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Pharmacology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Acetylcholine
category:
direct or indirect:
mechanism:
effects:
clinical use:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC AGONIST
direct or indirect: DIRECT, ENDOGENOUS
mechanism: STIMULATES NICOTINIC & MUSCARINIC R; RAPID DEGREDATION VIA AChE
effects: SLUDGE
clinical use: rare, ophalmic

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2
Q

Bethanechol
category:
direct or indirect:
mechanism:
effects:
clinical use:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC AGONIST
direct or indirect: DIRECT
mechanism: STIMULATES MUSCARINIC
effects: EMPTIES URINARY BLADDER
clinical use: TREATS URINARY RETENTION WHEN OBSTRUCTION IS ABSENT

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3
Q

Muscarine
category:
direct or indirect:
mechanism:
effects:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC AGONIST
direct or indirect: DIRECT
mechanism: ALKALOID FOUND IN CERTAIN MUSHROOMS, STIMULATES MUSCARINIC R
effects: SLUDGE

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4
Q

Pilocarpine
category:
direct or indirect:
mechanism:
effects:
clinical use:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC AGONIST
direct or indirect: DIRECT
mechanism: ALKALOID STIMULATES MUSCARINIC R
effects: PUPILLARY CONSTRICTION, DECREASES INTRAOCULAR PRESSURE DURING GLAUCOMA
clinical use: TOPICAL OPHTHALMIC USE

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5
Q

Physostigmine
category:
direct or indirect:
mechanism:
cross BBB?:
effects:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC AGONIST
direct or indirect: INDIRECT, REVERSIBLE
mechanism: AChE INHIBITOR
cross BBB?: YES - NON-QUATERNARY STRUCTURE
effects: COUNTERS ANTI-CHOLINERGIC TOXICITY

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6
Q

Neostigmine
category:
direct or indirect:
mechanism:
cross BBB?:
effects:
clinical use:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC AGONIST
direct or indirect: INDIRECT, REVERSIBLE
mechanism: AChE INHIBITOR
cross BBB?: NO - QUATERNARY STRUCTURE
effects: STIMULATES VISCERAL SMOOTH
clinical use: TREATS BLADDER ATOPY

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7
Q

Atropine
category:
mechanism:
cross BBB?:
effects:
clinical use:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC ANTAGONIST
mechanism: ALKALOID, INHIBITS BINDING/STIMULATION OF MUSCARINIC R
cross BBB?: YES - NON-QUATERNARY STRUCTURE
effects: PREVENTS BRADYCARDIA, DECREASES SALIVARY/AIRWAY SECRETIONS
clinical use: ADJUNCT DURING GENERAL ANESTHESIA

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8
Q

Glycopyrrolate
category:
mechanism:
cross BBB?:
effects:
clinical use:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC ANTAGONIST
mechanism: SYNTHETIC VERSION OF ATROPINE BUT NO OFF TARGET EFFECTS!
cross BBB?: NO - QUATERNARY STRUCTURE (LITTLE CNS EFFECT)
effects: PREVENTS BRADYCARDIA, DECREASES SALIVARY/AIRWAY SECRETIONS
clinical use: ADJUNCT DURING GENERAL ANESTHESIA

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9
Q

Tropiamide
category:
mechanism:
effects:
clinical use:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC ANTAGONIST
mechanism: SHORTER DURATION THAN ATROPINE
effects: MYDRIASIS (DILATION), CYCLOPLEGIA
clinical use: OPHTHO EXAM

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10
Q

Ipratropium
category:
mechanism:
cross BBB?:
effects:
clinical use:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC ANTAGONIST
mechanism: QUATERNARY STRUCTURE
cross BBB?: NO - NO OFF TARGET EFFECTS
effects: BRONCHODILATION
clinical use: INHALED - ASTHMA FOR CATS, CHRONIC BRONCHITIS FOR DOGS, HORSES W RECURRENT AIRWAY INFLAM

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11
Q

Propantheline
category:
effects:
clinical use:

A

category: CHOLINERGIC ANTAGONIST
effects: URINE RETENTION
clinical use: URINARY INCONTINENCE

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12
Q

Epinephrine
category:
direct/indirect:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC AGONIST
direct/indirect: DIRECT CATECHOLAMINE, ENDOGENOUS
mechanism: RELEASED BY ADRENAL CHROMAFFIN CELLS, GIVE IV/IM/SQ
effects on which receptors:
𝛽1 - INCREASED CO/HR/CONTRACTILITY
𝛽2 - BRONCHODILATION & VASODILATION OF SKELETAL M
𝛼1 - VASOCONSTRICTION OF ARTERIES
clinical use: HYPERSENSITIVITY, CARDIAC ARREST, AV NODE BLOCK. TOPICAL HEMOSTATIC AGENT

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13
Q

Norepinephrine
category:
direct/indirect:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC AGONIST
direct/indirect: DIRECT CATECHOLAMINE, ENDOGENOUS
mechanism: LACKS 𝛽2 STIMULATION, MAJOR NT RELEASED BY POST-GANG SYMP N.
effects on which receptors:
𝛼1 - VASOCONSTRICTION OF ARTERIES TO INCREASE BP
𝛽1 - INCREASE CO (LESS EFFECT THAN EPI)
clinical use: MAINTAINS BP DURING SHOCK

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14
Q

Dopamine
category:
direct/indirect:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC AGONIST
direct/indirect: DIRECT, ENDOGENOUS
mechanism: PRECURSOR FOR EPI/NE, GIVE IV, DOSE-DEPENDENT*
effects on which receptors:
LOW DOSE - D1 - INCREASE RENAL BLOOD FLOW & NA EXCRETION & STIMULATES 𝛽1 - POSITIVE INOTROPIC EFFECT
HIGH DOSE - 𝛼1 - VASOCONSTRICTION & DECREASE RENAL BLOOD FLOW
clinical use:
LOW DOSE - CHF PATIENTS WITH COMPROMISED RENAL FUNCTION (SHORT TERM), CKD PATIENTS
HIGH DOSE - HYPOTENSION DURING ANESTHESIA

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15
Q

Dobutamine
category:
selective or nonselective:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC AGONIST
selective or nonselective: NON-SELECTIVE
effects on which receptors:
𝛽1 - INCREASED CARDIAC CONTRACTILITY WITH MINIMAL CHANGE TO HR & BP
clinical use: HEART FAILURE PATIENTS - GIVE IV SHORT TERM

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16
Q

Albuterol (salbutamol)
category:
selective or nonselective:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC AGONIST
selective or nonselective: SELECTIVE
mechanism: MINIMIZE LOSS OF EFFICACY WITH PROPER DOSE & DOSE SCHEDULE; DOSE-TITRATE TO OVERCOME TOLERANCE
effects on which receptors:
𝛽2 - BRONCHODILATION
clinical use: BRONCHOSPASM IN DOGS, CATS, HORSES, ASTHMA

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17
Q

Clenbuterol
category:
selective or nonselective:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC AGONIST
selective or nonselective: SELECTIVE
mechanism: MINIMIZE LOSS OF EFFICACY WITH PROPER DOSE & DOSE SCHEDULE; DOSE-TITRATE TO OVERCOME TOLERANCE
effects on which receptors:
𝛽2 - BRONCHODILATION
clinical use: ALLERGIC BRONCHITIS, HEAVES & BRONCHOCONSTRICTION IN HORSES

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18
Q

Phenylephrine (Ak-Dilate)
category:
selective or nonselective:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC AGONIST
selective or nonselective: SELECTIVE
mechanism: PRESSOR AGENT
effects on which receptors:
𝛼1 - VASOCONSTRICTION TO INCREASE BP
clinical use: TOPICAL USE FOR PUPIL DILATION

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19
Q

Dexmedetomidine & Xylazine
category:
selective or nonselective:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC AGONIST
selective or nonselective: SELECTIVE
mechanism: CNS INHIBITION
effects on which receptors:
𝛼2 - CNS INHIBITION - SEDATION, ANESTHESIA, ANALGESIA, DECREASE IN BP
clinical use: ADJUNCT FOR SEDATION TO ALLOW LOWER DOSE OF OTHER ANESTHESIA/ANALGESIC AGENTS WITH LOWER SAFETY PROFILES

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20
Q

Phenoxybenzamine
category:
direct/indirect:
selective or nonselective:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC ANTAGONIST
direct/indirect: DIRECT
selective or nonselective: NON-SELECTIVE
mechanism: IRREVERSIBLE, NONCOMPETITIVE
effects on which receptors:
𝛼1 & 𝛼2 - ALLOWS URINATION BY DECREASING SPHINCTER TONE & DECREASES BP
clinical use: NEURO BLADDERS

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21
Q

Phentolamine
category:
direct/indirect:
selective or nonselective:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC ANTAGONIST
direct/indirect: DIRECT
selective or nonselective: NON-SELECTIVE
mechanism: REVERSIBLE, COMPETITIVE
effects on which receptors:
𝛼1, 𝛼2 - ALLOWS URINATION BY DECREASING SPHINCTER TONE & DECREASES BP
clinical use: NEURO BLADDERS

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22
Q

Prazosin
category:
selective or nonselective:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC ANTAGONIST
selective or nonselective: SELECTIVE
effects on which receptors:
𝛼1 - VASODILATION TO DECREASE BP
clinical use: ANTIHYPERTENSION IN CHF PATIENTS, URETHRAL SPASMS

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23
Q

Atipamezole
category:
selective or nonselective:
mechanism:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC ANTAGONIST
selective or nonselective: SELECTIVE
mechanism: REVERSAL FOR SEDATION W/ MIN RISK FOR RELAPSE INTO SEDATION; MUST BE DOSE MATCHING
effects on which receptors:
𝛼2 - DECREASE SEDATION/ANALGESIA, INCREASE SYMPATHETIC OUTFLOW FROM BRAIN
clinical use: REVERSE EFFECTS OF MEDETOMIDINE

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24
Q

Propranolol
category:
selective or nonselective:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC ANTAGONIST
selective or nonselective: NON-SELECTIVE
effects on which receptors:
𝛽1 - DECREASED CO/BP
𝛽2 - BRONCHOCONSTRICTION (NOT DESIRABLE)
clinical use: PATIENTS WITH CHF

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25
Q

Timolol
category:
selective or nonselective:
effects on which receptors:

A

category: ADRENERGIC ANTAGONIST
selective or nonselective: NON-SELECTIVE
effects on which receptors:
𝛽1, 𝛽2 - OCULAR USE TO DECREASE AQUEOUS HUMOR PRODUCTION DURING GLAUCOMA

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26
Q

Atenolol
category:
selective or nonselective:
effects on which receptors:
clinical use:

A

category: ADRENERGIC ANTAGONIST
selective or nonselective: SELECTIVE
effects on which receptors:
𝛽1 - DECREASE HR/O2 DEMAND/BP
clinical use: SAFER FOR PATIENTS WITH BRONCHOSPASTIC DZ THAN PROPANOLOL

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27
Q

Procainamide
class:
channels blocked:
category of drug:

A

class: IA
channels blocked: Na+ & K+
category of drug: anti-arrhythmic

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28
Q

Lidocaine, Mexiletine
class:
channels blocked:
category of drug:
what is unique about this drug?

A

class: IB
channels blocked: Na+
category of drug: anti-arrhythmic

metabolized rapidly by the liver, thus lower dose in patients with liver disease
binds to inactivated state of Na+ channels
better in damaged/depolarized tissue

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29
Q

Flecainide
class:
channels blocked:
category of drug:

A

class: IC
channels blocked: Na+
category of drug: anti-arrhythmic

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30
Q

Atenolol
class:
channels blocked:
category of drug:
what is this drug often combined with?

A

class: II
channels blocked: beta-1
category of drug: anti-arrhythmic
digoxin

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31
Q

Sotalol
class:
channels blocked:
category of drug:
what is this drug often combined with?
what patients do you NOT give this to?

A

class: II, III
channels blocked: beta-1, beta-2, K+
category of drug: anti-arrhythmic
Mexiletine
do not give to patients with respiratory distress due to blockage of beta-2 receptors

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32
Q

Amiodarone
class:
channels blocked:
category of drug:
when would you give this drug?
consequences of this drug?

A

class: III
channels blocked: K+
category of drug: anti-arrhythmic
in patients that do not respond to safer drugs
pulmonary fibrosis, thyroid problems and derm issues (blue/gray color)

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33
Q

Verapamil, Diltizem
class:
channels blocked:
category of drug:

A

class: IV
channels blocked: Ca2+, non-vascular specific (affect cardiac and vasculature)
category of drug: anti-arrhythmic

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34
Q

Digoxin
class:
MOA:
category of drug:
what drugs is this often combined with?
do not use in ____

A

class: miscellaneous
MOA: cardiac glycoside - inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase - slows AV node conduction & increases cardiac contractility
category of drug: anti-arrhythmic & contractility modulator
dilitazem or atenolol
do not use in dogs

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35
Q

Adenosine
class:
MOA:
category of drug:
only give IV because?
cautious use in ____

A

class: miscellaneous
MOA: adenosine receptor agonist - blocks AV node conduction
category of drug: anti-arrhythmic
half life of 5 seconds
cautious use in dogs

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36
Q

Dopamine
MOA:
effect:

A

MOA: beta-1 stimulator
effect: increases cardiac contractility with less vasoconstriction
“ceiling effect”

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37
Q

what patients do you not use dopamine and dobutamine in?

A

patients taking beta-blockers

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38
Q

Dobutamine
MOA:
effect:

A

MOA: beta-1 stimulator
effect: increases cardiac contractility with less vasoconstriction
“ceiling effect”

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39
Q

Milrinone
MOA:
effect:

A

MOA: PDE3 inhibitor
effect: increases cardiac contractility
decreases peripheral resistance (vasodilation)

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40
Q

signs of digoxin toxicity?

A

vomiting**, dizziness, drowsiness, diarrhea

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41
Q

what exacerbates the effects of digoxin?

A

hypokalemia

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42
Q

Pimobendan
MOA:
effect:

A

MOA: “iondilator”
effect: increases cardiac contractility & vasodilation of periphery via directly increasing Ca2+ binding to troponin C

43
Q

why is pimobendan a good choice of drug?

A

requires small increase in O2/energy consumption, not associated with arrhythmias

44
Q

Aliskiren
MOA:
category of drug:

A

MOA: inhibits renin (prevents angiotensinogen from converting to angiotensin I)
category of drug: vasodilator

45
Q

Enalapril
MOA:
category of drug:

A

MOA: inhibits ACE (prevents angI from converting to angII)
category of drug: vasodilator

46
Q

Losartan
MOA:
category of drug:

A

MOA: inhibits angiotensin receptor type I (ATI) - prevents hypertensive affects of angII
category of drug: vasodilator

47
Q

Prazosin
MOA:
category of drug:
preload or afterload?
result?

A

MOA: blocks alpha-1 receptors
category of drug: vasodilator
preload & afterload
reflex tacchycardia

48
Q

Amlodipine
MOA:
category of drug:
preload or afterload?
result?

A

MOA: vascular specific Ca2+ channel blocker
category of drug: vasodilator
preload and afterload
result: reflex tacchycardia

49
Q

Nitroglycerin
MOA:
category of drug:
preload or afterload?
notes about this drug:

A

MOA: increases cGMP promoting vasodilation
category of drug: vasodilator
venous preload only
explosive, tolerance can develop, good drug for pulmonary edema

50
Q

Sodium Nitroprusside
MOA:
category of drug:
preload or afterload?
notes about this drug:

A

MOA: increases cGMP, promoting vasodilation
category of drug: vasodilator
preload and afterload (venous & arterial)
notes about this drug: light exposure will produce cyanide - turn dark brown, orange or blue

51
Q

Sildenafil
MOA:
category of drug:
notes about this drug:

A

MOA: PDE 5 inhibitor (prevents breakdown of cGMP, prolonging vasodilation)
category of drug: vasodilator
notes about this drug: good for managing pulmonary hypertension because PDE 5 is up-regulated in pulmonary arterial smooth m during pulmonary hypertension

52
Q

Diazepam (Valium)
category:
MOA:
stabilization or maintenance?
adverse effects:

A

category: anti-convulsant
MOA: binds to benzodiapine site on GABA receptor to increase efficacy of endogenous GABA
stabilization
adverse effects: tolerance (tachyphylaxis), sedation, behavioral change, hepatic toxicosis w/ chronic oral treatment in cats

53
Q

Midazolam
category:
MOA:
when would use this instead of diazepam

A

category: anti-convulsant
MOA: binds to benzodiapine site on GABA receptor to increase efficacy of endogenous GABA
give IM when venous access is difficult

54
Q

Clonazepam (Klonapin)
category:
MOA:
when would you use this?
why would you use in cats?

A

category: anti-convulsant
MOA: binds to benzodiapine site on GABA receptor to increase efficacy of endogenous GABA
use as a last result due to unfavorable PK
alternate for diazepam in cats due to no reports of hepatic toxicosis

55
Q

Phenobarbital
category:
MOA:
stabilization or maintenance?
adverse effects:

A

category: anti-convulsant
MOA: binds to barbiturate site on GABA receptors to increase efficacy of endogenous GABA
stabilization and maintenance
adverse effects: drug interactions, PUPD, polyphagia, blood dyscrasias, thyroid issues, increased corticosteroid metabolism, hepatic non-toxic, hepatic toxic effects with high doses –> lower seizure threshold and superficial necrolytic dermatitis

56
Q

how does phenobarbital differ from diazepam

A
  1. does not enter CNS as rapidly
  2. induces CYP450 to enhance biotransformation of itself and other drugs by increasing hepatic metabolism
57
Q

Bromide
category:
MOA:
stabilization or maintenance?
adverse effects:

A

category: anti-convulsant
MOA: enhances hyperpolarization by slowing the opening of Ca channels
stabilization in combo with pheno & diazepam and maintenance in combo with pheno
adverse effects: joint stiffness in rear limbs, coughing in cats, CNS depression

58
Q

Gabapentin (Neurontin)
category:
MOA:
stabilization or maintenance?
adverse effects:

A

category: anti-convulsant
MOA: structural analog of GABA, inhibits alpha-2-delta subunit of N-type Ca2+ channel neurons
maintenance in combo with pheno and/or bromide
adverse effects: well-tolerated, mild sedation, polyphagia

59
Q

Leveitracetam (Keppra)
category:
MOA:
stabilization or maintenance?
adverse effects:

A

category: anti-convulsant
MOA: modulates synaptic vesicle of glycoprotein 2A (SV2A); suppresses seizure activity without altering normal neuronal excitability
maintenance in combo with pheno and/or bromide
adverse effects: nausea & vomit with high doses

60
Q

Primidone (Mysoline, Mylepsin)
MOA

A

pro-drug - barbiturate derivative that is metabolized to phenobarbital

61
Q

most widely used anticonvulsant in small animals for maintenance

A

phenobarbital

62
Q

what is the drug of choice for treating active seizures - esp. status epilepticus

A

diazepam

63
Q

glucocorticoids type of drug and MOA

A

steroids
direct lytic effect on malignant cells in lymphoma, leukemia, myeloma; apoptosis dependent on balance of anti/pro apoptotic proteins

64
Q

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) type of drug, MOA & adverse effects

A

alkylating agents

“pro-drug” becomes phosphoramide mustard and acrolein

acrolein causes sterile hemorrhagic cystitis (reduced by furosemide and MESNA)

65
Q

chlorambucil (leukaran) type of drug and treats what type of cancer

A

alkylating agents

CLL, lymphoma, mast cell tumors

66
Q

Melphalan (Alkeran) type of drug and treats what type of cancer

how is it taken up into cells?

A

alkylating agents, active parent drug

multiple myeloma

aa transporters

67
Q

CCNU type of drug and MOA

A

alkylating agents

highly lipophilic, crosses BBB (good for brain metastasis)

68
Q

Dacarbazine and Procarbazine type of drug and MOA

A

alkylating agents

methylating agents that inhibit RNA/DNA synthesis

69
Q

Methotrexate type of drug and MOA

A

anti-metabolite
folate analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase that blocks purine & thymidylate biosynthesis

70
Q

Cytosine Arabinoside, Ara-C, Cytarabine type of drug and MOA

A

anti-metabolite
analog to deoxycytidine
phosphorylated to Ara-CTP which inhibits DNA polymerase alpha

crosses BBB

71
Q

Doxorubicin type of drug, MOA and adverse effects

A

anti-tumor antibiotic
top II inhibition primarily, also ROS, alkylation, inhibits DNA/RNA polymerase
“H” in CHOP for canine lymphoma
cardiac toxicity associated with total dose and lifetime dose (250 mg/m2) or acute cardiotoxicity with rapid infusion; also GI and hematopoietic; severe vessicant activity
dogs mainly cardiac, cats renal

72
Q

Mitoxantrone type of drug, MOA, when you use it and what cancers it treats

A

anti-tumor antibiotic
top II inhibition
if dog reached max dox dose or showing cardiac abnormalities
lymphoma and TCC

73
Q

Actinomycin D type of drug and MOA

A

anti-tumor antibiotic
binds ssDNA to inhibit transcription

74
Q

Vincristine type of drug, MOA and what cancer it treats

adverse effects?

A

microtubule targeting
vinca alkaloids (pink periwinkle) - prevent assembly
“O” in CHOP for canine lymphoma
peripheral neuropathy

75
Q

Vinblastine type of drug, MOA and what cancer it treats

adverse effects?

A

microtubule targeting
vinca alkaloids (pink periwinkle) - prevents assembly
canine mast cell tumors
BAG

76
Q

Paclitaxel and Docetaxel type of drug and MOA

A

microtubule targeting
taxanes (yew) - prevent disassembly

77
Q

single most active agent used in vet oncology

A

doxorubicin

78
Q

only FDA approved chemotherapy drug in vetmed

A

tanovea

79
Q

carboplatin type of drug and what is treats

A

platinum agent “metalators”
osteosarcomas w/ doxorubicin

80
Q

cisplatin type of drug and who not to give it to

A

platinum agent “metalators”
do not give to cats bc it will cause fatal fulminant pulmonary edema “cisplat splats cats” + ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

81
Q

epipodophyllotoxins MOA

A

inhibits top II

82
Q

Tanovea MOA and adverse effects

A

anti-metabolite and double pro-drug that accumulated PMEG and inhibits proliferative cells
dermatopathy and pulmonary fibrosis

83
Q

imatinib (gleevec) MOA and what cancer it treats

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor that blocks BCR/ABL
chronic myelogenous leukemia

84
Q

toceranib (palladia) MOA and cancer it treats

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor that inhibits c-kit
mast cell tumors

85
Q

what drugs does phenobarbital have the potential to have drug interactions with

A

digoxin
steroids
chloramphenicol

86
Q

initial treatment to bring about remission

A

induction

87
Q

to kill remaining cancer cells

A

consolidation

88
Q

enhance primary response and prevent relapse

A

maintenance

89
Q

treatment after primary therapy fails

A

salvage

90
Q

treatment where there is no measurable disease

A

adjuvanttr

91
Q

treatment prior to surgery to shrink or pretreat tumor

A

neoadjuvant

92
Q

enhance response of ionizing radiation

A

radio-sensitization

93
Q

treatment to ease symptoms without curative intent

A

palliation

94
Q

What are the goal’s associated with cancer therapy and how does the treatment regimen coincide with this goal?

A

cure, remission, palliation
therapeutic regiment must be consistent with goal of treatment

95
Q

complete disappearance of tumor and symptoms of disease

A

complete remission

96
Q

decreased volume by >50% or max diameter >30%

A

partial remission

97
Q

no increase or decrease

A

stable disease

98
Q

increased volume >25%, increased diameter >20%, new lesions

A

progressive disease

99
Q

List the general mechanisms by which tumor cells become resistant to cancer chemotherapeutic agents.

A

can be drug dependent or through multi-drug mechanism
decreased uptake
decreased biotransformation/activation
increased inactivation

100
Q

What is the mechanism of action of alkylating agents and what side effects do all alkylating agents generally have in common?

A

MOA: covalent binding to macromolecules - can be monofunctional “DNA lesion” or bifunctional “crosslink”
Side effects: BAG – bone marrow suppression, alopecia, GI distress

101
Q

L-asparaginase
MOA
how is it different than other drugs
what drug does it block toxicity and efficacy of

A

inhibits asparagine synthetase, depletes asparagine in tumor cells, inhibits protein synthesis
minimally myelosuppressive
methotrexate

102
Q

is chemical inactivation or chemotherapy spill kits preferred?

A

spill kits, chemical inactivation is ineffective for cytotoxic chemotherapy unless in the case of nitrogen mustard w/ sodium thiosulfate

103
Q

irreversible AChE inhibitors

A

organophosphates
insecticides (malathion)
nerve gases (sarin)

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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