Haematology/Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Which condition is associated with Warfarin induced skin necrosis?

A

Protein C deficiency.

Protein C deficiency is an autosomal codominant condition which causes an increased risk of thrombosis.

Protein C is a vitamin K-dependent anticoagulant protein, which acts by inactivating factors Va and VIIIa, thus preventing the formation of thrombin. In patients with Protein C deficiency, starting warfarin therapy can lead to an imbalance between procoagulant and anticoagulant factors, predisposing them to thrombotic events and causing skin necrosis.

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2
Q

What are the features of acute intermittent prophyria (AIP)?

A

AIP is a rare autosomal dominant condition caused by a defect in Porphobilinogen Deaminase, an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of haem. The results in the toxic accumulation of delta aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen.

The classical presentation is a combination of abdominal, neurological and psychiatric symptoms:
- Abdominal: abdominal pain, vomiting
- Neurological: motor neuropathy
- Psychiatric: e.g. depression
- Hypertension and tachycardia common

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3
Q

Causes of Thrombocytosis? (abnormal high platelet count)

A
  1. Reactive: platelets are an acute phase reactant - platelet count can increase in response to stress s
  2. Malignancy
  3. Essential thrombocytosis or as part of another myeloproliferative disorder such as chronic myeloid leukaemia or polycythaemia rubra vera
  4. Hyposplenism
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4
Q

Mutation seen in essential thrombocytosis?

A

Myeloproliferative disroder. Megakaryocyte proliferation results in an overproduction of platelets.

Features:
- platelet count > 600 * 109/l
- both thrombosis (venous or arterial) and haemorrhage can be seen
- characteristic symptom is a burning sensation in the hands
- a JAK2 mutation is found in around 50% of patients

CALR (calreticulin) is also a more commonly found gene mutation in ET in around 20% of JAK-2 negative patients

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5
Q

Management for immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)?

A
  1. First-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone.
  2. Pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used. Raises the platelet count quicker than steroids, therefore may be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required.

Emergency treatment, life-threatening or organ threatening bleeding: Platelet transfusion, IV methylprednisolone and intravenous immunoglobulin.

  • Platelet count >30*109/L: Observation
  • Platelet count <30*109/L: Oral Prednisolone
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6
Q

Investigation for hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant defect of red blood cell cytoskeleton. Normal biconcave disc shape is replaced by a sphere-shaped RBC. RBC survival reduced as destroyed by the spleen.

Eosin-5′-maleimide (EMA) binding test.

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7
Q

Drugs that can trigger haemolysis in G6PD deficiency?

A

A person with G6PD has alot of CASH:

  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Antimalarial: Primaquine
  • Suplha groups: Sulfamethoxazole (Co-Trim), sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas
  • Heinz bodies
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8
Q

Mode of inheritance of G6PD deficiency?

A

Male (X-linked recessive).

It is more common in people from the Mediterranean and Africa and is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion. Many drugs can precipitate a crisis as well as infections and broad (fava) beans.

“Heinz Bodies and its precipitated by beans”

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9
Q

Features of Polycythaemia Vera?

A
  1. Pruritus, typically after a hot bath.
  2. Splenomegaly
  3. Hypertension
  4. Hyperviscosity
  5. Arterial thrombosis and venous thrombosis
  6. Haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function)
  7. Low ESR
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10
Q

Investigation for Polycythaemia Vera?

A

JAK-2 Mutation screen.

If the JAK2 mutation is negative can do Red cell mass testing.

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11
Q

Investigation for hereditary angioedema?

A

Hereditary angioedema is an autosomal dominant condition associated with low plasma levels of the C1 inhibitor (C1-INH, C1 esterase inhibitor) protein.

Serum C4 is the most reliable and widely used screening tool.

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12
Q

Mx for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia?

A

Fludarabine, Cyclophosphamide and Rituximab (FCR) has now emerged as the initial treatment of choice for the majority of patients.

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13
Q

Adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

A
  1. Haemorrhagic cystitis
  2. Myelosuppression
  3. Transitional cell carcinoma
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14
Q

Adverse effect of Bleomycin?

A

Lung fibrosis.

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15
Q

Mx for pregnant patient with antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
  1. Low-dose aspirin should be commenced once the pregnancy is confirmed on urine testing.
  2. LMWH once a fetal heart is seen on ultrasound. This is usually discontinued at 34 weeks gestation
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16
Q

Features of Vitamin B12 deficiency?

A
  1. Macrocytic anaemia
  2. Sore tongue and mouth
  3. Neurological symptoms: the dorsal column is usually affected first (joint position, vibration) prior to distal paraesthesia
  4. Neuropsychiatric symptoms: e.g. mood disturbances
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17
Q

Causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency?

A
  1. Pernicious anaemia: most common cause
  2. post gastrectomy
  3. vegan diet or a poor diet
  4. disorders/surgery of terminal ileum (site of absorption)
    Crohn’s: either diease activity or following ileocaecal resection
  5. Metformin (rare)
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18
Q

Mx of Vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

If no neurological involvement 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin 3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months.

If a patient is also deficient in folic acid then it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid precipitating subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

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19
Q

Mx for Von Willebrand disease?

A

Von Willebrand’s disease is the most common inherited bleeding disorder. The majority of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.
(epistaxis, menorrhagia)

  1. Tranexamic acid for mild bleeding
  2. Desmopressin (DDAVP): raises levels of vWF by inducing release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells
  3. Factor VIII concentrate
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20
Q

Blood film features seen in hyposplenism?
(post splenectomy, Coeliac disease)

A
  1. Target cells
  2. Howell-Jolly bodies
  3. Pappenheimer bodies
  4. Siderocytes
  5. Acanthocytes
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21
Q

Blood film in megaloblastic anaemia?

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils

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22
Q

Blue lines on gum margin?

A

Lead poisoning.

23
Q

Mx for CML?

A

The Philadelphia chromosome is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It is due to a translocation between the long arm of chromosome 9 and 22.

Imatinib is now considered first-line treatment - inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect.

24
Q

Cancer associated with Li Fraumeni syndrome?

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Consists of germline mutations to p53 tumour suppressor gene.
  • High incidence of malignancies particularly Sarcomas and leukaemias.
25
Q

Which cancer is associated with BRCA 2 in men?

A

BRCA2 mutation is associated with prostate cancer in men.

26
Q

BRCA is associated with which chromosome?

A

Carried on chromosome 17 (BRCA 1) and Chromosome 13 (BRCA 2).

Linked to developing breast cancer (60%) risk.

Associated risk of developing ovarian cancer (55% with BRCA 1 and 25% with BRCA 2).

27
Q

What are the fruits associated with latex -fruit syndrome?

A

It is recognised that many people who are allergic to latex are also allergic to fruits, particularly banana, pineapple, avocado, chestnut, kiwi fruit, mango, passion fruit and strawberry.

28
Q

Which medication is given to reduce incidence of haemorrhagic cystitis with Cyclophosphamide?

A

Sodium 2-mercaptoethane sulfonate (mesna) is often used before the administration of cyclophosphamide to prevent haemorrhagic cystitis.

29
Q

Ix for contact dermatitis?

A

Useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back. Irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later with the results being read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours.

30
Q

MoA of Anastrozole and Letrozole?

A

Anastrozole and letrozole are aromatase inhibitors that reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis.

This is important as aromatisation accounts for the majority of oestrogen production in postmenopausal women and therefore anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group.

31
Q

Blood film in CLL?

Main Ix for CLL?

A

Smudge cells (Smear cells)

Immunophenotyping is the key investigation.

32
Q

Tumour marker for breast cancer?

A

Ca 15-3

33
Q

Tumour marker for ovarian cancer?

A

CA 125

34
Q

Tumour marker for pancreatic cancer?

A

Ca 19-9

35
Q

Alpha-feto protein is a tumour marker for?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma
Teratoma

36
Q

Tumour marker for colorectal cancer?

A

CEA

37
Q

Tumour markers for melanoma and schwanommas?

A

S-100

38
Q

Pentad of thrombotic thromboyctopenic purpura (TTP)?

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Haemolysis
  3. Neurological signs
  4. Renal impairment
  5. Fever

“Few New Hormone Replacement Therapy”

39
Q

Mx for TTP?

A

Plasma exchange is the treatment of choice

40
Q

Biochemical abnormalities seen in tumour lysis syndrome?

A
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • Hyperphosphataemia
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Hyperuricaemia
  • Acute renal failure

TLS occurs from the breakdown of the tumour cells and the subsequent release of chemicals from the cell. It leads to a high potassium and high phosphate level in the presence of a low calcium.

Associated with chemo related to the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias.

41
Q

Prevention of tumour lysis syndrome?

A
  • IV fluids
  • Patients are higher risk should receive either Allopurinol or Rasburicase
42
Q

MOA of Rasburicase?

A

Rasburicase is a recombinant urate-oxidase enzyme that catalyses the oxidation of uric acid to allantoin, which is more soluble and easily excreted by the kidneys.

It is given prior to chemotherapy in patients with a high risk of TLS such as Burkitt’s lymphoma, to reduce the risk of acute renal failure due to uric acid precipitation.

43
Q

Ix for sickle cell disease?

A

Definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease is by haemoglobin electrophoresis.

44
Q

Which medication should be started in sickle cell for prevention?

A

Sickle cell patients should be started on long term hydroxycarbamide to reduce the incidence of complications and acute crises.

NICE suggest that sickle cell patients should receive the pneumococcal vaccine every 5 years.

45
Q

Mx for polycythaemia vera?

A

Risk of progression to Myelfibrosis or AML.

  1. Aspirin: reduce risk of thrombotic events
  2. Venesection: First line treatment to keep Hb in normal range
  3. Chemotherapy
46
Q

Which commonly prescribed Abx can cause pancytopenia?

A

Trimethoprim can cause bone marrow suppression leading to pancytopenia.

47
Q

Which malignancy is associated with H.Pylori?

A

Helicobacter pylori infection can lead to gastric lymphoma (MALT). These are typically arise in the antrum of the stomach and can present with systemic features such as fevers and night sweats.

48
Q

Which cytotoxic agent is associated with Ototoxicity?

A

Cisplastin.

49
Q

Blood film finding in Coeliac disease?

A

Coeliac disease is frequently associated with hyposplenism. Blood film abnormalities in a hyposplenic patient include Howell-Jolly bodies, target cells, and acanthocytes.

49
Q

Mode of inheritance of G6PD deficiency?

A

X Linked recessive.

50
Q

Causative organism in neutropenic sepsis?

A

Coagulase-negative, Gram-positive bacteria are the most common cause, particularly Staphylococcus epidermidis.

This is probably due to the use of indwelling lines in patients with cancer

51
Q

Abx choice for neutropenic sepsis?

A

NICE recommends starting empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately.

If patients are still febrile and unwell after 48 hours an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem is often prescribed +/- vancomycin.

52
Q

Haemophilia clotting test? what is prolonged?

A

Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency of factor VIII whilst in haemophilia B (Christmas disease) there is a lack of factor IX.

  • Prolonged APTT
  • Bleeding time, thrombin time, prothrombin time normal.
53
Q

Medication to help improve neutropenia?

A

Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) are used to increase neutrophil counts in patients who are neutropenic secondary to chemotherapy or other factors.

Examples include:
- Filgrastim
- Perfilgrastim