Mock 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Why should you seek expert legal advice for specific legal disciplines and the laws of specific countries?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. To provide a confidential way for employees to report issues to management.
B. To lessen the potential for retaliation.
C. To help the organization achieve its long-term plans.
D. To help identify potential concerns, mitigate undesirable consequences and avoid litigation.

A

D. To help identify potential concerns, mitigate undesirable consequences and avoid litigation.

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2
Q

An organization seeking an applicant tracking system with a well-developed report library and a robust custom report writer would likely select which of the following?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. A component system, since it can be integrated with different HR and payroll master systems.
B. A component system, since it can be integrated with different HR and payroll master systems.
C. A fully integrated human resource management system (HRMS) offering applicant tracking as a module
D. A monolith system, so data can be transferred efficiently into the main HRMS

A

A.

A component system typically does one thing extremely efficiently and can be integrated with several different HR and payroll master systems.
In an outsourced solution, another company is contracted to handle hiring life-cycle activities. A monolith system is a fully integrated HRMS offering applicant tracking as a module.

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3
Q

A benefits needs assessment includes all of the following activities EXCEPT

A. Comparing the HR budget with concerns for employee satisfaction.
B. Reviewing the organization’s strategy.
C. Analyzing the demographics of the organization’s workforce.
D. Reviewing the organization’s total rewards philosophy.

A

A. Comparing the HR budget with concerns for employee satisfaction.

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4
Q

What form is best used to authorize creating a new position that is not currently filled by an employee?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Requisition form
B. Requisition replacement form
C. Recruitment form
D. Add to headcount” form

A

A. Requisition form

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5
Q

Why do organizations incorporate command centers as part of their security programs?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. To provide executives with a safe place to gather if they are directly threatened
B. To provide communities with basic human needs such as food and water during a natural disaster.
C. To provide a central source for
communication and making decisions on behalf of the organization during a crisis
D. To provide security personnel with a centralized location to review surveillance.

A

C. To provide a central source for
communication and making decisions on behalf of the organization during a crisis

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6
Q

A behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) evaluation method is MOST appropriate in situations where

A. Forced distribution on a bell curve is needed to ensure that the merit increase budget is not exceeded.
B. Employees are ranked from highest to lowest in performance to save time.
C. There are many employees performing the same tasks.
D. Goals and objectives must be defined so employees know what they must achieve within a specified time.

A

C. There are many employees performing the same tasks.

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7
Q

Which level of Kirkpatrick’s four levels of training evaluation assesses how the program has affected the organizational goals?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Learning
B. Reaction
C. Behavior
D. Results

A

D. Results

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8
Q

One traditional measure of recruiting costs
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Cost of hire.
B. Return on investment.
C. Days to fill.
D. Full-time equivalency.

A

A. Cost of hire.

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9
Q

In order to create a positive workplace culture, HR should do all of the following
EXCEPT
A. Offer work/life balance programs.
B. Provide an effective onboarding program.
C. Make a counteroffer, when necessary, to retain employees.
D. Recognize and reward employees for their performance

A

C. Make a counteroffer, when necessary, to retain employees

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10
Q

Which of the following methods is NOT ONLY used as an internal recruiting method?
A. Assessments
B. Job postings
C. Employee referrals
D. Employee databases

A

A. Assessments

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11
Q

What type of individual is imaginative and good at coming up with ideas and seeing things from different perspectives?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Assimilators
B. Accommodators
C. Divergers
D. Convergers

A

C. Divergers

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12
Q

Which of the following approaches is about eliminating waste, taking time out of processes and creating better flow?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Total quality management (TQM)
B. Lean Six Sigma
C. Six Sigma
D. Systems theory

A

B. Lean Six Sigma

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13
Q

Which pay system is best suited to routine jobs where worker qualifications increase over time?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Time-based
B. Single-rate
C. Performance-based
D. None of the above

A

A. Time-based

In a time-based system, the rate is based on longevity in the job and pay increases occur according to a predetermined schedule. A time-based system recognizes that as an employee’s skills increase so does his/her value.

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14
Q

An individual development plan (IDP) should focus on the
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Manager’s plan for improved performance.
B. Employee’s areas of improvement.
C. Employee’s skills and talents for future jobs.
D. Manager’s priorities to achieve business results

A

C

An IDP is a natural product of the performance evaluation process. It focuses on the employee’s skills and talents for future jobs and new skills that will help the employee perform better on the job. IDPs do not focus on performance improvement but rather professional
development. Managers who support IDPs send a clear message that an employee’s professional development is a priority. Managers and employees can work together to meet the goals of the employee as well as the organization.

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15
Q

Which of the following statements about an employment relationship is true?

A. Written employment contracts are not typical in most countries.
B. Probationary periods are required by law.
C. Employment-at-will means that employment contracts are the exception rather than the rule.
D. A pay slip may not be considered an employment contract

A

C. Employment-at-will means that employment contracts are the exception rather than the rule.

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16
Q

When maintaining files, what can HR use to help protect applicants and employees from discrimination, identity theft, breach of privacy and any other legal violation?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Audit checklist
B. Performance records
C. Retention schedule
D. Gap analysis

A

A.

HR must give special consideration to where and how to maintain files, limiting access to protect applicants and employees from discrimination, identity theft, breach of privacy and any other legal violations. In some cases, HR may use checklists to ensure that the policies are being met.

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17
Q

Which of the following barriers to effective communication occurs because of the actions of the sender?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Source credibility
B. Filtering
C. Frame of reference
D. Selective listening

A

B. Filtering

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18
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a work/life program that an organization may offer?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Low-interest loans
B. Child-care assistance program
C. Adoption assistance
D. Employee assistance program

A

A. Low-interest loans

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19
Q

Which one of today’s HR roles focuses on dealing with compliance issues and record keeping?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Control
B. Strategic
C. Operational
D. Administrative

A

D. Administrative

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20
Q

The purpose of a benefits needs assessment is to decide on a benefits package that will provide all of the following results EXCEPT
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Meeting employee needs.
B. Matching the overall business strategies.
C. Supporting the organization’s mission and vision.
D. Deciding which government-mandated benefits are necessary.

A

D. Deciding which government-mandated benefits are necessary.

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21
Q

Which of the following statements about effective recruiting is NOT true?

A. Job specifications should reflect the collective input of managers, supervisors, incumbents and others.
B. What works for one organization will usually apply to another organization.
C. Recruiters should show genuine interest in job candidates and treat them like valued prospective employees.
D. Organizations should recruit continuously rather than only to fill specific existing openings

A

B. What works for one organization will usually apply to another organization.

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22
Q

Participants in a training program are rating a facilitator’s skills. They rate the facilitator’s skills as excellent, fair or poor in 20 categories. The trainer receives the same rating in 12 out of 20 categories. What is the percentage of agreement?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. 48%
B. 55%
C. 60%
D. 52%

A

C. 60%

The percentage of agreement can be calculated as the number of categories with the same rating divided by the total number of categories and then multiplied by 100.

Number of categories with the same rating = 12
Total number of categories = 20

Percentage of agreement = (12 / 20) * 100 = 60%

So, the percentage of agreement is 60%. Therefore, the correct answer is:

C. 60%

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23
Q

A fair and just discipline process is composed of which elements?

A. Clearly defined rules and regulations, a progressive discipline process and an appeals process.
B. Clearly defined rules and regulations, a progressive discipline process and employee feedback.
C. Clearly defined rules and regulations, manager involvement and an appeals process
D. Clearly defined rules and regulations, an appeals process and employee feedback

A

A. Clearly defined rules and regulations, a progressive discipline process and an appeals process.

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24
Q

When an organization undergoes supply analysis, demand analysis, gap analysis, and solution analysis, they are involved in which type of activity?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Recruitment
B. Job evaluation
C. Workforce planning
D. Strategic planning

A

C. Workforce planning

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25
Q

What is the first step in the formal training of new employees?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Formal evaluation
B. Behavioral interview
C. Orientation
D. Facility tour

A

C. Orientation

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26
Q

Which method for collecting employee feedback is the most efficient when gathering information on the general work environment, job conditions and employment practices?

A. Employee focus groups
B. Employee surveys
C. Employee suggestion systems
D. Management visits

A

B. Employee surveys

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27
Q

What is the difference between career planning and career management?

A. Career planning responsibility lies with the individual; career management responsibility lies with the organization.
B. Career planning focuses on the organization’s needs; career management focuses on the employee’s needs.
C. Career planning focuses on developing a career path; career management focuses on individual skill assessment.
D. There is no difference between career planning and career management.

A

A. Career planning responsibility lies with the individual; career management responsibility lies with the organization.

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28
Q

In which stage of Jellison’s J Curve of Change are employees openly opposed to the change and are expressing their desire to return to the old ways?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Ascent
B. Valley
C. Cliff
D. Plateau

A

C. Cliff

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29
Q

When should you begin planning for repatriation?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. As dictated by the assignee
B. As soon as the international assignment begins.
C. Approximately six months prior to repatriation.
D. Approximately four weeks prior to repatriation.

A

C. Approximately six months prior to repatriation.

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30
Q

The Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Right (TRIPS) covers all of the following issues EXCEPT

A. How to save the heritage of the world’s intellectual property.
B. How to give adequate protection to intellectual property rights.
C. How to settle disputes on intellectual property between members of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
D. How basic principles of the trading system and other international intellectual property agreements should be applied.

A

A. How to save the heritage of the world’s intellectual property.

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31
Q

An auto repair chain that uses manual procedures for checking cars in and out has been receiving numerous complaints about delays. The CEO attributes the problem to employee laziness and wants the employees to perform their procedures faster rather than installing equipment to modify the process. Which motivational theory is inherent in the CEO’s leadership style?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Situational
D. Contingency

A

A. Theory X

The CEO’s leadership style is reflective of Theory X.

Theory X assumes that employees are inherently lazy, dislike work, and need to be closely controlled and motivated through a combination of rewards and punishments. In this case, the CEO attributes the problem to employee laziness and wants to push employees to perform faster, which aligns with Theory X’s view of motivating employees through control and external pressure rather than considering their intrinsic motivation or potential for self-direction, as suggested by Theory Y.

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32
Q

Which of the following is an effective guideline for using social networking sites for recruiting?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Assess candidates based on their ability to navigate the social networking site.
B. Use social networking sites to complement your existing recruitment channels.
C. Use social networking sites to communicate all the contents of your organization’s website.
D. Avoid connections between the networking site and the organization’s website.

A

B. Use social networking sites to complement your existing recruitment channels.

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33
Q

Which methods use a scaling system to show how much more valuable one job is than another?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Job classification
B. Job ranking
C. Quantitative evaluation
D. Nonquantitative evaluation

A

C.

Quantitative evaluation methods use a scaling system to show how much more valuable one job is than another. While nonquantitative methods evaluate the whole job, quantitative methods evaluate the job using a variety of factors-often called compensable factors—that reflect how much the job adds value to the organization.

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34
Q

What is the purpose of a demand analysis?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. To assess the current demand for an organization’s workforce
B. To identify gaps between the composition of the current workforce and future workforce needs.
C. To forecast the organization’s future workforce composition
D. To identify the supply of labor and skills that are vital to an organization

A

C. To forecast the organization’s future workforce composition

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35
Q

Which of the following is helpful for strategic guidance when developing the job summary section of a job description?

A. Reviewing the organization’s mission, vision and values.
B. Reviewing the performance appraisal of the person currently in the job.
C. Benchmarking against the job descriptions used in other organizations
D. Conducting a SWOT analysis

A

A. Reviewing the organization’s mission, vision and values.

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36
Q

What is the purpose of employee suggestion systems?

A. They are often used as a follow-up to a survey and can provide an in-depth look at specific issues raised during a survey.
B. Management asks questions about project work and encourages employees to share their accomplishments and challenges.
C. They offer individual employees the opportunity to provide management with ideas for improving the workplace or any of its processes.
D. They provide multiple channels for open dialogue such as online tools, in-person meetings, phone calls or a written note.

A

C. They offer individual employees the opportunity to provide management with ideas for improving the workplace or any of its processes.

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37
Q

One of the MAIN reasons to conduct a needs analysis is to
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Cascade a strategy through the organization from the top down.
B. Identify gaps between actual and desired performance.
C. Verify a control group as being reliable and valid.
D. Obtain senior management support for a change.

A

B. Identify gaps between actual and desired performance.

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38
Q

In which basic group of major legal systems are laws established by court decisions and legal precedence?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Religious
B. National
C. Common
D. Civil

A

C. Common

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39
Q

What happens during the job analysis phase of the compensation system design process?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Information about jobs is collected and the job requirements are evaluated.
B. Job descriptions and job specifications are created.
C. Pay grades and pay ranges are set up.
D. The value of jobs within the organization is determined.

A

A. Information about jobs is collected, and the job requirements are evaluated.

The job analysis phase of the compensation system design process involves collecting detailed information about various jobs within the organization, evaluating job requirements, and understanding the tasks, responsibilities, and qualifications associated with each job. This information is crucial for determining the value of jobs within the organization, creating job descriptions and specifications, and setting up pay grades and pay ranges.

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40
Q

A risk management strategy describes which of the following?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. How to effectively manage the risk of losing human capital.
B. How an organization plans to address vulnerabilities.
C. How managers should address risk-related situations.
D. How to address operational risks throughout the organization.

A

B

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41
Q

Which of the following does NOT reflect a yield ratio in recruitment?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Offers extended to qualified candidates.
B. Offers accepted to offers extended.
C. Offers accepted to total costs.
D. Qualified candidates to total candidates.

A

C. Offers accepted to total costs

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42
Q

Which of the following statements about Maslow’s motivational theory is TRUE?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. It recognizes the role of individual needs in motivating people.
B. It identifies the key factors that lead to job dissatisfaction.
C. It is based on the belief that people want to be treated fairly.
D. It identifies the role of the leader in motivating employees.

A

A. It recognizes the role of individual needs in motivating people.

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43
Q

Which performance appraisal error occurs when an employee is extremely competent in one area and is therefore rated highly in all categories?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Halo effect
B. Bias
C. Horn effect
D. Central tendency

A

A. Halo effect

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44
Q

Which of the following technology-based applications is a portal that provides access to third-party providers and acts as a centralized location for communicating information?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Social media
B. HRIS
C.

A

B. HRIS

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45
Q

What term describes the process of positioning an organization as a desired employer in the labor market?

A. Employment branding
B. Return on investment
C. Employee value proposition
D. Staffing analysis

A

A. Employment branding

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46
Q

Which of the following provides a framework and vocabulary for describing the knowledge and skills necessary for success in the organization?

A. Global succession planning process
B. Job analysis process
C. Competency definition process
D. Replacement planning process

A

C. Competency definition process

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47
Q

What is one reason why there has been an increase in the use of short-term international assignments?

A. Organizations think of short-term assignments as less costly.
B. Short-term assignments are long enough to accomplish the task.
C. The assignee has the opportunity to build friendships in another country.
D. The spouse who stays at home with children becomes, in effect, a single parent.

A

A. Organizations think of short-term assignments as less costly.

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48
Q

When writing job descriptions, it is best to create job titles that are
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Unique to the organization and highly creative.
B. Realistic and descriptive in regard to the work.
C. In English and include the corresponding grade.
D. Honorific and include the person’s social status.

A

B. Realistic and descriptive in regard to the work.

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49
Q

Which of the following helps track the point at which most new employees tend to exit the organization?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Open-ended questions
B. Orientation checklist
C. Retention threshold metrics
D. Performance measures

A

C. Retention threshold metrics

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50
Q

Laws, regulations and organizational policies determine how to classify accidents.
Which of the following can be classified as an unsafe act?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Failing to use protective equipment
B. Unsafe floor surfaces
C. Hazardous process/operation
D. Having improper lighting

A

A. Failing to use protective equipment

51
Q

In job documentation, a written statement of the minimum qualifications for a position is known as which of the following?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Job description
B. Job specification
C. Competencies summary
D. Essential functions

A

B. Job specification

52
Q

What is meant by building a candidate pipeline?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Encouraging the best potential candidates to apply.
B. Developing a pool of applicants who will be available when a job opening needs to be filled.
C. Using alternative recruiting sources and workers who are not regular employees.
D. Establishing a specific plan of action for meeting your recruitment objectives.

A

B. Developing a pool of applicants who will be available when a job opening needs to be filled.

53
Q

Which of the following is NOT a role of organizational leaders who support career development?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Developing a career progression of jobs that employees can follow.
B. Requiring annual review of management plans versus action taken by employees.
C. Linking career development to the organization’s mission and vision
D. Rewarding managers who help employees with career planning.

A

A.

The organization’s leaders need to understand the importance of supporting organizational career development and career management.
This support helps link career development to the organization’s mission and vision and rewards managers who help employees with career planning. Organizational leaders should also require annual review of management plans versus action taken by employees. It is the role of HR professionals to develop a natural progression of jobs that employees can follow.

54
Q

In recruitment, building a candidate pipeline requires all of the following EXCEPT
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Developing employees internally through job rotation.
B. Recruiting continuously.
Developing an employee brand.
C. Developing an employee brand
D. Focusing on one recruitment strategy.

A

D. Focusing on one recruitment strategy.

55
Q

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using surveys and questionnaires in gathering data from employees?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Interviewee anonymity
B. Efficiency
C. Flexibility
D. Standard data collection

A

C. Flexibility

56
Q

Selection is the process of:

Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Identifying the top applicants for a position.
B. Hiring the most suitable candidate for a position.
C. Hiring the best-qualified candidate for a position.
D. Finding additional minority applicants.

A

B. Hiring the most suitable candidate for a position.

57
Q

All of the following are examples of termination for cause EXCEPT

Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Downturn in business operations.
B. Breach of a fiduciary responsibility.
C. Disclosure of proprietary information regarding the operations of the organization.
D. Failure to report to or perform work for any significant period of time.

A

A. Downturn in business operations.

58
Q

What is the purpose of employee suggestion systems?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A.They provide multiple channels for open dialogue such as online tools, in-person meetings, phone calls or a written note.
B. Management asks questions about project work and encourages employees to share their accomplishments and challenges.
C. They are often used as a follow-up to a survey and can provide an in-depth look at specific issues raised during a survey.
D. They offer individual employees the opportunity to provide management with ideas for improving the workplace or any of its processes.

A

D. They offer individual employees the opportunity to provide management with ideas for improving the workplace or any of its processes.

59
Q

A Benefits Needs Assessment includes all of the following activities EXCEPT:
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Reviewing the organization’s total rewards philosophy.
B. Reviewing the organization’s strategy.
C. Comparing the HR budget with concerns for employee satisfaction.
D. Analyzing the demographics of the organization’s workforce

A

C. Comparing the HR budget with concerns for employee satisfaction.

60
Q

Which of the following seating arrangements is NOT suitable for group interaction in a training session?

Choose only ONE best answer.
A. U-shape
B. Circle
C. Banquet
D. Classroom

A

D. Classroom

61
Q

Which of the following is a key
organizational trait needed to define staffing plans?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Flexibility
B. Unpredictability
C. Reactivity
D. Resistance to sudden change

A

A. Flexibility

62
Q

Which of the following describes an actively disengaged employee?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Goes through the motions of the workday, putting time but not energy or passion into work.
B. Works with passion and feels a profound connection to the organization.
C. Shows enthusiasm about work and is creative and innovative.
D. Unhappy at work and busy acting out his or her unhappiness.

A

D. Unhappy at work and busy acting out his or her unhappiness.

63
Q

What is the purpose of a demand analysis?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. To identify gaps between the composition of the current workforce and future workforce needs.
B. To forecast the organization’s future workforce composition.
C. To identify the supply of labor and skills that are vital to an organization
D. To assess the current demand for an organization’s workforce.

A

B. To forecast the organization’s future workforce composition.

64
Q

Which of the following reduces the likelihood of workplace accidents?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Buying insurance
B. Collecting accident statistics
C. Setting risk exposure limits
D. Hiring a safety officer

A

C. Setting risk exposure limits

65
Q

An organization is about to raise employee contribution rates for certain health and welfare plans. Which is the most effective method for HR to communicate what the total cost of benefits is and how much the employer continues to contribute on the employees’ behalf?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Have the benefits department present information regarding the cost of each plan and how much the organization contributes.
B. Distribute a company-wide e-mail with the average amount the employer contributes toward each benefit plan.
C. Enclose a paycheck stuffer that lists all benefits plans and the costs the organization bears for each.
D. Print total rewards statements for all employees to show the annual cost of the benefits and how much the employer contributes.

A

D. Print total rewards statements for all employees to show the annual cost of the benefits and how much the employer contributes.

66
Q

What expresses an organization’s essential purpose and value?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Stakeholder concept
B. Mission statement
C. Strategic planning process
D. Strategic planning team

A

B. Mission statement

67
Q

Which of the following authorizes paid employment in a host country?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Work permit
B. Multiple-entry visa
C. Work visa
D. Dependent visa

A

A. Work permit

68
Q

Which of the following is helpful for strategic guidance when developing the job summary section of a job description?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Reviewing the organization’s mission, vision and values.
B. Reviewing the performance appraisal of the person currently in the job.
C. Benchmarking against the job descriptions used in other organizations.
D. Conducting a SWOT analysis.

A

A. Reviewing the organization’s mission, vision and values.

69
Q

Which leadership theory suggests that leadership style should be matched to the maturity of the employees?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Contingency
B. Behavioral
C. Situational leadership
D. Trait

A

C. Situational leadership

70
Q

Mamta’s First Assignment
Mamta’s first assignment is to design a basic compensation system. This system must synchronize the organization’s pay systems across divisions and within the market.
Mamta specialized in compensation and benefits during her previous employment, but she has never set up a new structure.
Question
Which of the following compensation system development processes should
Mamta start with?

A. Pay compression
B. Compensation ratios
C. SWOT analysis
D. Job analysis

A

D. Job analysis

71
Q

Which of the following is one of the most important motivational considerations when setting up a compensation system?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Ratio of HR staff to employees
B. Internal and external equity
C. Selecting an HRIS to implement
D. McGregor’s hierarchy of needs

A

B. Internal and external equity

72
Q

After senior management approves Mamta’s compensation system, what should she do before launching the new system?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Obtain consent forms from all staff approving the new system.
B. E-mail employees the effective date, including their new payroll ID.
C. Hold a formal presentation for all staff with a question-and-answer session.
D. Determine whether the organization’s payroll provider supports the change.

A

C. Hold a formal presentation for all staff with a question-and-answer session.

73
Q

A Pay-for-Performance System
Mamta has set up a basic compensation and benefits system. Now Real-time Remit wants her to propose a way to incorporate a pay-for-performance system. This will ensure that the best talent is being recognized and

Which of the following reward strategies best supports the creation of a pay-for-performance system?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Seniority
B. Merit
C. Benchmarking
D. Competency

A

B. Merit

74
Q

Which of following should Mamta use as she tries to connect the internal compensation structure to the external compensation market?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Cost of living differentials
B. Pay equity allowance
C. Market-based job evaluation
D. Competency premiums

A

C. Market-based job evaluation

75
Q

What major challenge might Mamta face as she collects market compensation data?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A.Encountering unforeseen pension obligations.
B. Creating safe harbor provisions
C. Performing mathematical calculations.
D. Gathering reliable and valid data

A

D. Gathering reliable and valid data

76
Q

A Revised Compensation Plan
A new social media company, Social Tablet, has set up its operations in the same business park as Real-time Remit. Social Tablet was started by three of Bangalore’s most capable technology experts, is extremely well funded and has received media attention around the world.
Real-time Remit’s management asks Mamta to propose a revised compensation plan that still controls wages but helps ensure that the organization does not lose any of its key talent. Real-time cannot compete with Social Tablet’s high salaries or high profile.
Real-time Remit’s management asks Mamta to explore all options related to total rewards.
Question
Which of the following nonmonetary benefits should Mamta propose to help retain key talent?

A. Organize a Corporate Social Responsibility
(CSR) project that is aligned with the organization’s mission.
B. Allow a percentage of work time to be used for personal growth projects.
C. Introduce a defined benefit pension plan with a high payout provision.
D. Introduce a comp-time program that rewards long-term tenure.

A

B. Nonmonetary benefits can offer equal if not greater incentives for attracting and retaining talent. Because Real-time Remit cannot offer certain benefits due to cost, Mamta must search for more creative and affordable choices.
Allowing a percentage of work time to be used for personal growth provides a significant benefit to employees with little cost to the organization.

77
Q

What should Mamta propose to Real-time
Remit management as a key action in response to their request to revise the compensation plan?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Lower salaries and use the cost saving to increase non-cash benefits.
B. Pick benefits based upon the lowest total cost to the organization.
C. Meet or beat the benefits package being provided by their main competitors.
D. Assess the benefits strategy by conducting an employee survey to find out what benefits are important to staff.

A

D. Assess the benefits strategy by conducting an employee survey to find out what benefits are important to staff.

78
Q

Organizational Profile
Creative Solutions is a software company that operates in the United Kingdom.
Recently Creative Solutions acquired SWR
Technologies, a small software company in India, to delegate development of some parts of a new project.
SWR Technologies had a proven record of success in the past but has developed no significant projects for the last two years.
Creative Solutions acquired SWR hoping to revive their previous innovative approach.
SWR Technologies has a very low turnover rate, around 1%.
Question
Which of the following words may describe employees at SWR Technologies?

A. Satisfied but not engaged
B. Engaged and satisfied
C. Engaged but not satisfied
D. Neither engaged nor satisfied

A

A. Satisfied but not engaged

79
Q

Which of the following methods of collecting employee feedback will NOT help Creative Solutions identify the reasons for the current situation at SWR?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. One-to-one meetings
B. Exit interviews
C. Focus groups
D. Surveys

A

B. Exit interviews

80
Q

Aware of this issue because the employees did not share their feedback with the management. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Ambiguous culture
B. Collective culture
C. Low status culture
D. Holistic culture

A

D.

In a holistic culture, employees may be reluctant to deliver feedback that could damage the harmony of their relationship with the management team.

81
Q

Reward and Recognition Program
Creative Solutions’ HR professionals decide to design a reward and recognition program to foster creativity at SWR Technologies.
Question
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate approach for fostering creativity?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Match the level of the reward to the level of effort.
B. Assess the reward program after one month to determine if employees are motivated by the rewards and recognition.
C. Align rewards with the organization’s goals and values.
D. Give rewards annually at the end of the year.

A

D. Give rewards annually at the end of the year.

82
Q

Communication
A survey emphasized that SWR management was not aware of a communication problem with employees. Creative Solutions’ HR professionals would like to improve communication and encourage employees to provide feedback.
Question
Which of the following is NOT an effective way of encouraging employees to provide feedback?
Choose only ONE best answer.

Create employee action committees for different topics.

A
83
Q

Question
Which of the following is NOT an effective way of encouraging employees to provide feedback?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Create employee action committees for different topics.
B. Send an e-mail to employees stating that more feedback will be appreciated.
C. Provide training on two-way communication practices.
D. Build communication competencies into performance management expectations.

A

B. Send an e-mail to employees stating that more feedback will be appreciated.

84
Q

John Davis decides to inform all of the organization’s employees about the flu outbreak, the current situation at RetailWorld, and what employees (and their families) can do to reduce their risk of getting the flu.
Question
John’s main objective is to keep employees fully informed and to avoid panic over the outbreak. What information should he emphasize in his communication?
Choose only ONE best answer.
The costs of health insurance and the benefits of the organization’s health and wellness programs
AA
•Ims.certiversity.com

A

Continued

85
Q

A. The costs of health insurance and the benefits of the organization’s health and wellness programs.
B. Information about how to avoid the outbreak and what steps to take if you get them.
C. The number of flu-related deaths in the region by demographic
D. A listing of the employees who have been infected and the total number of missed work days per department

A

B. Information about how to avoid the outbreak and what steps to take if you get them.

86
Q

In addition to promoting wellness, how does the organization benefit from reducing employees’ risks of getting the flu?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. A reduction in need for health and wellness programs.
B. A decrease in the risk of a collapse in roduction and ultimately in sales and revenue.
C. Timely compliance with the international flu reduction law/act
D. Stronger groupthink among the employees

A

B. A decrease in the risk of a collapse in roduction and ultimately in sales and revenue.

87
Q

Why is it beneficial to also inform employees about what their families can do to avoid the flu?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Often family members are working at the same organization and have to be informed anyway.
B. Informing family members fulfils legal requirements.
C. If family members become infected; the employee may have to stay at home to care for them or may also become infected.
D. If family members become infected, the employee is not allowed to return to work.

A

C. If family members become infected; the employee may have to stay at home to care for them or may also become infected.

88
Q

What is the best way for Peter to get information about a new health topic like the current flu?

A. Access expert resources such as the World Health Organization (WHO).
B. Consult with the media, which is reporting extensively about the flu.
C. Research the risks and impacts associated with previous outbreaks.
D. Communicate with infected employees.

A

A. Access expert resources such as the World Health Organization (WHO).

89
Q

The media is constantly reporting on the current flu epidemic. What major challenge does that create for Peter as he promotes his new health program?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Getting employees to pay attention, participate, and avoid panic
B. Correcting false information about the flu
C. Protecting the employees’ privacy
D. Getting corporate commitment for the program.

A

A. Getting employees to pay attention, participate, and avoid panic

90
Q

When dealing with epidemics like the flu outbreak, which department in the organization must be involved in all considerations?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Legal
B. Risk management
C. Marketing
D. Customer service

A

B. Risk management

91
Q

Three months after the major flu outbreak is over, the organization’s Board assigns John Davis to provide an organization-wide prevention handbook for all kinds of disasters, including flu outbreaks.
Question
The main objective of the prevention handbook should be to
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. List all risks that could occur during a disaster.
B. Provide information on how to reduce infection from the flu and other diseases.
C. Identify and inform key people throughout the organization who would perform essential roles during a major disaster.
D. Establish an emergency help line (phone number).

A

C.

The most important objective is to identify people at the organization who would perform key roles during any kind of disaster. These people could be from the Board and from a number of different departments throughout the organization, including IT, communication, HR, facility management and security. These people must be informed (and sometimes trained) about certain behaviors such as prevention. In the case of a disaster, these people can create a task group that possesses the most important competencies for managing disasters.

92
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major responsibility of the project manager that WDS selects to lead the project team?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Project sponsor responsibility, such as writing the project charter
B. Interpersonal responsibility, such as acting as a leader and liaison.
C. Decisional responsibility, such as allocating resources and negotiating differences
D. Informational responsibility, such as gathering data and helping team members communicate.

A

A. Project sponsor responsibility, such as writing the project charter

93
Q

Alex, Bill, Heather and Vikram are all on the project team. The project manager is now selecting additional members for the team.
Which of the following people does not need to be on the project team?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Anita, from the legal team
B. Karen, from the sales team
C. Steven, from the administrative team
D. Li, a communications expert.

A

C.

constituents who have a stake in the outcome should be included on the project team to ensure all views are considered and to ensure broad acceptance of the decision. Steven is not a stakeholder. His responsibility is to handle the administrative tasks associated with implementing the policy.

94
Q

Which of the following considerations will help ensure project success?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A.Identify the factors in the organization that will help the project team reach the project objectives.
B. Don’t commit to a single methodology; be ready to change course at any time during the project.
C. Avoid the use of contractors.
D. Keep the flow of communication internal to the project team until the project is complete.

A

A.Identify the factors in the organization that will help the project team reach the project objectives.

The success of any project also depends on:
Continuous two-way communication throughout the entire project,
Using a consistent methodology that has been proven to produce results, and Using third-party contractors if necessary and clearly defining their role.

95
Q

What project management tool can help the project manager and team to schedule and organize tasks within the project?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart.
B. Human resource information system (HRIS)
C. Pareto chart
D. Gantt chart

A

A. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart.

A program evaluation and review technique
(PERT) chart is a project management tool used to schedule, organize and coordinate tasks within a project. A Gantt chart is a horizontal bar chart used to monitor the progress of a project. A Pareto chart is a vertical bar chart used to help analyze data. A human resource information system (HRIS) is a tool that supports human resources functions such as gathering and maintaining HR data.

96
Q

According to Lewin’s change process theory, what is the first stage of organizational change
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Get people to accept that the change will occur.
B. Get people to alter their behavior.
C. Make the new idea a regular part of the organization.
D. Create a motivation to profit from change.

A

A. Get people to accept that the change will occur.

97
Q

According to the J Curve of Change, how is employee performance likely to be impacted shortly after the travel policy change is announced?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Performance plateaus as employees resist changing their routine.
B. Performance peaks at a new level.
C. Performance drops as failures outnumber successes.
D. Performance improves quickly.

A

C. Performance drops as failures outnumber successes.

98
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effective way to promote early positive experiences with the changed travel policy?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Offer long-term rewards.
B. Break the change down into small steps.
C. Sympathize with negative feelings.
D. Make it safe to make mistakes.

A

A. Offer long-term rewards

99
Q

Several months after the new travel policy is implemented and generally accepted, what should the primary focus of the project team be?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Maintaining a performance plateau
B. Reinforcing and maintaining the change.
C. Creating a sense of urgency
D. Measuring financial benefits of the change.

A

B. Reinforcing and maintaining the change.

100
Q

Which of the following strategies would start to introduce change in the method and mindset that the organization uses for workforce planning?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Hire more family members who have worked abroad.
B. Define jobs using a needs analysis.
C. Try to merge the cultures of each franchise into one.
D. Buy out any competitors to eliminate competition.

A

B. Define jobs using a needs analysis.

Many organizations do not have a formal staffing strategy that examines the organization’s business cycle and forecasts staffing needs. A staffing needs analysis provides a systematic approach to anticipate the demand for talent and the available supply. This systematic approach will help define career paths and growth for employees other than Khalid family members.

101
Q

Which of the following would best communicate to the market that the Group has changed its hiring practices?

A. Develop an employee value proposition that encourages diversity.
B. Place more focus on marketing and promoting the organization outside the region.
C. Organize a press release to announce the Group’s plans to change its hiring criteria in an effort to gain a competitive advantage.
D. Gain greater insight into brand management by sending one of the siblings to graduate school to study and specialize in industrial psychology.

A

A.

An effective employee value proposition (EVP) is the foundation of employment branding and provides an accurate picture of employment for potential candidates. With an EVP that encourages diversity, the Group communicates its commitment to attract and retain talented people of all nationalities.

102
Q

What is one advantage of creating a distributed recruiting and selection process?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Local managers would assume more accountability for their selections’ success.
B. The Group’s culture would diversify more quickly and would require less reinforcement.
C. Cost per hire would likely increase due to an even slower decision-making process.
D. Less training would be required to ensure that the interviewing panel is properly prepared.

A

A. Local managers would assume more accountability for their selections’ success.

103
Q

What can be measured to assess if a distributed recruiting and selection process is more successful?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Percent of male to female workers
B. Return on training investment
C. Retention threshold
D. Employee satisfaction

A

C. Retention threshold

104
Q

What is a major advantage of using a professional recruiter for finding qualified candidates?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. The professional recruiter’s expertise and network can be leveraged to find a very qualified candidate in a shorter timeframe.
B. The best candidates tend to consider jobs only if they are approached by a professional recruiter directly.
C. The professional recruiter will easily and quickly understand the Group’s culture, better than the Group itself.
D. The best candidates are always looking for jobs, and professional recruiters know who these people are.

A

A. The professional recruiter’s expertise and network can be leveraged to find a very qualified candidate in a shorter timeframe.

105
Q

Situation 1: The Review Meeting
Colleen prepares for the top management review meeting by screening the evaluation results and preparing an agenda for the meeting. Colleen, John and Michael will attend this meeting with the three purchasing directors.
After a short introduction by Colleen, each director will present the results of his/her direct reports and nominate talent for further management development. The nominations and development plans will be discussed and, if necessary, adjusted by the group. The final results will be recorded in written minutes
Question
The main result of this top management review meeting is to:

A. Conduct a job analysis.
B. Create a list of potential talent.
C. Conduct top management appraisal.
D. Conduct succession planning.

A

D. Conduct succession planning.

106
Q

What is the benefit to the group of purchasing directors discussing all of the nominations together?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Identification of errors in the performance appraisal process.
B. Recognition of cultural differences in their departments.
C. Corporate commitment for developing the identified talents.
D. Comparison and alignment of each other’s goals for the next year.

A

C.

The organization’s leaders need to understand the importance of supporting career development and career management. Taking part in review meetings promotes a better understanding of organizational talent and increased commitment to development.

107
Q

Why is it necessary to inform evaluating managers about evaluation biases?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. To encourage managers to rely more on the employee’s self-assessment
B. To make managers aware that their beliefs and prejudices can create errors in the evaluation results.
C. To help managers evaluate the employee’s strengths and weakness
D. To keep managers from setting job-related standards that are too high or too low.

A

B. To make managers aware that their beliefs and prejudices can create errors in the evaluation results.

108
Q

What is the value of providing an extensive appraisal package to evaluation managers?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. To provide managers with a common understanding of the process and reduce errors
B. To make managers aware of the performance appraisal methods available to them.
C. To better automate the evaluation process.
D. To inform managers about the three phases of the performance management process.

A

A. To provide managers with a common understanding of the process and reduce errors

109
Q

What is the main reason that evaluating managers are required to follow this formal evaluation process?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. The evaluating managers do not have sufficient knowledge of the evaluation process on their own.
B. A formal process standardizes performance appraisals for the whole organization.
C. A formal process improves the appraisal results for top management.
D. A formal process enhances communication among the participants.

A

B. A formal process standardizes performance appraisals for the whole organization.

110
Q

In which of the following types of cultures is a detailed contract, as opposed to a verbal agreement or a handshake, more likely to be a necessity?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Ascriptive
B. Outer-directed
C. Universalist
D. Particularist

A

C. Universalist

111
Q

Which of the following is NOT an HRIS application?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A.Human resource development (HRD)
B.Remuneration and benefits
C. Workforce planning
D. Exit Interviews

A

D. Exit Interviews

112
Q

Which of the following represents a shift in thinking in the philosophy of performance management?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Focus on domestic issues rather than global issues.
B. Focus on single raters rather than multiple raters.
C. Focus on organizational metrics rather than individual results.
D. Focus on past performance rather than future performance.

A

C. Focus on organizational metrics rather than individual results.

Organizations should focus on ensuring that their metrics are achievable and align employee metrics to fit into it.

113
Q

Which of the following is NOT a step in the scientific method?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Reveal unprecedented hypothesis
B. Experimental design
C. Direct observation
D. Hypothesis formulation

A

A. Reveal unprecedented hypothesis

114
Q

Which of the following statements about mentoring programs is NOT usually true?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. There are a number of different roles and uses for mentoring programs.
B. Mentoring is particularly valuable for international assignments.
C. The mentee can help the mentor understand what is happening in different levels of the organization.
D. The mentor and the mentee are in a hierarchical reporting relationship.

A

B. Mentoring is particularly valuable for international assignments.

115
Q

Which of the following is NOT a difference between succession planning and replacement planning?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Long-term process versus short-term process
B. Planning for leadership positions versus frontline positions
C. Candidates that have the best potential versus the best candidates available
D. Limited commitment on certain positions versus the intention to replace a specific position

A

D. Limited commitment on certain positions versus the intention to replace a specific position

Succession planning is based on developing a pool of talented candidates on the long term for when the need arises; replacement planning designates a preferred candidate for an immediate position.

116
Q

The MOST effective corporate citizenship program is one that:
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Requires involvement of less-senior employees.
B. Creates visibility for the organization.
C. Has no effect on the organization’s net earnings.
D. Aligns long-term investments with the organization’s strategic goals.

A

D. Aligns long-term investments with the organization’s strategic goals.

117
Q

A project manager would be more inclined to use a PERT chart rather than a Gantt chart when she needs to?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Plan the details of a project.
B. Assign particular tasks to team members.
C. Show the crucial path of a project.
D. Monitor the exact time each step of a project takes.

A

A.

A Gantt chart is an easy-to-use graphical tool that helps project managers determine the status of projects. PERT charts are used to diagram the activities required to plan the details of a project such as specify the time required to perform each activity in the process, and organize activities in the most efficient sequence.

118
Q

The informal knowledge management system relates to:
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. HCMS computer applications.
B. Personal networks and social capital.
C. Business conferences and meetings.
D. Making tacit knowledge explicit.

A

B. Personal networks and social capital.

119
Q

Which of the following statements BEST defines the values and ethics of
organizational expectations and personal behaviors?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Organizational values define for customers how sound the company is; personal behavior is how a person behaves outside of the workplace as long as it is not unlawful behavior.
B. Organizational values define the culture of the organization; ethical behavior guides the conduct of the organization’s stakeholders and employees.
C. Organizational values are a core part of a strategic plan; ethical behavior is simply behaviors of good citizens and democratic structures.
D. Organizational values are specific to strategic planning; ethical behaviors are legal requirements of sound work practices.

A

D.

Organizational values and ethics act as guiding principles for what is said and done. However, while personal behaviors is about accepting responsibility for achieving agreed objectives, organizational values and ethics are consciously chosen and pre-set.

120
Q

In low-context cultures, the focus of communication is on?

A. Words.
B. Nonverbal cues.
C. Cultural filters.
D. Relationships

A

A. Words.

121
Q

Which of the following characteristics is
LEAST considered to be typical of transformational leaders?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Charisma
B. Inspiration
C. Goal orientation
D. Stimulation

A

D

122
Q

Which of the following is an HR-related transactional activity?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Managing performance
B. Tracking performance management
C. Communicating with employees
D. Collaborating with stakeholders

A

B. Tracking performance management

123
Q

What kind of communication flow is Creative Solutions trying to foster?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Top down
B. Bottom up
C. Horizontal
D. Informal

A

B

By encouraging employees to provide feedback, Creative Solutions is fostering a flow of information from lower to higher levels in the organization.