Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Active transport ________.

-utilizes energy

-cannot transport molecules against a concentration gradient

-requires cofactors

-cannot reach a saturation point

A

utilizes energy

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of integrins?

-Allow diffusion to occur through the plasma membrane

-Communicate between the intracellular and extracellular compartments

-Establish cell polarity

-Glue components of the matrix

A

Allow diffusion to occur through the plasma membrane

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3
Q

What structures affect cell motility, adhesion, and proliferation?

-Collagen IV

-Integrins

-Proteoglycans

-Basal lamina

A

integrins

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4
Q

How much of the total body water content is in the intracellular compartment?

-80%
-67%
-50%
-33%

A

67%

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5
Q

A 0.1 Osm plasma sample would ________.

-inhibit the release of antidiuretic hormone

-stimulate the action of osmoreceptors

-be hypertonic to the cells

-stimulate an increase in blood volume

A

inhibit the release of antidiuretic hormone

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6
Q

A solution with an osmolality four times greater than plasma would freeze at ________.

−1.12°C
−0.56°C
−1.68°C
−2.24°C

A

−2.24°C

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7
Q

Osmotic pressure is a measure of the force needed to ________.

-stop edema
-stop osmosis
-cause osmosis
-open aquaporins

A

stop osmosis

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8
Q

A cell placed in a 9% saline solution (molecular weight = 58.5g) would ________.

-not change
-crenate
-swell
-Lyse

A

crenate

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9
Q

The glucose carrier of skeletal muscle is designated as ________.

GLUT4
GLUT2
GLUT3
GLUT5

A

GLUT4

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10
Q

Facilitated diffusion of a molecule into a cell would be more rapid if the ________.

-concentration of water in the cell decreased

-concentration of the molecule in the cell increased

-cell was isotonic

-concentration of the molecule outside the cell increased

A

concentration of the molecule outside the cell increased

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11
Q

What type of junctional complex will prohibit paracellular transport?

-Adherens junctions
-Gap junctions
-Desmosomes
-Tight junctions

A

Tight junctions

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary active transport pump?

-Proton pump
-GLUT4
-Sodium/potassium pump
-Calcium pump

A

GLUT4

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13
Q

The primary intracellular cation is ________.

Mg2+
Ca2+
K+
Na+

A

K+

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14
Q

If the intracellular concentration of Ca2+ was 10mEq/L and the extracellular concentration was 150mEq/L, the Ca2+ equilibrium potential would be ________.

−35.9mV
−71.8mV
+71.8mV
+35.9mV

A

+35.9mV

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15
Q

Most cells have a resting membrane potential between ________.

+65mV and +90mV
+60mV and −90mV
−65mV and −85mV
−60mV and −90mV

A

−65mV and −85mV

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16
Q

The resting membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for ________.

calcium ions
sodium ions
potassium ions
chloride ions

A

potassium ions

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17
Q

To exert effects on its target cell, ________ would require a second messenger.

-epinephrine and acetylcholine
-acetylcholine
-epinephrine
-nitric oxide

A

epinephrine and acetylcholine

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18
Q

Which of the following is NOT a G-protein?

Beta
Alpha
Gamma
Delta

A

Delta

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19
Q

Where is the receptor for a nonpolar, lipid-soluble regulatory molecule?

-Embedded in the outer surface of the plasma membrane
-Embedded in the inner surface of the plasma membrane
-In the cytoplasm or nucleus of the cell
-All of the choices are correct.

A

In the cytoplasm or nucleus of the cell

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20
Q

What determines how a regulatory molecule influences its target cell?

-All of the choices are correct.
-Solubility
-Polarity
-Presence of receptor proteins for the regulatory molecule

A

All of the choices are correct.

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21
Q

Passive transport of water is known as ________.

osmosis
facilitated diffusion
filtration
a water pump

A

osmosis

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22
Q

Which of the following types of transport does not require membrane proteins?

Bulk
Simple diffusion
Active
Facilitated diffusion

A

Simple diffusion

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23
Q

Matrix metalloproteinases ________.

-synthesize collagen in the extracellular matrix

-may be active in invasive cancer cells

-produce the basal lamina

-synthesize proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix

A

may be active in invasive cancer cells

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24
Q

Diffusion ________ the entropy of a solution.

-increases
-does not change
-Decreases

A

increases

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25
Q

The rate of diffusion is influenced by ________.

-the concentration gradient

-membrane permeability

-membrane surface area

-All of the choices are correct

A

All of the choices are correct

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26
Q

How do small molecules like Na+ of K+ pass through the plasma membrane?

-Ion channels

-Gated channels

-Simple diffusion

-Carrier proteins

A

Ion channels

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27
Q

A solution consists of a ________ which dissolves the ________.

-solute; solvent

-solvent; solute

-solvent; solid

-liquid; solid

A

solvent; solute

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28
Q

The transport of amino acids across epithelial membranes requires the ________.

-facilitated diffusion

-Na+/H+ pump

-Ca2+ pump

-Na+/K+ pump

A

Na+/H+ pump

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29
Q

Which of the following is a function of the steep Na+/K+ gradient across the cell membrane?

-Provides energy for coupled transport

-Creates electrochemical gradient

-Maintains osmotic pressure

-All of the choices are correct

A

All of the choices are correct

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30
Q

Where are GLUT carriers located in an unstimulated muscle fiber?

-In the plasma membrane facing the external environment

-Within cytoplasmic vesicles

-In the plasma membrane facing the internal environment

-There are no GLUT carriers present

A

Within cytoplasmic vesicles

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31
Q

Why does adding glucose to oral rehydration therapy solutions result in more rapid recovery from dehydration?

-Adding glucuose causes secondary active transport of sodium across the epithelial membrane of the intestine.

-The presence of glucose increases the intestinal absorption of Na+ and water through an increased osmotic effect.

-Glucose is used to supply energy for the active transport of sodium and water across the epithelial membrane of the intestine.

-All of the choices are correct.

A

The presence of glucose increases the intestinal absorption of Na+ and water through an increased osmotic effect.

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32
Q

The Na+/K+ pump ________.

-is an example of secondary active transport

-establishes equal concentrations of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane

-contributes to the maintenance of the negative resting membrane potential

-exchanges three potassium for every two sodium molecules

A

contributes to the maintenance of the negative resting membrane potential

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33
Q

If the Na+/K+ pump did not function, the ________ of the cell would become more ________.

-resting membrane potential would be zero.

-interior; negatively-charged

-interior; positively-charged

-exterior; positively-charged

A

interior; positively-charged

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34
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of cyclic AMP?

-It activates enzymes inside a cell to produce the desired effect.

-It is made from ATP.

-It is found on the outside of a plasma membrane.

-It is a second messenger for polar regulatory molecules.

A

It is found on the outside of a plasma membrane.

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35
Q

What structures are used for direct cell to cell signaling?

-Desmosomes

-Exocytosis vesicles

-Tight junctions

-Gap junctions

A

Gap junctions

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36
Q

Which of the following is NOT a general category of cell signaling molecules?

-Paracrine signaling

-Enzymatic signaling

-Synaptic signaling

-Endocrine signaling

A

Enzymatic signaling

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37
Q

Proteins that extend from the cytoskeleton within the cell, through the plasma membrane, and into the extracellular matrix are ________.

-integrin proteins

-transport proteins

-receptor proteins

-lysosomal proteins

A

integrin proteins

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38
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of a person who is dehydrated?

-ADH causes the kidneys to excrete water

-Hypothalamus stimulates release of ADH

-Plasma osmolality increases

-Increased osmolality causes thirst

A

ADH causes the kidneys to excrete water

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39
Q

Plasma freezes at ________.
−0.56°C
−1.86°C
−1.00°C
-0.00°C

A

−0.56°C

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40
Q

What cofactor do matrix metalloproteinases need to be functional?

-Calcium
-Chromium
-Copper
-Zinc

A

Zinc

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41
Q

The Na+/K+ pump transports ________ into the cell and ________ out of the cell per cycle.

2Na+;3K+

2K+;3Na+

3Na+;2K+

3K+;2Na+

A

2K+;3Na+

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42
Q

How much of the extracellular fluid comes from blood plasma?
20%
92%
33%
50%

A

20%

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43
Q

Which of the following organs do NOT normally have many aquaporins in the plasma membranes of their cells?

-Skin
-Lungs
-Salivary glands
-Kidneys

A

Skin

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44
Q

The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly related to its ________ concentration.

-matrix
-solute
-solvent
-water

A

solute

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45
Q

Channels present in the membranes of some cells that allow rapid movement of water are called ________.

-aquaporins
-water tubes
-aqueducts
-streams

A

aquaporins

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46
Q

The transport maximum is related to the property known as ________.

-inhibition
-specificity
-saturation
-competition

A

saturation

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47
Q

A membrane that allows only certain molecules to pass through it is called ________.

-countertransport
-porous
-permeable
-selectively permeable

A

selectively permeable

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48
Q

The ATPase enzyme ________.

-hydrolyzes ATP into ADP and Pi

-powers endocytosis

-couples Na+ to glucose

-adds a Pi to ADP

A

hydrolyzes ATP into ADP and Pi

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49
Q

Protein carrier-mediated transport of molecules display ________.

-specificity
-competition
-saturation
-All of the choices are correct

A

All of the choices are correct

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50
Q

Transport of materials through an epithelial cell is called ________.

-transcellular transport
-exocytosis
-bulk transport
-paracellular transport

A

transcellular transport

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51
Q

The sodium equilibrium potential using an extracellular Na+ concentration of 145 mEq/L and an intracellular concentration of 14 mEq/L would be approximately ________.

+62mV
+90mV
−90mV
−62mV

A

+62mV

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52
Q

Hyperkalemia would ________ the resting membrane potential of the cell.

-reverse
-have no effect on
-increase
-decrease

A

decrease

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53
Q

What type of cell signaling uses neurotransmitters to innervate its target organ?

-Paracrine signaling
-Gap junctions
-Synaptic signaling
-Endocrine signaling

A

Synaptic signaling

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54
Q

Choose the correct description of the Na+/K+ pump.

-It generates a positive membrane potential.

-It actively transports 3 sodium ions into the cell.

-It is an example of primary active transport.

-It actively transports 2 potassium ions out of the cell

A

It is an example of primary active transport.

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55
Q

A 0.5M glucose (molecular weight = 180g) contains ________ grams of glucose per liter.

180

6.02 × 10^23

90

360

A

90

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56
Q

Cerebral edema would be treated with a(an) ________ intravenous solution of mannitol.

-isotonic
-hypotonic
-hypertonic

A

hypertonic

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57
Q

What type of cell signaling occurs through the extracellular matrix to nearby target cells?

-Gap junctions
-Paracrine signaling
-Synaptic signaling
-Endocrine signaling

A

Paracrine signaling

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58
Q

Dialysis uses the process of ________.

-simple diffusion

-facilitated diffusion

-primary active transport

-secondary active transport

A

simple diffusion

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59
Q

Inhibition of receptor-mediated endocytosis could ________.

-prevent diabetes mellitus

-induce diabetes mellitus

-induce Hypercholesterolemia

-prevent Hypercholesterolemia

A

induce Hypercholesterolemia

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60
Q

Where is the G-protein complex when a regulatory molecule is not bound to its receptor?

-The alpha subunit is attached to the inner surface of the receptor.

-The beta and gamma subunits are attached to the inner surface of the receptor.

-The three subunits are together but not attached to the inner surface of the receptor.

-The three subunits are together AND attached to the inner surface of the receptor.

A

The three subunits are together AND attached to the inner surface of the receptor

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61
Q

What molecules pass information from the polar regulatory molecule receptor to activate the enzymes that produce cAMP?

-Paracrines

-G-proteins

-GTP

-None of the choices are correct.

A

G-proteins

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62
Q

Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will ________.

-decrease in volume

-lose water to the solution

-increase in volume

-increase intracellular solute concentration

A

increase in volume

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63
Q

Why are cells in body organs generally within 100 μm of a blood capillary?

-A larger distance maximizes entropy

-So that larger particles can diffuse more easily

-To increase mean diffusion time

-To decrease mean diffusion time

A

To decrease mean diffusion time

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64
Q

Active transport carriers are also called ________.

-vesicles
-channels
-receptors
-pumps

A

pumps

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65
Q

Glucose transported via the GLUT carrier is characterized as ________.

-active transport

-receptor-mediated endocytosis

-co-transport

-passive transport

A

passive transport

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66
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of cyclic AMP?

-It is made from ATP.

-It is found on the outside of a plasma membrane.

-It is a second messenger for polar regulatory molecules.

-It activates enzymes inside a cell to produce the desired effect

A

It is found on the outside of a plasma membrane.

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67
Q

How many grams of sucrose (mw= 342g) would need to be added to 1L of water to produce a 2.5 Osm solution?

342
855
2.5
500

A

855

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68
Q

Regardless of solubility, a cell signaling molecule could not affect a target cell without____

-Being attached to another cell

-A second messenger in the plasma membrane

-Specific receptor proteins within the cell or in the plasma membrane

-All of the choices are correct

A

Specific receptor proteins within the cell or in the plasma membrane

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69
Q

Ion channels that can be opened by physiological stimuli are said to be ________.

-Hypertonic
-Polar
- Gated
-Aquaporins

A

Gated

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70
Q

Poisoning that disables the Na+/K+ pump would cause the volume of the cell to _______.

-Decrease
-Increase
-Remain the same

A

Increase

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71
Q

In secondary active transport, if the other substance is moved in the same direction as Na+, it is called _____.

-Antiport
-Symport
-Cotransport
-Cotransport and symport are both correct.

A

Cotransport and symport are both correct.

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72
Q

Secondary active transport___.

-always moves molecules in the same direction as sodium ions.

-requires the influx of sodium ions

-utilizes energy directly through the hydrolysis of ATP

-only occurs in the kidney

A

requires the influx of sodium ions

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73
Q

The class of glycoproteins which bond to components in the extracellular matrix, thereby acting as adhesion molecules between cells and the matrix are called ______.

-Glycocalyces
-Aquaporins
-Integrins
-Desmosomes

A

Integrins

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74
Q

The majority of water within the body is found in the ______.

-Extracellular compartment

-Interstitial fluid

-Intracellular compartment

-Blood plasma

A

Intracellular compartment

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75
Q

Which of the following is able to passively penetrate the plasma membrane (without a transport protein)?

-O2
-Small charged particles
-Larger polar molecules
-All of the choices are correct

A

O2

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76
Q

A six molar sucrose (molecular weight = 342g) solution would contain ___________.

342g sucrose per liter

2052g sucrose per liter

1026g sucrose per liter

57g sucrose per liter

A

2052g sucrose per liter

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77
Q

Glycosuria would occur if the ________ of the renal glucose transport protein is exceeded.

-Transport maximum

-Saturation level

-Transport maximum or saturation level

-Transport minimum

A

Transport maximum or saturation level

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78
Q

The transport of molecules out of the urinary filtrate and into the blood is called ________.

-absorption

-reabsorption

-countertransport

-symport

A

reabsorption

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79
Q

What structure, found surrounding PNS axons, is NOT found surrounding CNS axons?

-Plasma membrane

-Nodes of Ranvier

-Myelin sheath

-Neurilemma

A

Neurilemma

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80
Q

The term “white matter” refers to ________.

-nonmyelinated axons in the CNS

-myelinated axons in the PNS

-nonmyelinated cell bodies and dendrites in the CNS

-myelinated axons in the CNS

A

myelinated axons in the CNS

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81
Q

A bundle of axons in the CNS is called a ________.

-tract

-neuron

-bundle

-Nerve

A

tract

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82
Q

What is NOT true of the relative refractory period?

-K+ is moving out of the axon through its open channels

-Na+ channels are inactivated

-A strong stimulus could cause a depolarization

-Many Na+ channels are returning to a closed state

A

Na+ channels are inactivated

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83
Q

Conduction of an action potential in a myelinated axon is called ________.

-cable conduction

-saltatory conduction

-refractory conduction

-point to point conduction

A

saltatory conduction

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84
Q

How do neurons code for a greater response?

-Greater Na+ concentration gradient

-Greater amplitude of stimuli

-Increased frequency of stimuli

-More active Na+/K+ pump

A

Increased frequency of stimuli

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85
Q

Neurotransmitter action could be prevented, or disrupted, if a drug or other agent ________.

-blocked voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane

-increased the expression of CAMs in the postsynaptic membrane

-decreased the concentration of SNARE complexes in the postsynaptic cell

-decreased the distance between the pre- and postsynaptic membranes

A

blocked voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane

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86
Q

What action would produce an IPSP on the postsynaptic membrane?

-Outflow of K+ ions

-Opening of Ca2+ channels into the neuron

-Influx of Na+ ions

-Opening of Cl- channels into the neuron

A

Opening of Cl- channels into the neuron

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87
Q

Neurotransmitter release would be inhibited by ________.

-stimulating protein kinase activity

-blocking repolarization of the axon terminal

-blocking Ca2+ influx in the axon terminal

stimulating repolarization of the axon terminal

A

blocking Ca2+ influx in the axon terminal

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88
Q

Curare is a competitive ACh antagonist at ________ ACh receptors.

-muscarinic

-nicotinic

-NMDA

-Kainate

A

nicotinic

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89
Q

What is the action of the binding of muscarine to its receptors in the digestive system?

-Beta-gamma subunits bind to K+ channels, open them, leading to hyperpolarization.

-Alpha subunits bind to K+ channels, close them, leading to depolarization.

-Alpha subunits bind to K+ channels, open them, leading to hyperpolarization.

-Beta-gamma subunits bind to K+ channels, close them, leading to depolarization.

A

Alpha subunits bind to K+ channels, close them, leading to depolarization

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90
Q

Acetylcholine ________.

-is always an excitatory neurotransmitter

-can bind to nicotinic receptors

-is an inhibitory neurotransmitter released by motor neurons

-can bind to adrenergic receptors

A

can bind to nicotinic receptors

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91
Q

Neuroleptics, which are used to treat schizophrenia, are ________.

-glutamate agonists

-dopamine agonists

-dopamine antagonists

-ACh antagonists

A

dopamine antagonists

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92
Q

Which of the following is NOT classified as a catecholamine?

-Dopamine

-Epinephrine

-Histamine

-Norepinephrine

A

Histamine

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93
Q

Endocannabinoids are retrograde neurotransmitters, meaning they are ________.

-released from presynaptic neurons and diffuse to the postsynaptic neuron

-released from postsynaptic neurons and diffuse to the presynaptic neuron

-released from presynaptic neurons and diffuse back to the presynaptic cell body

-None of the choices are correct.

A

released from postsynaptic neurons and diffuse to the presynaptic neuron

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94
Q

Where is glycine released?

-from the motor neurons innervating skeletal muscles

-In the CNS

-In the PNS

-At the diaphragm

A

In the CNS

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95
Q

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials are produced in the brain primarily by ________.

-glutamate

-glycine

-benzodiazepines

-gamma-aminobutyric acid

A

glutamate

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96
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of long-term potentiation (LTP)?

-Repeated stimulation enhance excitability

-Associated with insertion of AMPA glutamate receptors

-Associated with the removal of AMPA glutamate receptors

-It is a form of synaptic plasticity

A

Associated with the removal of AMPA glutamate receptors

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97
Q

Temporal summation ________.

-occurs because of the convergence of many neurons on a single postsynaptic cell

-only involves inhibitory postsynaptic potentials

-occurs when a single neuron releases neurotransmitter rapidly

-only involves excitatory postsynaptic potentials

A

occurs when a single neuron releases neurotransmitter rapidly

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98
Q

Enhancing the excitability of a synapse so that transmission is favored along certain pathways is called ________.

-synaptic plasticity

-summation

-excitotoxicity

-long-term potentiation

A

long-term potentiation

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98
Q

Which type of cell lines the ventricles of the brain and help produce cerebrospinal fluid?

-Microglia

-Oligodendrocytes

-Satellite cells

-Ependymal cells

A

Ependymal cells

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99
Q

Choose the statement that correctly describes the structure or function of dendrites.

-Are thin extensions of the axon

-Release neurotransmitters to initiate graded potentials in adjacent cells

-Transmit graded electrochemical impulses toward the cell body

A

Transmit graded electrochemical impulses toward the cell body

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100
Q

Which division of the nervous system innervates involuntary effectors?

-Somatic nervous system

-Autonomic Nervous system

-Central nervous system

A

Autonomic Nervous system

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101
Q

The membrane of resting nerve cells is more permeable to ______ ions than _____ ions.

-Potassium; sodium

-Chloride; potassium

-Calcium; potassium

-Sodium potassium

A

Potassium; sodium

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102
Q

What is needed to return a membrane to its resting membrane potential, with all ions in the current locations?

-Influx of negatively charged ions into the cell

-Outflow of Na+ ions via passive ion channels

-Outflow of K+ ions via passive ion channels

-Na+/K+ pump action

A

Na+/K+ pump action

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103
Q

Ion channels that open in response to depolarization are called__

-Potential-gated channels

-Stimulation-gated channels

-Voltage-gated channels

-Ion-gated channels

A

Voltage-gated channels

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104
Q

The synapses which occur between axons of presynaptic cells and dendrites of postsynaptic cells are called___.

-Axodendritic

-Axoaxonic

-Myoneural

-axosomatic

A

Axodendritic

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105
Q

The myelin sheaths of PNS neurons are produced by ________.

-ependymal cells

-oligodendrocytes

-leukocytes

-Schwann cells

A

Schwann cells

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106
Q

Cells supporting neuron cell bodies in ganglia are termed ________.

-Schwann cells

-astrocytes

-satellite cells

-ependymal cells

A

satellite cells

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107
Q

The gap of exposed axon in the myelin sheath is the ________.

-White matter

-Sheath of schwann

-Node of Ranvier

-Neurilemma

A

Node of Ranvier

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108
Q

A drug that blocked ligand-gated ________ channels would prevent neuron ________.

-Na+; depolarization

-Na+; hyperpolarization

-K+; depolarization

-Ca2+; repolarization

A

Na+; depolarization

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109
Q

In order to prevent a patient from experiencing pain, local anesthetics must ________ in sensory neurons, which would prevent an action potential.

-bind to potassium channels

-inhibit the release of acetylcholine

-bind to sodium channels

-bind to calcium channels

A

bind to sodium channels

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110
Q

Botulism toxin prevents release of ACh, causing

-Flaccid paralysis

-Hemiplegia

-Spastic paralysis

-None of the choices are correct

A

Flaccid paralysis

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111
Q

Since the action potential “leaps” from node to node in a myelinated axon, ________.

-Na+ movement within the myelin sheath is possible

-Na+ channels are not present between the nodes

-action potentials move faster if the nodes are farther apart

-myelinated axons need far less Na+ channels than unmyelinated axons

A

Na+ channels are not present between the nodes

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112
Q

The myelin sheaths of CNS neurons are produced by___

-ependymal cells

-Schwann cells

-Oligodendrocytes

-leukocytes

A

Oligodendrocytes

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113
Q

Chemical synapses ________.

-have a delayed impulse transmission

-utilize gap junctions

-do not require the release of neurotransmitters

-occur when two nerve cells are in direct contact with each other

A

have a delayed impulse transmission

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114
Q

Degeneration of spinal motor neurons in adults may be due to a lack of ________ factor.

-brain-derived neurotrophic (BDNF)

-nerve growth (NGF)

-glial-derived neurotrophic (GDNF)

-Neurotrophin-3

A

glial-derived neurotrophic (GDNF)

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115
Q

Neurotrophins are NOT responsible for ________.

-maintaining sympathetic ganglion

-sustaining neurons that use the neurotransmitter dopamine

-embryonic development of neurons

-regeneration of injured motor neurons

A

regeneration of injured motor neurons

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116
Q

Synaptic transmission using acetylcholine would be disrupted by ________.

-curare

-Both curare and botulinum toxin are correct.

-Strychnine

-Botulinum toxin

A

Both curare and botulinum toxin are correct.

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117
Q

Action potentials would be conducted most rapidly by ________.

-a 40 mm diameter unmyelinated axon

-a 10 mm diameter myelinated axon

-a 10 mm diameter unmyelinated axon

-a 40 mm diameter myelinated axon

A

a 40 mm diameter myelinated axon

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118
Q

If the binding of muscarine to its receptor in the heart causes the beta-gamma complex of the G-protein to bind to a K+ channel, ________.

-the K+ channel will open, leading to hyperpolarization and inhibition

-the K+ channel will close, leading to depolarization

-the K+ channel will open, leading to depolarization

-the K+ channel will close, leading to hyperpolarization and inhibition

A

the K+ channel will open, leading to hyperpolarization and inhibition

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119
Q

The blood-brain barrier results mostly from the action of ________, a type of neuroglia.

-ependymal cells

-oligodendrocytes

-microglia

-astrocytes

A

astrocytes

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120
Q

What is NOT true of conduction through dendrites and cell bodies of neurons?

-It generates action potentials in the cell body.

-It creates graded potentials.

-EPSPs can summate to reach threshold.

-It creates EPSPs

A

It generates action potentials in the cell body

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121
Q

If a cell’s membrane is not excitable, this means that ________.

-the cell is a neuron

-the cell cannot vary the permeability of the membrane to specific ions

-the cell does not have a measurable voltage

-the cell exhibit irritability

A

the cell cannot vary the permeability of the membrane to specific ions

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122
Q

What do muscarine and nicotine have in common?

-They are both agonists for their respective receptors.

-They are both always excitatory.

-They both activate-protein coupled channels.

-They are both antagonists for their respective receptors.

A

They are both agonists for their respective receptors.

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123
Q

Hyperpolarization in the postsynaptic cell is caused by___.

-Both inhibitory postsynaptic potentials and movement of K+ out of the cell are correct.

-Movement of K+ out of the cell

-Excitatory postsynaptic potentials

-Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials

A

Both inhibitory postsynaptic potentials and movement of K+ out of the cell are correct

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124
Q

During an action potential ________.

-Na+ influx causes depolarization

-K+ influx causes after-hyperpolarization

-Na+ efflux causes depolarization

-K+ influx causes repolarization

A

Na+ influx causes depolarization

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125
Q

Serotonin is synthesized from the amino acid ________.

-alanine

-glycine

-tryptophan

-serine

A

tryptophan

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126
Q

Axonal transport ________.

-is a passive process

-can only transport signals in
a retrograde direction

-can occur in both an anterograde and retrograde direction

-has two fast and one slow components

A

can occur in both an anterograde and retrograde direction

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127
Q

What type of autonomic fibers release ACh at effectors?

-Sensory

-Parasympathetic

-Somatic

-Sympathetic

A

Parasympathetic

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128
Q

Which of the following is NOT an action needed for glutamate to open ion channels?

-NMDA receptor must bind to glycine.

-The membrane must be partially depolarized from the action of a different neurotransmitter.

-Mg2+ is released from NMDA channel to open it.

-Cl- must pass through the open channel.

A

Cl- must pass through the open channel

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129
Q

Unlike chemical synapses, electrical synapses ________.

-provide adjacent cells with the ability to act in a coordinated fashion

-are not dependent on the movement of ions across a plasma membrane

-are the method of connection between adjacent neurons

-are the method of connection between adjacent neurons

A

provide adjacent cells with the ability to act in a coordinated fashion

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130
Q

The minimum depolarization needed to open Na+ gates is called the ________.

-threshold

-all-or-none law

-repolarization

-refractory period

A

threshold

131
Q

Which of the following are natural analgesics?

-Endorphins

-Enkephalins

-Dynorphins

-All of the choices are correct.

A

All of the choices are correct

132
Q

The brain produces lipid neurotransmitters called ________.

-endocannabinoids

-enkephalins

-nitric oxide

-Endorphins

A

endocannabinoids

133
Q

Spatial summation ________.

-occurs because of the convergence of many neurons on a single postsynaptic cell

-occurs when a single neuron releases neurotransmitter rapidly

-only involves inhibitory postsynaptic potentials

-only involves excitatory postsynaptic potentials

A

occurs because of the convergence of many neurons on a single postsynaptic cell

134
Q

Muscarinic ACh receptors act through ________ activation of K+ channels.

-ATP

-cGMP

-G-protein

-M-protein

A

G-protein

135
Q

Excitotoxicity is caused by ________.

-excessive synaptic release of glutamate

-insufficient synaptic release of ACh

-insufficient synaptic release of glutamate

-GABA inhibition

A

excessive synaptic release of glutamate

136
Q

Cholinergic fibers use ________ as the neurotransmitter.

-acetylcholine

-norepinephrine

-serotonin

-dopamine

A

acetylcholine

137
Q

Cocaine is particularly dangerous for patients with cardiovascular disease, or hypertension, because ________.

-it inhibits the degradation of norepinephrine, causing coronary artery constriction

-it blocks the reuptake of serotonin and dopamine, causing excessive bouts of euphoria

-it blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine, causing increased heart rate

-it blocks membrane sodium channels, causing increased EPSPs

A

it blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine, causing increased heart rate

138
Q

Inhibition of neuropeptide Y synthesis would ________.

-diminish appetite

-stimulate leptin secretion

-induce euphoria

-induce obesity

A

diminish appetite

138
Q

Which poison inhibits glycine receptors?

-Strychnine

-Curare

-Tetrodotoxin

-All of the choices are correct.

A

Strychnine

138
Q

What is the predominant effect of stimulation of nicotinic receptors that form ligand-gated channels?

-Inhibition due to influx of Cl- ions

-Inhibition due to outflow of K+ ions

-Stimulation due to influx of Na+ ions

-Stimulation due to outflow of K+ ions

A

Stimulation due to influx of Na+ ions

139
Q

As the intensity of a stimulus increases, more axons will become activated. This process is called ________.

-threshold

-refraction

-recruitment

-None of the choices are correct.

A

recruitment

139
Q

Acetylcholine usually induces an excitatory postsynaptic potential when binding to ________ receptors and can produce either an excitatory or an inhibitory postsynaptic potential when binding to some ________ receptors.

-NMDA, nicotinic

-muscarinic, nicotinic

-muscarinic, NMDA

-nicotinic, muscarinic

A

nicotinic, muscarinic

139
Q

What neurotransmitter is used by neurons with cell bodies in the raphe nuclei along the midline of the brainstem?

-Glycine

-GABA

-Serotonin

-Dopamine

A

Serotonin

139
Q

Exogenous and endogenous opioids have both similar and varying effects. Choose the statement that correctly summarizes their differences.

-Like exogenous opioids like morphine, endogenous opioids cause strong feelings of euphoria.

-Exogenous, but not endogenous, can block transmissions of pain.

-Endogenous are found in the CNS, whereas exogenous are released from neurons in the PNS.

-Naloxone has been shown to block the proven actions of both exogenous and endogenous opioids.

A

Naloxone has been shown to block the proven actions of both exogenous and endogenous opioids.

140
Q

From which amino acid are dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine all derived?

-Tryptophan

-Tyrosine

-Histidine

-Serine

A

Tyrosine

141
Q

An axon will depolarize only if the membrane potential reaches between -70mV and -55mV. This follows the ________.

-all-or-none law

-graduated law

-recruitment law

-threshold law

A

all-or-none law

142
Q

Catecholamines activate postsynaptic cells by ________.

-increased Ca2+ influx into the target cell

-inhibition of calmodulin

-inhibition of adenylate cyclase

-increased production of cyclic AMP

A

increased production of cyclic AMP

143
Q

The ability of synapses to change how they respond to stimuli is known as _______.

-synaptic plasticity

-temporal summation

-EPSP

-spatial summation

A

synaptic plasticity

144
Q

Relaxation of cerebral blood vessels would be stimulated by excessive ________ activity.

-Norepinephrine

-Acetylcholine

-nitric oxide

-Glutamate

A

nitric oxide

145
Q

Depolarization of an axon is a positive feedback mechanism because ________.

-as more sodium diffuses into the axon, the more voltage-gated potassium channels open

-as more sodium diffuses into the axon, the more voltage-gated sodium channels open

-as more sodium channels open, the membrane potential decreases

-as more potassium channels open, the membrane potential decreases

A

as more sodium diffuses into the axon, the more voltage-gated sodium channels open

146
Q

What event(s) could cause presynaptic inhibition?

-Inactivation of Ca2+ channels

-A second neuron causes a reduction in neurotransmitter release from another neuron

-Removal of SNARE complexes

-All of the choices are correct.

A

All of the choices are correct.

147
Q

The capacity of synapses for alteration at the molecular level is termed___.

-Synaptic plasticity

-Synaptic capacitance

-Synaptic modulation

-Synaptic alteration

A

Synaptic plasticity

148
Q

Neurotransmitters ________.

-are released by endocytosis

-bind to voltage-gated channels

-bind to chemically-gated or ligand-gated channels

-are actively transported across the synaptic cleft

A

bind to chemically-gated or ligand-gated channels

149
Q

What type of neural pathway involves one neuron forming synapses with several postsynaptic neurons___.

-Plastic

-Divergent

-Convergent

-Oscillating

A

Divergent

150
Q

Acetylcholine can induce hyperpolarization by ________.

-binding to nicotinic receptors

-binding to β-adrenergic receptors

-binding to α-adrenergic receptors

-binding to muscarinic receptors

A

binding to muscarinic receptors

151
Q

Muscarinic ACh receptors are found in all of the following locations EXCEPT ________.

-glands

-skeletal muscle

-smooth muscle

-cardiac muscle

A

skeletal muscle

152
Q

Choose the incorrect statement about norepinephrine.

-It is released in both the central and peripheral nervous systems.

-It is released from adrenergic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system.

-Norepinephrine pathways are stimulated by amphetamines.

-It is released by sympathetic neurons to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands.

A

It is released from adrenergic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system.

153
Q

What type of receptors will bind ATP and adenosine?

-Cotransmitter receptors

-Pyrimenergic receptors

-Purinergic receptors

-None of the choices are correct.

A

Purinergic receptors

154
Q

The most numerous of all cells of CNS nervous tissue are the _______.

-Astrocytes

-Microglia

-Schwann cells

-Neurons

A

Astrocytes

155
Q

What type of proteins are present in gap junctions that form water-filled channels between neurons?

-Myelin

-Connexins

-Terminal boutons

-Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)

A

Connexins

156
Q

Choose the incorrect statement regarding EPSPs.

-They are graded responses.

-They are able to be summated.

-There are initiated by neurotransmitters

-They have a refractory period.

A

They have a refractory period.

157
Q

Benzodiazepines act by increasing _________ activity.

-Ach

-Glutamate

-Enkephalin

-GABA

A

GABA

158
Q

Both long-term potentiation and long-term depression require the release of ______ from the postsynaptic neuron membrane.

-Cl-

-Mg 2+

-Ca 2+

-K+

A

Ca 2+

159
Q

Structural classifications of neurons do NOT include _____.

-Motor neurons

-Pseudounipolar neurons

-Multipolar neurons

-Bipolar neurons

A

Motor neurons

160
Q

The average resting membrane potential of an axon is ______.

+30mV

-70mV

0 mV

-85mV

A

-70mV

161
Q

Neostigmine, used to treat myasthenia gravis, blocks the enzyme that degrades ______. This helps treat the disease because _________.

-Nicotine; it destroys the anti bodies that block nictinic ACh receptors on the motor end plate.

-Acetylcholine; it increases the amount of acetylcholine available to bind to receptors on the motor end plate.

-Acetylcjoline; it destroys the antibodies that block nicotinic ACh receptors on the motor end plate.

-Norepinephrine; it increases the amount of acetylcholine available to bind to receptors on the motor end plate.

A

Acetylcholine; it increases the amount of acetylcholine available to bind to receptors on the motor end plate.

162
Q

Chemicals that stimulate action potentials in postsynaptic cells are called ________.

-Neurotransmitters

-Neurotrophins

-Enzymes

-Hormones

A

Neurotransmitters

163
Q

Synaptic vesicles are docked to the plasma membrane of the axon terminal by a protein complex called ________.

-Synaptotagmins

-Connexins

-SNARE

-Boutons

A

SNARE

164
Q

Synaptic plasticity involves structural changes in neurons, such as ________.

-formation of more axon terminals

-formation of dendritic spines

-formation of axillary branches

-mitosis of neurons

A

formation of dendritic spines

165
Q

Mutation of the N-methly-D-asparate (NMDA) receptor would affect the ability of ________ to regulate neural function.

-Nitric oxide

-Epinephrine

-Acetylcholine

-Glutamate

A

Glutamate

166
Q

Astrocytes are NOT involved in ________.

-uptake of neurotransmitter from a synapse

-stimulation or inhibition neurons

-formation the blood-brain barrier

-formation of synapses in the CNS

-breakdown and engulfment of foreign material in the CNS

A

breakdown and engulfment of foreign material in the CNS

167
Q

A patient is prescribed an MAO inhibitor by their doctor. Knowing the actions of MAO inhibitors, this patient’s diagnosis may be ________.

-hypertension, since MAO inhibitors block the degradation of norepinephrine at the synapse

-depression, since MAO inhibitors block the binding of serotonin to postsynaptic cells

-hypertension, since MAO inhibitors block the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic axons

-depression, since MAO inhibitors block the degradation of serotonin at the synapse

A

depression, since MAO inhibitors block the degradation of serotonin at the synapse

168
Q

ATP and adenosine can act as neurotransmitters ________.

-when no ACh is available

-when released by adrenergic neurons during sympathetic activation

-after being used for energy by the cell

-All of the choices are correct.

A

when released by adrenergic neurons during sympathetic activation

169
Q

The midbrain forms from the ________.

-diencephalon

-mesencephalon

-telencephalon

-myelencephalon

A

mesencephalon

170
Q

Riding a bicycle with ease after years of not riding is an example of ________ memory.

-episodic

-working

-procedural

-semantic

A

procedural

171
Q

Impaired motor coordination in Parkinson’s disease is often due to ________.

-degeneration of the mesolimbic system

-degeneration of the substantia nigra

-degeneration of the red nucleus

-damage to the caudate nucleus

A

degeneration of the substantia nigra

172
Q

Damage to the ________ will cause a lack of motivation and sexual desire as well as deficient cognitive functions.

-amygdaloid body

-lateral prefrontal area

-medial temporal lobe

-hypothalamus

A

lateral prefrontal area

173
Q

What is the function of CREB in long-term memory?

-Activates genes to make proteins such as dendritic spines

-Addition of AMPA receptors

-Opens Ca2+ channels

-Draws more glutamate into the neuron

A

Activates genes to make proteins such as dendritic spines

174
Q

The basal nuclei include the ________.

-corpus striatum

-supraoptic nucleus

-reticular formation

-All of the choices are correct.

A

corpus striatum

175
Q

What substance can act as a retrograde messenger to increase LPT by increasing the release of glutamate from presynaptic terminals?

-Ca2+

-ACh

-NO

-Mg2+

A

NO

176
Q

What substance can act as a retrograde messenger to suppress release of GABA to contribute to LTP?

-Norepinephrine

-Acetylcholine

-Carbon monoxide

-Endocannabinoid

A

Endocannabinoid

177
Q

A dysfunction of ________ neurons would limit the ability to learn from and mimic the dance steps of an instructor.

-motor neurons

-mirror neurons

-sensory neurons

-interneurons

A

mirror neurons

178
Q

Releasing and inhibiting hormones are produced in the ________.

-anterior pituitary gland

-posterior pituitary gland

-pineal gland

-hypothalamus

A

hypothalamus

179
Q

The majority of sensory information is relayed to the cerebrum by the ________.

-medulla oblongata

-hypothalamus

-thalamus

-pons

A

thalamus

180
Q

Neurons of the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (VLPO) of the hypothalamus release ________ that promotes sleep.

-Histamine

-GABA

-Dopamine

-Acetylcholine

A

GABA

181
Q

The medulla oblongata ________.

-contains the nuclei of three cranial nerves

-contains the glossopharyngeal nuclei

-acts only as a relay center

-is continuous with the midbrain

A

contains the glossopharyngeal nuclei

182
Q

Which of the following is NOT required to coordinate movement?

-Cerebellum

-Hypothalamus

-Basal nuclei

-Motor cortex

A

Hypothalamus

183
Q

The inability to reach out and touch an object with control and accuracy may result from damage to the ________.

-pons

-cerebellum

-midbrain

-cerebrum

A

cerebellum

184
Q

A cranial nerve emerging from the pons is damaged. Which deficit in cranial nerve function may be present?

-Loss of vision

-Difficulty swallowing

-Inability to protrude of tongue

-Inability to chew

A

Inability to chew

185
Q

Nerve fibers of the ________ tract decussate in the spinal cord and are involved in regulating fine motor movements.

-lateral corticospinal

-anterior spinothalamic

-lateral spinothalamic

-anterior corticospinal

A

lateral corticospinal

186
Q

If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve were to be cut, the individual would ________.

-have no reflexes involving that nerve

-Both have no sensory perception from that nerve and have no reflexes involving that nerve are correct.

-have no sensory perception from that nerve

-have no motor responses for that nerve

A

Both have no sensory perception from that nerve and have no reflexes involving that nerve are correct.

187
Q

What is the first structure of a reflex arc?

-Sensory neuron

-Receptor

-Effector (muscles or glands)

-Motor neuron

A

Receptor

188
Q

Eye movements would be compromised by damage to the ________.

-vestibulocochlear nerve

-accessory nerve

-trochlear nerve

-vagus nerve

A

trochlear nerve

189
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is found ________.

-within the olfactory bulbs

-Both within the central canal and within the ventricles.

-within the ventricles of the brain

-within the central canal of the spinal cord

A

Both within the central canal and within the ventricles.

190
Q

Chorea is most likely to result from damage to the ________.

-premotor cortex

-primary motor cortex

-caudate nucleus

-insula

A

caudate nucleus

191
Q

The limbic system, especially the ________ and ________, are rich in “stress hormone” receptors.

-septal nuclei; hippocampus

-cingulated gyrus; amygdaloid body

-hippocampus; amygdaloid body

-caudate nucleus; hippocampus

A

hippocampus; amygdaloid body

192
Q

REM sleep is unique from other stages in that ________.

-it causes ideal rest, without emotional activation

-learning from activities during the day occurs

-memory consolidation can occur

-breathing and heart rate mimic the patterns during waking hours

A

breathing and heart rate mimic the patterns during waking hours

193
Q

An electroencephalogram obtained from an adult who is thinking would probably display many ________ waves.

-alpha

-delta

-beta

-theta

A

beta

194
Q

Damage to the orbitofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex causes ________.

-severe impulsive/sociopathic behavior

-memory deficiencies

-cognitive deficiencies

-inhibited fear response

A

severe impulsive/sociopathic behavior

195
Q

Choose the complete list of lobes of the cerebrum.

-Temporal, frontal, insula, cerebellum, occipital

-Insula, temporal, parietal, pons, and occipital

-Cerebrum, midbrain, thalamus, pons, medulla oblongata

-Frontal, parietal, temporal, insula, occipital

A

Frontal, parietal, temporal, insula, occipital

196
Q

After an accident, a patient has difficulty moving the limbs on his right side. Damage was most likely sustained by the ________.

-left cerebral cortex

-right cerebral cortex

-left globus pallidus

-Cerebellum

A

left cerebral cortex

197
Q

A “word salad” speaking pattern occurs when ________.

-Wernicke’s area is damaged

-the angular gyrus is damaged

-the motor speech area is damaged

-spinal nerves are damaged

A

Wernicke’s area is damaged

198
Q

What structure separates the frontal and parietal lobes?

-Corpus callosum

-Central sulcus

-Lateral sulcus

-Longitudinal fissure

A

Central sulcus

199
Q

A patient sustains a head injury. He cannot remember the words to a new song on the radio no matter how many times he hears it, but can recite a song he learned in his childhood. He most likely damaged his __________.

-occipital lobe

-frontal lobe

-medial temporal lobe

-inferior parietal lobe

A

medial temporal lobe

200
Q

Based on experimental evidence, the ________ hypothalamus acts as the body’s thermostat.

-lateral

-medial

-supraoptic

-preoptic-anterior

A

preoptic-anterior

201
Q

In most most individuals, writing skills would be impaired if damage to the ________ occurred.

-left cerebral hemisphere

-None of the choices are correct.

-right cerebral hemisphere

-corpus callosum

A

left cerebral hemisphere

202
Q

Which of the following is NOT a vital function of the medulla oblongata?

-Respiratory control

-Vasomotor control

-Cardiac control

-Thirst control

A

Thirst control

203
Q

Visual reflexes would be impaired by damage to the ________.

-superior colliculi

-medial geniculate nuclei

-inferior colliculi

-red nucleus

A

superior colliculi

204
Q

The ________ is a cerebral lobe that is involved in memory and integration of sensory information (mostly pain) with visceral responses.

-parietal

-temporal

-insula

-frontal

A

insula

205
Q

What type of cerebellar cells provide communication to other brain areas?

-Reticular cells

-Pyramidal cells

-Purkinje cells

-Supraoptic cells

A

Purkinje cells

206
Q

A spinal cord injury occurs to the posterior spinocerebellar tract on the right side. What deficits would be expected?

-Decreased sensory impulses to the cerebellum on the right side

-Decreased sensory impulses from the cerebellum on the left side

-Decreased sensory impulses to the both sides of the cerebellum

-Decreased sensory impulses from the cerebellum on the right side

A

Decreased sensory impulses to the cerebellum on the right side

207
Q

The suprachiasmatic nuclei ________.

-are located in the anterior hypothalamus

-control melatonin secretion from the pineal gland

-contain “clock cells” that have patterns which repeat about every twenty-four hours

-All of the choices are correct

A

All of the choices are correct

208
Q

A cranial nerve with only sensory fibers is the ________.

-vagus nerve

-trigeminal nerve

-optic nerve

-hypoglossal nerve

A

optic nerve

209
Q

Which cranial nerve is NOT involved with eye movements?

-Abducens

-Optic

-Trochlear

-Oculomotor

A

Optic

210
Q

The hypothalamus does NOT ________.

-control body temperature

-control hunger and thirst

-controls the autonomic nervous system

-relay visual and auditory input to the cerebral cortex

A

relay visual and auditory input to the cerebral cortex

211
Q

Damage to which cranial nerve would be associated with both sensory and motor deficits?

VII

II

VIII

I

A

VII

212
Q

The right side of the brain controls motor activity on the left side of the body because nerve tracts decussate in the ________.

-medulla oblongata

-pons

-midbrain

-thalamus

A

medulla oblongata

213
Q

Which brain structure contains two respiratory control centers?

-Midbrain

-Cerebellum

-Epithalamus

-Pons

A

Pons

214
Q

Ataxia is often associated with damage to the ________.

-cerebellum

-occipital lobe

-motor cortex

-pyramidal tracts

A

cerebellum

215
Q

In the spinal cord, the gray matter is arranged into ________ and the white matter is arranged into ______

-tracts; funiculi

-columns; horns

-horns; funiculi

-funiculi; tracts

A

horns; funiculi

216
Q

The function of ________ is to link sensory stimuli with the appropriate motor responses.

-bipolar neurons

-motor neurons

-interneurons

-pseudounipolar neurons

A

interneurons

217
Q

What is the function of the motor circuit in the brain?

-Inhibits excessive stimuli from reaching the cerebral cortex

-Allows for intended movements to occur, while controlling unwanted movement

-Helps in the maintenance of posture and balance during movement

-Activates the RAS

A

Allows for intended movements to occur, while controlling unwanted movement

218
Q

Recognition of a friend’s face is a function of ________ cerebral hemisphere(s) in most individuals.

-both

-the left

-the right

A

the right

219
Q

What condition is caused by a sudden failure of the RAS?

-Narcolepsy

-Insomnia

-Parkinson’s disease

-Alzheimer’s disease

A

Narcolepsy

220
Q

Which of the following RAS neurotransmitters stimulates the cerebral cortex for wakefulness?

-Norepinephrine

-Dopamine

-Both dopamine and norepinephrine are correct.

-GABA

A

Both dopamine and norepinephrine are correct.

221
Q

The majority of the fibers of the pyramidal tracts decussate in the ________.

-medulla oblongata

-midbrain

-spinal cord

-basal nuclei

A

medulla oblongata

222
Q

Nerves that supply the muscular and cutaneous innervation of the arm arise from the ________ plexus.

-brachial

-sacral

-cervical

-lumbar

A

brachial

223
Q

The total percentage of blood flow to the body per minute that goes to the brain is

25

15

20

30

A

15

224
Q

The famous patient “H.M.” could not remember events that occurred after his memory was damaged after he had brain surgery to treat his epilepsy. He retained his perceptual and motor skills, but lost his memory of new facts and events. Thus H.M’s deficit was in

-Declarative or implicit memory

-Nondeclarative or explicit memory

-Declarative or explicit memory

-Nondeclarative or implicit memory

A

Declarative or explicit memory

225
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system

-Hippocampus

-Cingulate gyrus

-Angular gyrus

-Amygdaloid body

A

Angular gyrus

226
Q

A(n) _____ would detect increase activity in the brain in response to stimuli

-Electroencephalogram

-Computed tomography scan

-Functional magnetic resonance imaging scan

-Positron emission tomography scan

A

Functional magnetic resonance imaging scan

227
Q

What ion is involved in stimulating genetic transcription needed for learning and memory

-NO

-Ca 2+

-Na+

-K+

A

Ca 2+

228
Q

Brain metabolism may be best studied by ______.

-Magnetic resonance imaging

-Position-emission tomography

-Computed tomography

-electroencephalography

A

Position-emission tomography

229
Q

The _____ is the dorsal diencephalon, containing the choroid plexus and the pineal gland

-Third ventricle

-Hypothalamus

-Epithalamus

-thalamus

A

Epithalamus

230
Q

Interpretation of auditory inputs would be most affected by _____

-Ablation of the lateral geniculate nuclei of the thalamus

-Ablation of the hypothalamus

-Ablation of the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus

-Ablation to the medical geniculate nuclei of the thalamus

A

Ablation to the medical geniculate nuclei of the thalamus

231
Q

Which of the following spinal nerve groups is incorrect

-Thoracic - 12

-Lumbar - 5

-Sacral - 5

-Cervical - 7

A

Cervical - 7

232
Q

What specific area of the brain has shown to be involved in complex problem-solving?

-Frontal lobe

-Prefrontal cortex

-Amygdaloid body

-Hippocampus

A

Prefrontal cortex

233
Q

The hypothalamus and the limbic system are involved in ________.

-aggression

-fear

-sex

-goal-directed behavior

-All of the choices are correct

A

All of the choices are correct

234
Q

Aphasias are most often associated with damage to ________ and ________ areas.

-motor speech; Wernicke’s

-fornix; motor speech

-Wernicke’s area; the angular gyrus

-the angular gyrus; septal nuclei

A

motor speech; Wernicke’s

235
Q

Nerves that innervate the muscles and skin of the leg arise from the ________.

-Both the sacral and lumbar
plexuses are correct.

-brachial plexus

-lumbar plexus

-sacral plexus

A

Both the sacral and lumbar
plexuses are correct

236
Q

Which area of the brain contains neural stem cells that are apparently important in learning and memory?

-Temporal lobe

-Arcuate fasciculus

-Subgranular zone of the hippocampus

-Cerebral cortex

A

Subgranular zone of the hippocampus

237
Q

The ________ is involved in the improvement of memory when the memory has an emotional content.

-caudate nucleus

-substantia nigra

-fornix

-amygdaloid body

A

amygdaloid body

238
Q

Ablation of the amygdaloid body would primarily result in ________.

-decreased sex drive

-absence of fear

-loss of appetite

-loss of ability to detect olfactory inputs

A

absence of fear

239
Q

What structure connects Wernicke’s area to the motor speech area?

-Arcuate fasciculus

-Corpus callosum

-Corpus striatum

-Angular gyrus

A

Arcuate fasciculus

240
Q

In long-term potentiation dealing with memory, what regulatory protein do calcium ions bind to?

-CREB

-CaMKII

-Calmodulin

-Kinase

A

Calmodulin

241
Q

Which cranial nerve is vital for the functioning of the visceral organs?

-Hypoglossal

-Abducens

-Vagus

A

Vagus

242
Q

Which cranial nerve allows one to smile, controls secretion of tears?

IX
XII
VII
V

A

VII

243
Q

The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory would be inhibited by ablation of the ________.

-occipital lobe

-pons

-cerebral nuclei

-hippocampus

A

hippocampus

244
Q

Individuals with aphasia ________.

-may not be able to write if the angular gyrus is damaged

-often have damage to spinal nerves

-often form nonsensical sentences if the motor speech area is damaged

-often speak slowly if Wernicke’s area is damaged

A

may not be able to write if the angular gyrus is damaged

245
Q

Which neurotransmitter is NOT associated with basal nuclei function?

-GABA

-Glutamate

-All of the neurotransmitters play a major role in basal nuclei function.

-Dopamine

A

All of the neurotransmitters play a major role in basal nuclei function.

246
Q

Cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the ________

-midbrain

-peripheral ganglia

-thoracic and sacral regions of the spinal cord

-thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord

A

thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord

247
Q

Somatic motor neurons have a direct connection between the CNS and their effector organs, while ________ neurons must synapse on with a peripheral neuron before reaching their effectors.

-somatic sensory

-autonomic sensory

-autonomic motor

-Both somatic and autonomic are correct.

A

autonomic motor

248
Q

What occurs when one sympathetic preganglionic neuron synapses on several postganglionic neurons?

-Convergence

-Cooperation

-All of the choices are correct.

-Divergence

A

Divergence

249
Q

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system ________.

-has terminal ganglia embedded in the visceral effectors

-has relatively short preganglionic neurons

-has long postganglionic neurons

-has a single neuron arising from the spinal cord

A

has terminal ganglia embedded in the visceral effectors

250
Q

The splanchnic nerves synapse in the ________.

-gray rami communicantes

-collateral ganglia

-white rami communicantes

-paravertebral ganglia

A

collateral ganglia

251
Q

The ________ are branches made from the preganglionic sympathetic axons that travel from the spinal nerves to sympathetic ganglia chain.

-gray rami communicantes

-dorsal rami

-ventral rami

-white rami communicantes

A

white rami communicantes

252
Q

Damage to the thoracic portion of the spinal cord would probably have a greater effect on the ________ division of the autonomic nervous system.

-sensory

-somatic

-parasympathetic

-sympathetic

A

sympathetic

253
Q

From where do parasympathetic preganglionic neurons originate?
Brainstem

-Sacral region of the spinal cord

-Thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord

-Brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord

A

Brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord

254
Q

Which of the following is NOT a collateral ganglion?

-Superior mesenteric

-Celiac

-Inferior mesenteric

-Hepatic

A

Hepatic

255
Q

Ablation of the celiac ganglia would inhibit sympathetic regulation of the ________.

-adrenal glands

-Kidneys

-heart

-Bladder

A

Kidneys

256
Q

Atropine blocks ________ receptors for ________. When administered, expected side effects may include ________.

-cholinergic; norepinephrine; increased visual sensitivity to light

-cholinergic; ACh; dryness in the mouth

-muscarinic; ACh; increased blood pressure

-muscarinic; norepinephrine; feelings of anxiety

A

muscarinic; ACh; increased blood pressure

257
Q

The second messenger mediating the effects of norepinephrine on the heart would be ________.

-increased intracellular Ca2+

-decreased Ca2+

-decreased intracellular cyclic AMP

-increased cyclic AMP

A

increased cyclic AMP

258
Q

In response to sympathetic stimulation, ________; this allows for ________ during fight-or-flight.

-blood vessels in skeletal muscles dilate; greater oxygen delivery to the muscle

-bronchioles vasodilate; heart rate to decrease

-intestinal motility increases; greater energy availability

-pupils constrict; more acute vision

A

blood vessels in skeletal muscles dilate; greater oxygen delivery to the muscle

259
Q

The neurotransmitter released at terminal ganglia is ________.

-acetylcholine

-dopamine

-norepinephrine

-epinephrine

A

acetylcholine

260
Q

A defect in nitric oxide synthetase gene may result in reduced ________ of cerebral arteries since nitric oxide production would be impaired.

-arterial pressure

-compliance

-vasodilation

-vasoconstriction

A

vasodilation

261
Q

Postganglionic ________ neurons release acetylcholine

-somatic

-sensory

-sympathetic

-parasympathetic

A

parasympathetic

262
Q

Which part of the brain helps to regulate the ANS actions from the medulla during motion sickness?

-Limbic system

-Hypothalamus

-Cerebrum

-Cerebellum

A

Cerebellum

263
Q

The ________ has both a1 and b1 receptors and responds to sympathoadrenal stimulation with glycogenolysis and secretion of glucose.

-liver

-pancreas

-adrenal cortex

-skeletal muscle

A

liver

264
Q

Goose bumps would occur in response to ________.

-a cholinergic agonist

-an adrenergic agonist

-a cholinergic antagonist

-an adrenergic antagonist

A

an adrenergic agonist

265
Q

Visceral reactions which accompany emotional states are due to activation of the autonomic nervous system by the ________.

-cerebral cortex

-pons

-cerebellum

-limbic system

A

limbic system

266
Q

Damage to the terminal ganglia would have the greatest effect on ________.

-sympathetic motor neurons

-somatic motor neurons

-parasympathetic motor neurons

-somatic reflex function

A

parasympathetic motor neurons

267
Q

Neural crest cells form ________.

-the adrenal medulla

-preganglionic sympathetic neurons

-the hypothalamus

-preganglionic parasympathetic neuron

A

the adrenal medulla

268
Q

The paravertebral and collateral ganglia are associated with the ________ division of the autonomic
nervous system.

-somatic

-sympathetic

-parasympathetic

-sensory

A

sympathetic

269
Q

The vagus nerve innervates all of the following EXCEPT the ________.

-heart

-liver

-iris

-Stomach

A

iris

270
Q

Muscarinic antagonists would stimulate ________ pupillary diameter.

-no change in

-a decrease

-an increase

A

an increase

271
Q

M2 receptors in the heart ________.

-increase heart rate

-decrease heart rate

-cause increased cytosolic Ca2+ in heart cells

-cause increased spontaneous depolarization in the hear

A

decrease heart rate

272
Q

Choose the example of a parasympathetic response.

-Dilation of the pupils

-Increased intestinal motility

-Increased heart rate

-Increase in saliva production

A

Increased intestinal motility

273
Q

Which of the following organs is dually innervated?

-Skeletal muscle

-Arrector pili muscles in the skin

-Adrenal medulla

-Urinary bladder

A

Urinary bladder

274
Q

Intracellular Ca2+ is elevated if norepinephrine binds to a(n) ________ receptor.

-alpha-2 adrenergic

-alpha-1 adrenergic

-beta-1 adrenergic

-beta-2 adrenergic

A

alpha-1 adrenergic

275
Q

The ________ can control autonomic function, such that under some emotional states, visceral reactions like blushing, fainting, etc., can occur.

-medulla oblongata

-reticular activating system

-cerebrum

-limbic system

A

limbic system

276
Q

The medulla oblongata controls many autonomic activities through the ________.

-splanchnic nerves

-paravertebral ganglia

-vagus nerve

-collateral ganglia

A

vagus nerve

277
Q

Which organ receives only sympathetic innervation?

-The adrenal medulla

-Arrector pili muscles in the skin

-Most blood vessels

-All of the choices are correct

A

All of the choices are correct

278
Q

Somatic motor reflexes may result in________.

-contraction of skeletal muscle

-inhibition of smooth muscle contraction

-vasoconstriction

-contraction of smooth muscle

A

contraction of skeletal muscle

279
Q

Damage to a parasympathetic autonomic motor neuron could result in ________.

-decreased secretion from a gland

-spasticity of skeletal muscle

-increased skeletal muscle tone

-decreased heart rate

A

decreased secretion from a gland

280
Q

Which ganglia are associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

-Paravertebral

-Collateral

-Terminal

A

Terminal

281
Q

Mass activation is an important ability of the sympathetic nervous system because ________.

-it allows for enhancement of sympathetic effects throughout the body during the “fight-or-flight” response.

-it allows for simultaneous increases and decreases in the activity of postganglionic sympathetic axons to maintain homeostasis.

-All of the choices are correct.

-it allows the parasympathetic nervous system to remain active during the “fight-or-fight” response.

A

it allows for enhancement of sympathetic effects throughout the body during the “fight-or-flight” response.

282
Q

A patient’s history indicates damage to autonomic ganglia, and symptoms associated with digestive pain and dysfunction. The ganglia least likely to be damaged is ________.

-celiac

-sympathetic chain adjacent to T1

-sympathetic chain adjacent to T8

-superior mesenteric

A

sympathetic chain adjacent to T1

283
Q

Which of the following selectively stimulates a2 receptors on neurons in the brain, thereby suppressing sympathoadrenal activation and lowering blood pressure?

-Bradykinin

-Clonidine

-Acetylcholine

-Atropine

A

Clonidine

284
Q

Cocaine is a(an) ________ drug, meaning that it promotes sympathetic nerve effects.

-sympathomimetic

-adrenergic

-parasympathomimetic

-Cholinergic

A

sympathomimetic

285
Q

Blood flow to skeletal muscle would be ________ in response to muscarinic antagonists.

-increased

-not changed

-decreased

A

decreased

286
Q

Phenylephrine functions as a/an ________ because it promotes ________ in nasal mucosa.

-b1 agonist; vasodilation

-b1 antagonist; vasodilation

-a1 agonist; vasoconstriction

-a1 antagonist; vasoconstriction

A

a1 agonist; vasoconstriction

287
Q

Autonomic motor nerves do NOT innervate ________.

-Skeletal muscle

-Smooth muscle

-Cardiac muscle

-glands

A

Skeletal muscle

288
Q

A patient in a car accident fractured a thoracic vertebrae and sustained damage to the spinal nerve leaving the intravertebral foramen at the same level. The autonomic structure(s) likely to be damaged by this injury is/are the ________.

-Preganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies

-White rami communicates

-Celiac ganglion

-Gray rami communicates

A

White rami communicates

289
Q

The slowest rate of conduction would be measured in ________ neurons.

-Postganglion autonomic sympathetic

-Pregnaglionic autonomic sympathetic

-Somatic

-Pregnaglionic parasympathetic

A

Postganglion autonomic sympathetic

290
Q

“Synapses en passant” refers to the fact that postganglionic autonomic neurons release neurotransmitter ________.

-From the axon terminal

-From the soma

-Only when receptors pass over the axon

-Along the length of the axon

A

Along the length of the axon

291
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of the cooperative effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS?

-Micrurition

-Sexual function

-Sweating

-Saliva production

A

Sweating

292
Q

The majority of postganglionic sympathetic neurons release ________.

-Acetyllcholine

-Norepinephrine

-Dopamine

A

Norepinephrine

293
Q

Nonshivering thermogenesis is regulated by the ________ system.

-Sympathoadrenal

-Parasympathetic

-Somatic nervous

-Limbic

A

Sympathoadrenal

294
Q

Cocaine acts as a sympathomimetic drug because it blocks the reuptake of ________.

-Norepinephrine

-Insulin

-Acetylcholine

-Glucose

A

Norepinephrine

295
Q

Cutaneous effectors such as blood vessels, sweat glands, and erector pili muscles are innervated by ________.

-only parasympathetic nerves

-only sympathetic nerves

-both parasympathetic and
sympathetic nerves

-both parasympathetic and somatic nerves

A

only sympathetic nerves

296
Q

Epinephrine is a ________.

-Sympathetic neurotransmitter

-Parasympathetic neurotransmitter

-Sympathomimetic hormone

-All of the choices are correct

A

Sympathomimetic hormone

297
Q

All adrenergic receptors act via ________.

H-proteins

G-proteins

sodium-potassium pump

ligand-gated channels

A

G-proteins

298
Q

Which of the following is a catecholamine?

-Norepinephrine

-Acetylcholine

-Nitric Oxide

-All of the answer choices are correct.

A

Norepinephrine

299
Q

Postganglionic axons which do not secrete either catecholamines or acetylcholine may secrete ________.

-ATP

-nitric oxide

-vasoactive intestinal peptide

-All of the choices are correct.

A

All of the choices are correct.

300
Q

Alpha 2-adrenergic receptors on presynaptic axon terminals, when stimulated, cause ____________.

-Decreased release of epinephrine

-Decreased release of norepinephrine

-Increased release of epinephrine

-Increased release of norepinephrine

A

Decreased release of norepinephrine

301
Q

How can you distinguish the sympathetic from the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

-Neurotransmitters release by the preganglionic neurons

-Presence of peripheral ganglia

-Origin of the preganglionic neurons

-Sympathetic can be both excitatory and inhibitory

A

Origin of the preganglionic neurons

302
Q

Damage to the ______ nerve could inhibit saliva production.

-Hypoglossal

-Facial

-Abducens

-vagus

A

Facial

303
Q

Bright light would stimulate a decrease in pupil diameter through ________ nerves.

-Parasympathetic

-Sympathetic

-Somatic

-sensory

A

Parasympathetic

304
Q

Damage to the Papez circuit prevents communication between the limbic system and ___

-Olfactory bulbs

-Hippocampus

-Diencephalon

-cerebrum

A

Diencephalon

305
Q

Sensory impulses for fine touch, precise pressures, and body movement are carried by the ___ tracts.

-Fasciculi cuneatus and gracilis

-Anterior spinothalamic

-Posterior spinocerebellar

-Lateral spinothalamic

A

Fasciculi cuneatus and gracilis

306
Q

Neural stem cells in adult mammalian brains are found in the ________.

-Cerebral cortex

-Midbrain

-Subventricular zone

-Both the subventricular and subgranular zones

-Subgranular zone

A

Both the subventricular and subgranular zones

307
Q

The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory is called memory ________.

-Consolidation

-Recognition

-Ablation

-Translation

A

Consolidation

308
Q

Choose the statement that characterizes the cerebral cortex.

-Sensations from the feet would be on the most inferior area of the somatesthetic cortex.

-The hands and feet have a similar density of receptors.

-Areas of the body with the greatest density of receptors will have larger areas on the somatesthetic cortex.

-Damage to the left side of the motor cortex could impair muscular control of the limbs on the left side of the body

A

Areas of the body with the greatest density of receptors will have larger areas on the somatesthetic cortex.

309
Q

Ablation of the ________ in the midbrain would impair the ability to respond to sounds.

-red nucleus

-medial colliculi

-inferior colliculi

-substantia nigra

A

inferior colliculi

310
Q

There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves and ________ pairs of spinal nerves.

12; 31

12; 25

31; 12

15; 31

A

12; 31

311
Q

Damage to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum would have the greatest impact on ________.

-Vision

-Voluntary skeletal muscle

-Hearing

-Distinguishing between different somatic sensations

A

Hearing

312
Q

Reflex arcs ______

-Require input from the cerebral cortex

-May be mono- or polysynaptic

-Do not include somatic motor neurons

-Generally rely on the actions of the hypothalamus

A

May be mono- or polysynaptic

313
Q

What type of proteins are present at chemical synapses to ensure the close proximity of the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes?

A. Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)

B. Connexins

C. Terminal boutons

D. Myelin

A

Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)

314
Q

Histamine is able to ________.

-act as a regulator in inflammation and allergies

-act as a neurotransmitter in the brain to cause drowsiness

-act as a hormone that inhibits gastric secretion

-act as a neurotransmitter to cause skeletal muscle contraction

A

act as a regulator in inflammation and allergies

315
Q

The most abundant neuropeptide in the brain is ________.

-neuropeptide Z

-neuropeptide Y

-substance P

-CCK

A

neuropeptide Y

316
Q

Action potential transmission in the PNS is decreased if which cells are damaged?

-Schwann cells

-Astrocytes

-Microglia

-Oligodendrocytes

A

Schwann cells

317
Q

At what region of the neuron are action potentials first produced?

-Axon terminal

-Axon hillock

-Cell body

-dendrites

A

Axon hillock

318
Q

Addictive drugs, as well as nicotine, activate dopamine release in the __

-Corpus callosum

-Corpus striatum

-Basal nuclei

-Nucleus accumbens

A

Nucleus accumbens

319
Q

What type of intravenous fluid would be given to reduce edema?

-Hypertonic

-Hypotonic

-Isotonic

A

Hypertonic

320
Q

Solutes that cannot freely pass through a membrane are said to be ________.

-osmotically active

-osmotically inactive

hypertonic

-selectively permeable

A

osmotically active

321
Q

Individuals suffering from cystic fibrosis have defective ___ ion channels

-Chloride

-Potassium

-Sodium

-Calcium

A

Chloride