the thoracic duct lies __________ to the vertebral column at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.
inferior; anterior
superior; lateral
inferior; posterior
superior; anterior

Answer 388

inferior; anterior

Question 389

Where does lymphopoiesis occur?
in the lymph nodes and spleen
in the bone marrow and thymus
in the bone marrow and spleen
in the spleen and thymus

Answer 389

in the bone marrow and thymus

Question 390

What process requires O2 and produces CO2 by allowing the respiratory system to facilitate the exchange of gases between the air and blood?
anaerobic metabolism
aerobic metabolism
fluid metabolism
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 390

aerobic metabolism

Question 391

The respiratory system includes which of the following structures?
larynx
sinuses
nasal cavity
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 391

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 392

Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system?
providing an extensive area for gas exchange between air and circulating blood
protecting respiratory surfaces from dehydration, temperature changes, and other environmental variations
assisting the regulation of blood volume and blood pressure and the control of body fluid pH
producing sounds involved in speaking, singing, or nonverbal communication

Answer 392

assisting the regulation of blood volume and blood pressure and the control of body fluid pH

Question 393

Of the three pharynges, which one includes the region of the pharynx lying between the hyoid bone and the entrance to the esophagus?
oropharynx
nasopharynx
laryngopharynx
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 393

laryngopharynx

Question 394

The __________ separates the right and left portions of the nasal cavity.
apex of the nose
minor alar cartilage
nasal septum
dorsum of the nose

Answer 394

nasal septum

Question 395

What structure(s) form(s) the boundaries of fauces?
the posterior palatopharyngeal arch
a curving line that connects the palatoglossal arches and uvula
the palatine tonsils
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 395

a curving line that connects the palatoglossal arches and uvula

Question 396

Which laryngeal cartilages articulate with the superior border of the enlarged portion of the cricoid cartilage?
arytenoid cartilages
cuneiform cartilages
corniculate cartilages
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 396

arytenoid cartilages

Question 397

The __________ is a tough, flexible tube with a diameter of about 2.5 cm and a length of approximately 11 cm.
esophagus
pulmonary artery
epiglottis
trachea

Answer 397

trachea

Question 398

Which laryngeal cartilage forms most of the anterior and lateral walls of the larynx and is considered the largest laryngeal cartilage?
cricoid cartilage
arytenoid cartilage
thyroid cartilage
epiglottis

Answer 398

thyroid cartilage

Question 399

What separates the respiratory epithelium from underlying cartilages?
lamina propria
annular ligaments
submucosa
trachea

Answer 399

lamina propria

Question 400

Where can one find the extrapulmonary bronchi?
inside the superior lobe of the lungs
outside the lungs
inside the inferior lobe of the lungs
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 400

outside the lungs

Question 401

What is the groove that provides access for entry to the pulmonary vessels and nerves?
lobe
root
hilum
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 401

hilum

Question 402

Between which lobes in the right lung could one find the horizontal fissure?
between the inferior and middle lobes
between the superior and inferior lobes
between the superior and middle lobes
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 402

between the superior and middle lobes

Question 403

The autonomic nervous system regulates the activity in the smooth muscle layer of the tertiary bronchioles and thereby controls the diameter of the bronchioles parasympathetically, thus leading to __________.
vasoconstriction
bronchodilation
bronchoconstriction
vasodilation

Answer 403

bronchoconstriction

Question 404

Which of the following best describes the covering of the outer surfaces of the lungs that extends into the fissures between the lobes of the lungs?
parietal pleura
pleural cavity
visceral pleura
pleural fluid

Answer 404

visceral pleura

Question 405

Which of the following is NOT an accessory muscle of inspiration?
serratus anterior muscle
sternocleidomastoid muscle
pectoralis minor muscle
transversus thoracis muscle

Answer 405

transversus thoracis muscle

Question 406

What sets the basic pace and depth of respiration?
medulla oblongata
pneumotaxic center
respiratory rhythmicity center
apneustic center

Answer 406

respiratory rhythmicity center

Question 407

When the thoracic volume changes because the rib cage changes shape, what occurs?
costal breathing
diaphragmatic breathing
deep breathing
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 407

costal breathing

Question 408

Age-related changes to the respiratory system include which of the following?
Arthritic changes cause restricted movement in the thoracic cage, with decreased flexibility at the costal cartilages.
Elastic tissue deteriorates throughout the body, reducing the lungs’ ability to inflate and deflate.
Emphysema can occur.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 408

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 409

Which of the following is considered an accessory digestive organ?
pharynx
stomach
esophagus
liver

Answer 409

liver

Question 410

The chemical and enzymatic breakdown of complex sugars, lipids, and proteins into small organic molecules that can be absorbed by digestive epithelium is called __________.
digestion
ingestion
secretion
mechanical processing

Answer 410

digestion

Question 411

Which component of the digestive system secretes lubricating fluids containing enzymes that break down carbohydrates?
salivary glands
small intestine
stomach
pancreas

Answer 411

salivary glands

Question 412

Which type of tooth has one or two roots, has a flattened crown with prominent ridges, and is used for crushing, mashing, and grinding?
bicuspid
cuspid
molar
incisor

Answer 412

bicuspid

Question 413

The functions of the tongue include which of the following?
manipulation to assist in chewing and to prepare the material for swallowing
sensory analysis by touch, temperature, and taste receptors
mechanical processing by compression, abrasion, and distortion
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 413

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 414

Which part of the swallowing process begins as the bolus comes in contact with the palatal arches and/or the posterior pharyngeal arch?
buccal phase
lower esophagus sphincter
pharyngeal phase
esophageal phase

Answer 414

pharyngeal phase

Question 415

Which muscles are used to push the bolus toward the esophagus?
pharyngeal constrictor muscles
stylopharyngeus muscles
palatopharyngeus muscles
palatal muscles

Answer 415

pharyngeal constrictor muscles

Question 416

The mucosa of the esophagus contains an abrasion-resistant nonkeratinized epithelium called __________.
simple squamous epithelium
stratified squamous epithelium
stratified cuboidal epithelium
simple cuboidal epithelium

Answer 416

stratified squamous epithelium

Question 417

The muscularis mucosae are thin or absent near the pharynx and are made of which muscle type?
smooth
skeletal
cardiac
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 417

smooth

Question 418

Which region of the stomach is superior to the gastroesophageal junction and contracts the inferior and posterior surface of the diaphragm?
body
pylorus
cardia
fundus

Answer 418

fundus

Question 419

Which abdominal region contains the appendix?
right iliac region
epigastric region
umbilical region
left lumbar region

Answer 419

right iliac region

Question 420

Pertaining to the digestive system, which organ plays the primary role in digestion and absorption of nutrients?
liver
stomach
large intestine
small intestine

Answer 420

small intestine

Question 421

Which anatomical subdivision(s) is/are considered a “mixing bowl” because it/they receive(s) chyme from the stomach and digestive secretions from the pancreas and liver?
ileum
jejunum
duodenum
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 421

duodenum

Question 422

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that distinguishes the large and small intestines?
The wall of the large intestine is thinner.
Glands of the large intestine are deeper.
The large intestine has villi.
Goblet cells are more abundant in the large intestine.

Answer 422

The large intestine has villi.

Question 423

Major functions of the large intestine include which of the following?
reabsorption of water and electrolytes
the storing of fecal material
absorption of important vitamins
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 423

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 424

Major functions of the liver include all of the following EXCEPT __________.
absorption and inactivation of lipid-soluble drugs
storage of iron reserves
activation of toxins
synthesis and secretion of bile

Answer 424

activation of toxins

Question 425

Which accessory and/or glandular digestive organ(s) lie(s) posterior to the stomach and extend(s) laterally from the duodenum toward the spleen?
gallbladder
pancreas
liver
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 425

pancreas

Question 426

Which of the following are age-related changes to the digestive system?
Cancer rates increase.
The rate of epithelial stem cell division declines.
Smooth muscle tone decreases.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 426

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 427

With the decrease in smooth muscle that occurs with age, what would one observe?
Constipation occurs.
General motility decreases.
Peristaltic contractions are weaker.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 427

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 428

The functions of the urinary system include which of the following?
contributing to the stabilization of blood pH
regulating plasma concentrations of sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, and other ions by controlling the quantities lost in urine
synthesizing calcitriol
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 428

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 429

The urinary system is composed of which of the following?
kidney
urinary bladder
urethra
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 429

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 430

Contraction of the urinary bladder forces urine through the urethra when what occurs?
blood flow through the kidney
kidney processing
urination
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 430

urination

Question 431

Which system(s) prevent(s) the development of “pollution” problems inside the body?
digestive system
respiratory system
urinary system
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 431

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 432

What maintains the position of the kidneys in the abdomen?
the overlying peritoneum
the supporting connective tissue
contact with adjacent visceral organs
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 432

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 433

Pertaining to the kidneys, what structure is granular and reddish brown in color and is considered the outer layer?
renal cortex
renal pelvis
renal sinus
renal medulla

Answer 433

renal cortex

Question 434

Where in the kidney does urine production occur?
renal pelvis
nephron
renal pyramid
renal lobe

Answer 434

nephron

Question 435

The kidneys are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system to perform which of the following functions?
direct stimulation of water and sodium ion reabsorption
stimulation of renin release
regulation of renal blood flow and pressure
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 435

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 436

What part do the distal segments of the nephron perform?
reabsorbing more than 90 percent of the water in the filtrate
secreting into the filtrate waste products that were missed by the filtration process
absorbing all of the useful organic substances from the filtrate
absorbing all of the useful inorganic substances from the filtrate

Answer 436

secreting into the filtrate waste products that were missed by the filtration process

Question 437

Which portion of the nephron travels in the renal medulla toward the renal pelvis?
thick segment
ascending limb
thin segment
descending limb

Answer 437

descending limb

Question 438

Two hormones, renin and erythropoietin, are produced in the kidneys for release when what occurs in the body?
Normal rates of filtrate production are restored.
Renal blood pressure, blood flow, or local oxygen levels decrease.
Blood volume, hemoglobin levels, and blood pressure are elevated.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 438

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 439

When do modification and urine production end?
when the fluid enters the minor calyx
when fluid enters the major calyx
when fluid enters the renal pelvis
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 439

when the fluid enters the minor calyx

Question 440

Which part(s) of the urinary system is/are responsible for the transport, storage, and elimination of urine?
urethra
ureters
urinary bladder
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 440

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 441

Which item below is NOT one of the three layers of the ureter?
an inner mucosa that is lined with simple squamous epithelial cells
an outer connective tissue layer that is continuous with the fibrous capsule and peritoneum
an inner mucosa that is lined by transitional epithelium
a middle muscular layer that is made up of longitudinal and circular bands of smooth muscle

Answer 441

an inner mucosa that is lined with simple squamous epithelial cells

Question 442

What is a hollow muscular organ that functions as a temporary storage site for urine?
urinary bladder
renal pelvis
ureter
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 442

urinary bladder

Question 443

What is the name of the urethra that passes through the center of the prostate gland?
spongy urethra
prostatic ureter
membranous urethra
prostatic urethra

Answer 443

prostatic urethra

Question 444

The wall of the urinary bladder contains which of the following?
mucosa of transitional epithelium
a submucosa
a muscular layer
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 444

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 445

Which of the following statements about the micturition reflex is true?
The micturition reflex coordinates the process of urination.
The micturition reflex is triggered by stimulation of the stretch receptors in the wall of the urinary bladder when the urinary bladder is full.
Both of the listed responses are correct.
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 445

Both of the listed responses are correct.

Question 446

Which of the following could cause problems with the micturition reflex as we age?
The ability to control micturition declines because of a disability to the nervous system, such as multiple sclerosis or a stroke.
Sphincter muscles lose muscle tone and become less effective at voluntarily retaining urine.
Urinary retention in males may develop secondary to chronic inflammation of the prostate gland.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 446

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 447

Age-related changes in the urinary system do NOT include which of the following?
decline in the number of functioning nephrons
problems with the micturition reflex
normal sensitivity to ADH
reduction of glomerular filtration

Answer 447

normal sensitivity to ADH

Question 448

The functional male and female reproductive cells are known as ________.
spermatogenesis
gametes
fertilization
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 448

gametes

Question 449

The combination of the genetic material provided by ________ from the father and an immature ________ from the mother occurs shortly after fertilization.
sperm; zygote
zygote; ovum
sperm; ovum
ovum; sperm

Answer 449

sperm; ovum

Question 450

The reproductive system includes which of the following?
the reproductive tract, which consists of ducts that receive, store, and transport the gametes
gonads, which produce gametes and hormones
accessory glands and organs that secrete fluids
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 450

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 451

How is the female reproductive system different from the male reproductive system?
The uterus in the female consists only of the muscular tissue, and the penis in the male consists only of nervous tissue.
The female produces oocytes each day, and the male produces 1 billion sperm per hour.
The oocyte travels along the uterine tube, which is connected directly to the cervix, whereas the sperm in the male travel from the testes to the penis.
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 451

None of the listed responses is correct.

Question 452

The functional differences between the male and female reproductive systems include which of the following?
Males have testes, and females have ovaries.
Males secrete testosterone, and females secrete estrogen.
Males produce half a billion sperm per day, and females produce one immature gamete per month.
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 452

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 453

Which item below describes the scrotum?
layers of fascia, connective tissue, and muscle enclosing the blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics supplying the testes
a pouch of skin suspended inferior to the perineum and anterior to the anus
a cord of connective tissue and muscular fibers that extends from the inferior part of each testes to the posterior wall of the peritoneum
abdominal musculature located in the peritoneal cavity

Answer 453

a pouch of skin suspended inferior to the perineum and anterior to the anus

Question 454

The process by which sperm cells are produced is called ________.
mitosis
spermiogenesis
meiosis
spermatogenesis

Answer 454

spermatogenesis

Question 455

Which of the following is NOT a distinct region of a spermatozoon?
flagellum
head
neck
body

Answer 455

body

Question 456

The functions of the epididymis include which of the following?
stores spermatozoa and facilitates their functional maturation
acts as a recycling center for damaged spermatozoa
monitors and adjusts the composition of the fluid produced by the seminiferous tubules
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 456

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 457

Which of the following is NOT a component of ejaculate?
spermatozoa
secondary spermatocytes
enzymes
seminal fluid

Answer 457

secondary spermatocytes

Question 458

Which part of the penis is the expanded distal end that surrounds the external urethral orifice?
shaft
glans
root
body

Answer 458

glans

Question 459

What structure extends from the lateral wall of the uterus to the medial surface of the ovary?
ovarian ligament
ovarian vessels
suspensory ligament
ovarian hilum

Answer 459

ovarian ligament

Question 460

Which of the following regions comprise(s) the uterine tube?
isthmus
ampulla
infundibulum
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 460

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 461

The ________ of the uterus is the inferior portion that extends from the isthmus to the vagina.
uterine cavity
cervix
body
fundus

Answer 461

cervix

Question 462

The functions of the vagina include which of the following?
serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids
forms the lower portion of the birth canal through which the fetus passes during childbirth
receives the penis during sexual intercourse and holds spermatozoa before they pass to the uterus
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 462

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 463

What supports fetal development during pregnancy?
lactation
mammary glands
implantation
placenta

Answer 463

placenta

Question 464

What are ovaries?
small, paired organs located near the lateral walls of the pelvic cavity
an organ where a fetus develops
an organ the size of a golf ball located lateral to the anus
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 464

small, paired organs located near the lateral walls of the pelvic cavity

Question 465

What is an oogonium?
secondary oocyte
primary follicle
primary oocyte
stem cell

Answer 465

stem cell

Question 466

What occurs when estrogen levels decline?
weakening of the connective tissue supporting the ovaries, uterus, and vagina
reduction in the size of the breasts
reduction in the size of the uterus
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 466

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 467

What is male climacteric?
ejaculation
cessation of sperm production
changes in the male reproductive system that occur gradually over time
increase in testosterone that occurs after age 50

Answer 467

changes in the male reproductive system that occur gradually over time

Question 468

What term is used to describe the formation of specialized cell types during embryological development that occurs through selective changes in genetic activity?
differentiation
conception
fertilization
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 468

differentiation

Question 469

________ development begins at fertilization and continues through cleavage and implantation.
Prenatal
Postnatal
Embryonic
Fetal

Answer 469

Embryonic

Question 470

________ development begins at the start of the ninth developmental week and continues up to the time of birth.
Embryonic
Fetal
Prenatal
Postnatal

Answer 470

Fetal

Question 471

At what sperm count is a male considered sterile?
fewer than 20,000 per mL
fewer than 20 million per mL
fewer than 20 billion per mL
fewer than 20 trillion per mL

Answer 471

fewer than 20 million per mL

Question 472

How many chromosomes does a zygote possess?
23
26
46
48

Answer 472

46

Question 472

By the end of the ________ trimester, the organs and organ systems have completed most of their development, and the fetus looks distinctly human.
first trimester
second trimester
third trimester

Answer 472

second trimester

Question 473

What structure begins as blood vessels from around the edges of the blastocyst and provides respiratory and nutritional support essential for further prenatal development?
placenta
decidua basalis
chorion
amnion

Answer 473

placenta

Question 474

All the components of the cardiovascular system, including the red bone marrow, arise from which of the three germ layers?
endoderm
mesoderm
ectoderm
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 474

mesoderm

Question 475

The ________ is the first of the extraembryonic membranes to appear during development.
amnion
chorion
yolk sac
allantois

Answer 475

yolk sac

Question 476

By week ________ in the first trimester of pregnancy, the embryo has a head fold and a tail fold, and constriction of the connections between the embryo and the surrounding trophoblast narrows the yolk stalk and body stalk.
2
4
5
10

Answer 476

4

Question 477

At the beginning of the ________ stage of labor, the cervix dilates completely because the cervix is being pushed open by the approaching fetus.
placental
dilation
expulsion

Answer 477

expulsion

Question 478

What hormone triggers labor contractions in the myometrium?
androgens
oxytocin
FSH
LH

Answer 478

oxytocin

Question 479

While the skull develops in the embryo, which of the following arches is the largest?
bronchial
mandibular
pharyngeal
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 479

mandibular

Question 480

At which week of fetal gestation does the diaphragm complete its formation by forming a transverse sheet superior to the liver?
week 7
week 8
week 9
week 10

Answer 480

week 9

Question 481

The hyoid arch forms near which bone of the skull during development?
temporal
frontal
occipital
parietal

Answer 481

temporal

Question 482

________ in the embryonic skeleton starts to occur after approximately 10 weeks of development.
Ossification
Osteoporosis
Osteopenia
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 482

Ossification

Question 483

Of the following choices, which layer(s) of the nervous system is/are present in the fifth week of development?
marginal layer
mantle layer
ependymal layer
All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 483

All of the listed responses are correct.

Question 484

While the heart is developing in the fifth week of pregnancy, ________ begins to subdivide the interior of the heart.
interatrial septa
interventricular septa
interatrial septa and interventricular septa
None of the listed responses is correct.

Answer 484

interatrial septa and interventricular septa

Question 485

In the developing lymphoid system, primordial lymph sacs form parallel with veins of the trunk, and a large median lymph sac marks the future location of the ________ which can be found in an adult.
thoracic duct
cisterna chyli
right duct

Answer 485

cisterna chyli