Definition Flashcards

1
Q

Reproduction

A

is the process by which genetic material is passed from one generation to the next. The major function of the reproductive system is to produce offspring.

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2
Q

mammary glands

A

accessory organs of the reproductive system, are milk, producing glands of the female breasts.
After giving birth, hormone stimulates the secretion of milk.

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3
Q

female reproductive system

A

Includes the ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, accessory glands, and external genital structures.

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4
Q

gonad
an organ that produces ovum or sperm

The gonads, ovaries and testis produce ova and sperm as well as the hormones necessary for proper functioning of the reproductive organs

A

The ovaries are the female gonads.

means an organ that produces ova or sperm

-produces the reproductive cells.

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5
Q

genitals or genitalia

A

The reproductive organs weather male or female

Include both external and internal organs

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6
Q

gynecology

A

Is the medical specialty that treats diseases of the female reproductive organs.

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7
Q

Gynecologic

A

Means pertaining to gynecology (GYN), or the study of diseases that occur only in females.

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8
Q

vulva

A

Refers to the external female genitalia

Refers to the external genitalia in the female

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9
Q

vulv/ar vulv/al
vulvar vulval

A

Means pertaining to the vulva

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10
Q

mons pubis

A

is a pad of fatty tissue and thick skin that overlies (a bone called the symphysis) the front of the pubic bone.

The pubis is the anterior portion of the hip bones.

After puberty, the mons pubis is covered with hair.

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11
Q

clitoris

A

Is a small mass of erectile tissue and nerves that has similarities to the male penis.
This small mass of erectile tissue becomes erect in response to sexual stimulation.

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12
Q

labia minora

A

One of the pairs of skin folds that protect the vagina opening.

merges and forms a hood over the clitoris

Labia minora is the smaller pair

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13
Q

labia majora

A

The larger pair of skin folds that protects the vaginal opening

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14
Q

prepuce

A

The retractable cover around the clitoris
(the smaller pair of skin folds, labia minora)

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15
Q

Vestibule

A

paraurethral glands
vestibular glands

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16
Q

perineum

A

The area between the vaginal opening and the anus

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17
Q

perineal

A

Means pertaining to the perineum

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18
Q

uro/genit/al
urogenital

genito/urinary
genitourinary (GU)

A

Means pertaining to the urinary and reproductive systems

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19
Q

symphysis pubis

A

Anterior portion of the hip bone

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20
Q

two pairs of skin folds

A

Singular form
Labia majora labium majus
Labia minora labium minus

Protects the vaginal opening.

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21
Q

paraurethral glands

A

They are located near the urethra

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22
Q

vestibular gland

A

lie adjacent to the vaginal opening

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23
Q

vestibule

A

Is any space or cavity at the entrance to a cCana.

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24
Q

vaginal vestibule

A

Is the space between the two labia minora into which the urethra and vagina open.

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25
Q

Bartholin glands (the greater vestibular gland)

A

produce a mucus-like secretion for lubrication during sexual intercourse

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26
Q

Offspring

A

The purpose of reproduction is to produce

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27
Q

primary reproductive structures

A

The right ovary and left ovary because they produce ova (eggs) and hormones.
The right ovary and left ovary because they produce over

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28
Q

ova
ovum (singular)

A

eggs

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29
Q

Ovary (2)

A

Produces ova

are the primary reproductive structures because they produce ova (eggs) and hormones

-about the size and shape of an almond

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30
Q

uterine tube

A

Is associated with each ovary

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31
Q

uterus

A

Receives a nurtures of fertilized ovum

Is the muscular organ that prepares to receive and nurture the fertilized ovum

Hollow and pear-shaped

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32
Q

cervix uteri commonly called uterine cervix (Cx)

A

Outlet from the uterus

The lower and narrow part that has the outlet from the uterus

When used alone, the term cervix often means the cervix uteri.

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33
Q

vagina

A

Birth canal

is the connection between the internal genitalia and the outside?

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34
Q

internal structures of the female genitalia

A

ovaries
uterus
vagina
several glands

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35
Q

Fallopian tube
Aka uterine tubes

A

is associated with each ovary. these tubes are also called uterine tubes, because they extend laterally from the upper portion of the uterus to the region of the ovary.

The fallopian tube is the most common site of fertilization of the ovum, which disintegrates or dies within 24 to 48 hours if it is not fertilized.

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36
Q

fimbriae

A

finger like projections of the fallopian tube
When an ovum is produced, the fimbriae create currents that sweep the ovum into the tube, and it is then carried along toward the uterus over the next 5 to 7 days.

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37
Q

Menstruation

A

Periodic shedding of the inner lining of the uterus, occurs in the non-pregnant uterus from puberty until menopause, usually between 45 and 55 years of age.

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38
Q

External structures of the female genitalia

A

mons pubis
Libia majora
Labia minora
Clitoris
Prepuce
Openings for glands

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39
Q

Vagina

A

Commonly called the birth canal, is muscular and capable of sufficient expansion for passage of the child during childbirth.
It also serves as the repository for sperm during intercourse and the passage for menstrual flow.

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40
Q

vaginal orifice (opening)

A

The vagina is the connection between the internal genitalia and the outside through its opening called the.………..

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41
Q

metr/itis

A

Inflammation of uterine tissue

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42
Q

Uterus

A

Consist of three layers of tissue. From the outermost layer to the innermost layer, the layers are called
perimetrium
myometrium
endometrium

Is the normal site where a fertilized ovum implants and develops

The uterus consists of an upper portion, a large main portion, and a narrow region that connects with the vagina.

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43
Q

Visceral peritoneum is called
peri/metr/ium
perimetrium

A

around/uterine/membrane
Perimetrium-is a membrane that surrounds the uterus

The outer layer of the uterus

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44
Q

myo/metr/ium
myometrium

A

muscle/uterine/membrane

Muscular middle layer of the uterine tissue
Is the thick muscular wall of the uterus

Middle layer of the uterus

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45
Q

endo/metr/ium
endometrium

A

inside/uterine/membrane
The inner most layer of the uterus, is a mucus membrane.

Mucus membrane that lines the uterus

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46
Q

Uterine fundus

A

The upper, bulging surface of the uterus, above the entrance of the uterine tubes

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47
Q

The body of the uterus

A

The large main portion.

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48
Q

uterine cervix

A

The narrow region

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49
Q

Cervix

A

Refers to the neck itself or part of an organ that resembles a neck

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50
Q

Cervix uteri

A

The proper name of the uterine cervix

Specifically means the lower, neck like portion of the uterus, although it is common to see cervix written alone and meaning the cervix uteri.

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51
Q

cervico/colp/itis
cervicocolpitis

A

Is inflammation of the cervix uteri and the vagina.

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52
Q

colpo/cyst/itis
colpocystitis

A

Inflammation of the vagina and the urinary bladder

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53
Q

ovari/an
ovarian

A

Ovary/pertaining to

Pertaining to the ovary

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54
Q

uter/ine
uterine

A

Uterus/pertaining to
Pertaining to the uterus

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55
Q

vagin/al
vaginal

A

vagina/pertaining to

Pertaining to the vagina

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56
Q

cervic/al
Cervical

A

Cervix/pertaining to

Pertaining to the cervix

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57
Q

intra/uter/ine
Intrauterine

A

Pertaining to within the uterus

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58
Q

Menstrual cycle

A

During much of a woman’s life, the endometrium goes through a monthly cycle of growth and discharge

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59
Q

Reproductive cycles

A

Normally occur in females from shortly after the onset of menstruation to menopause

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60
Q

Estrogen

A

Initial hormone that causes thickening of the endometrium

Female sex hormones

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61
Q

Progesterone

A

The second hormone secreted by the corpus luteum

The hormone produced by corpus luteum in the ovaries, adrenal cortex and placenta. It prepares and maintains the uterus during pregnancy.

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62
Q

Hormones

A

The hormones produced by these structures act on the ovaries to bring about two important functions: the production of ova as well as two additional hormones, estrogen, and progesterone

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63
Q

Puberty

A

The stage of development, when genitalia reach maturity

Stage of development, when genitalia reach maturity and secondary sex characteristics appear. The external characteristics of sexual maturity include adult distribution of hair and development of the breasts and menarche, usually between 9 and 13 years of age.

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64
Q

Menarche

A

Is the first occurrence of menstruation, the periodic bloody discharge caused by the shedding of the endometrium from the non-pregnant uterus. The date of the last menstrual period(LMP) is important, particularly when pregnancy is suspected or menopause is being investigated.

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65
Q

Menopause also called climacteric

A

The natural cessation of reproductive cycles and menstruation with the decline of reproductive hormones in later years. Menopause may occur earlier as a result of illness or surgical removal of the uterus or both ovaries.

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66
Q

Menstruation

A

Periodic bloody discharge caused by shedding of the endometrium

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67
Q

Ovarian cycle

A

Reflects the changes that occur within the ovaries.

The secretion of female reproductive hormones follows monthly cyclic patterns that affect the ovaries and uterus.

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68
Q

Uterine menstrual cycle

A

Reflects the changes that take place in the uterus
The secretion of female reproductive problems follows monthly cyclic patterns that affect the ovaries and uterus. Together these cycles called the ovarian cycle and the menstrual uterine cycle, make up the female reproductive cycle, (having an average of 28 days).

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69
Q

Ovarian and uterine cycle’s

A

Begin at puberty, when certain unknown stimuli caused the hypothalamus to start secreting a hormone that acts on the pituitary gland.

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70
Q

Pituitary gland

A

Begins to secrete two hormones, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), that act on follicles in the ovaries.

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71
Q

Follicle stimulating hormone

A

Stimulates a follicle

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72
Q

Graafian follicle

A

It’s a small ovarian recess or pit that contains fluid and surrounds an ovum (egg). Generally one of them is released each month. The follicle produces hormones and grows in preparation for release of the ovum. These changes in the follicle are classified as the follicular phase, which is followed by the luteal phase.

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73
Q

Ovulation

A

The release of an ovum from the ovary

Is the release of the ovum from the ovarian follicle
After the ovum is released, the ruptured follicle in larges, takes on a yellowish appearance, and is called the corpus luteum, meaning yellow body

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74
Q

Corpus luteum

A

Meaning yellow body

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75
Q

follicular changes

A

Are represented by follicle development, ovulation, and corpus luteum

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76
Q

Luteal phase

A

Is named after the yellow with structure called the corpus luteum

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77
Q

Follicular phase

A

Increasing amounts of estrogen are secreted and stimulate repair of the endometrium
Estrogen reaches its peak, near the middle of the cycle, and then decreases until the next month.

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78
Q

Corpus luteum

A

Secretes another important hormone, progesterone, which causes continued growth and thickening of the endometrium with additional preparatory activities to support a potential embryo. If fertilization (union of the ovum and sperm) does not occur, the corpus luteum begins to degenerate, and the cycle starts again.

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79
Q

Estrogen

A

Is the same hormone that brings about development of the female secondary sex characteristics, the external physical signs of sexual maturity, such as the development of breasts and pubic hair.

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80
Q

Progesterone

A

Is the second hormone that is secreted by the corpus luteum

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81
Q

Ovarian cycle

A

This portion of the menstrual cycle has two important phases
Follicular phase
Is represented by changes in the follicle and results in ovulation (release of the ovum)
Luteal phase
Is represented by changes in the follicle that result in secretion of progesterone by the matured follicle.

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82
Q

The uterine cycle

A

Occurs simultaneously with the ovarian cycle, and is the result of estrogen and progesterone secretion by the ovaries.

The uterine cycle begins with menstruation (which occurs on day, one of the cycle and continues for 3 to 5 days ), I would buy the king of the endometrium along with secretion of glycogen, which will nourish a developing embryo if fertilization occurs

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83
Q

menses

A

Means the normal flow of blood during menstruation when fertilization has not occurred.
Menses and menstruation are often used interchangeably

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84
Q

Estrogen and progesterone
(secreted by the ovarian follicle)

A

Prepare the uterus for pregnancy

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85
Q

oo/genesis
oogenesis

A

ovum/origin or beginning

Formation of ova

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86
Q

Gynecologic problems and obstetric care

A

Account for 1/5 of all visits by females to physicians. Many diagnostic procedures and treatments are available to females with gynecological disorders.

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87
Q

Physical assessment of the female reproductive system

A

Of the female reproductive system includes examination of the breath, but external genitalia and the pelvis

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88
Q

Vaginal speculum

A

An instrument used to examine the vagina and cervix walls

Is an instrument that can be pushed apart after it is inserted into the vagina to allow examination of the cervix and the walls of the vagina.

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89
Q

Gynecologic examination

A

1) proper position of inserted speculum
2) the bimanual examination. The abdominal hand presses the pelvic organs toward the intravaginal hand.
3) rectovaginal examination. The examiners index finger is placed in the vagina and the middle finger is inserted into the rectum.

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90
Q

The gynecologic inspection consist of four parts

A

1) inspection of the external genitalia
2) the speculum examination. The vaginal walls and the cervix are inspected. Smears (Pap smear for cytologic examination) are obtained.
3) bimanual examination, assesses the location, size and mobility of the pelvic organs.
4) the rectovaginal examination is not always performed. In this examination, the posterior aspect of the genital organs and rectal tissue can be evaluated. We

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91
Q

Cyto/logy
Cytology

A

The study of cells in a pap test

Means the study of cells. Both Pap smears and endometrial biopsies are performed to detect cancer of the cervix.

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92
Q

Pap smear is an abbreviated way of saying
Papanicolaou test or smear

A

An excellent method for early detection of cervical cancer
Grading Pap smears as class I, II, III, IV, or V. Class I is normal and class V is definitely cancer

Material is collected from areas of the body that shed cells. The cells are than studied microscopically.

Pap smear may refer to collection of material from other surfaces that shed cells, but it usually refers to collection and examinations cells from the vagina and cervix.

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93
Q

Cervical cancer

A

A cancer of the uterine cervix

When the Pap smear is examined microscopically, malignant cells have a characteristic appearance that indicates cancer, sometimes before symptoms appear?

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94
Q

Dys/plasia
Dysplasia

A

In a Pap smear, an alteration in the shape, growth, or number of cells that is not a sign of cancer, but indicates a tendency of the cells to become malignant is called______________

Bad/development
Cancer of the uterus may begin with a change in the shape, grow, and number of cells called ………..
The dysplasia is not cancer, but cells of this type tend to become malignant. This abnormality, which can be detected before cancer occurs is called………..

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95
Q

Trichomonas or yeast

A

A vaginal and urethral parasite

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96
Q

Gram stain

A

Slide-staining technique that helps identify bacteria

Is slide straining technique that aids in classification and identification of bacteria, especially useful for vaginal smears if gonorrhea or chlamydial infection is suspected

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97
Q

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory
VDRL
Rapid Plasma Reagin RPR test

A

Blood test for syphilis

Are blood test to detect and monitor syphilis

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98
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropin HCG

A

Is the name of the hormone that is tested for in pregnancy test

Is present in body, fluids of pregnant, females, and blood or urine is tested to determine whether pregnancy exists.

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99
Q

Chorionic

A

Pertains to the chorion
A membrane that develops around a fertilized embryo

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100
Q

Gonadotropin

A

A hormone that is tested to ascertain pregnancy is human chorionic

Is a hormonal substance that stimulates the gonads in this case, the ovaries

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101
Q

Colposcopy

A

Using low powered microscopy to examine the vaginal mucosa and cervix

Involves the use of a low powered microscope to magnify the mucosa of the vagina and cervix

The instrument used is a colposcope

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102
Q

Cervical biopsy

A

Is removal of tissue from the cervix

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103
Q

Endometrial biopsy

A

Collection of tissue from the lining of the uterus

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104
Q

Hysteroscopy

A

Direct visualization of the uterus with a hysteroscope.

Is visual examination of the interior of the uterus with the endoscope

Is direct visual inspection of the cervical canal and uterine cavity, using an endoscope passed through the vagina

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105
Q

Hysteroscope

A

The name of the endoscope used when doing a hysteroscopy

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106
Q

Pelvic sonography

A

May be helpful in detecting masses, such as ovarian cyst.

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107
Q

Computed tomography (CT)

A

May be used to detect a tumor within the pelvis

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108
Q

Hystero/salpingo/graphy
Hysterosalpingography

A

Radiographic examination of the uterus and the uterine tubes after an injection of a radiopaque contrast medium

Is a radiologic examination of the uterus, and the uterine (or fallopian) tubes after an injection of radiopaque material into those organs. it allows evaluation of the size, shape, and position of the organs, including tumors and certain other abnormalities, as well as obstruction of the uterine tube.

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109
Q

Hysterosalpingogram

A

Is the record that is produced in hysterosalpingography

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110
Q

Laparoscopy

A

Examining the pelvic cavity after making one or more small abdominal incision

Is the examination of the abdominal cavity with that laparoscope through one or more small incisions of the abdominal wall. This surgical procedure is especially useful for inspection of the ovaries and other structures within the pelvic cavity, as well as collection of the biopsy specimens or performance of tubal legation to prevent pregnancy.

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111
Q

Uterine cannula

A

The purpose of the uterine cannula is to allow movement of the uterus during laparoscopy

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112
Q

chorion

A

Membrane that develops around the fertilized embryo

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113
Q

Pap smear

A

Collection and examination of cells from the vagina and cervix

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114
Q

Wet mounts

A

Direct microscopic examination of fluid

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115
Q

Menstrual disorders

A

Painful menstruation
Heavy or irregular flow
Spotty
Absence of or skipping periods
Premenstrual syndrome

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116
Q

a/meno/rrhea
amenorrhea

A

without/month/discharge

Absence of menstruation, such as absence of menstruation due to under development of the reproductive organs or hormonal disturbances. Amenorrhea is normal before puberty, after menopause, and during pregnancy.

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117
Q

dys/meno/rrhea
dysmenorrhea

A

Difficult or painful/month/discharge

Painful or difficult menstruation

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118
Q

meno/rrhagia
menorrhagia

A

Month/hemorrhage

Heavy or long menstrual periods

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119
Q

meno/rrhea
menorrhea

A

Month/discharge

Normal menstruation; sometimes to profuse menstruation

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120
Q

metro/rrhagia
metrorrhagia

A

Uterine tissue/hemorrhage

Uterine bleeding other than that caused by ministration; may occur as spotting or outright bleeding and is caused by cervical cancer or uterine tumors.

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121
Q

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

A

Is nervous tension, irritability, Adema, weight gain, sleep, changes, mood, swings, fatigue, headache, and painful breaths that can occur the last few days before the onset of menstruation.

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122
Q

Mittelschmerz

A

Means pain in the region of the ovary during ovulation

Means abdominal pain in the region of an ovary during ovulation. It is helpful in pinpointing the fertile period of the ovarian cycle.

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123
Q

Vagin/itis
Vaginitis

A

vagina/inflammation of

Inflammation of the vaginal tissues. This may be accompanied by itching, burning or discomfort during urination, and vaginal discharge; however, some infections are asymptomatic.

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124
Q

Vaginal infections

A

Or sometimes considered an STD, but infection can also occur after childbirth or after taking antibiotics that produce changes in the vaginal tissues that allow overgrowth of normal flora, such as C. Albicans, which can cause a yeast infection.

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125
Q

colp/itis
colpitis

A

The same as vaginitis. Inflammation or infection of the vagina.

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126
Q

vulv/itis
vulvitis

A

Inflammation of the vulva, and is associated with itching and burning. This can be caused by infection, contact with irritants, or systemic condition.
Laser therapy may be performed for persistent vulvitis.

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127
Q

vulvo/vaginitis
vulvovaginitis

A

Inflammation of the vulva and vagina. Vulvar infections can be extensions of vaginal infections.

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128
Q

vulvo/vagin/al candidiasis
vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

Is infection of the vagina involve her with C. albicans.

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129
Q

Candidiasis

A

is a fungal infection (may be a STD)

An infection caused by Candida

Means a condition caused by C. albicans

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130
Q

an/ovulation
Anovulation

A

Absence/ovulation

Failure of the ovaries to produce, mature, or release ova

Lack of ovulation

Absence of ovulation, is failure of the ovaries to produce, mature, or release ova.
It’s causes include altered ovarian function or dysfunction, side effects of medications, and stress or disease.

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131
Q

Ovarian cyst

A

Is a globular sac filled with fluid or semi solid material that develops in or on the ovary.

Benign cyst are common and may be asymptomatic, or they may cause pelvic pain and menstrual irregularities

Very large benign cyst is soft and surrounded by a thin capsule. Ovarian masses are often asymptomatic until they are large enough to cause pressure in the pelvis.

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132
Q

Ovarian carcinoma

A

The legal cause of death from reproductive cancer

The ovary is enormously enlarged by the tumor. Ovarian cancer is often far advanced when diagnosed.

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133
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

A

Is a hormonal disturbance characterized by anovulation, amenorrhea, and infertility.
It is caused by increased levels of testosterone (hormone that is secreted in large quantities in males, and smaller quantities and females), estrogen, and L H, and decreased secretion FSH.

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134
Q

Asymptomatic

A

This means a person is without symptoms

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135
Q

Ovarian cancer

A

Is the leading cause of death from reproductive cancers because the disease has usually spread it to other organs by the time it is discovered.

Sonography and CT may detect the ovarian mass, but diagnosis generally requires surgical exploration and pathological confirmation of the diagnosis .

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136
Q

oophor/algia
oophoralgia

A

ovary/pain

Ovarian pain

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137
Q

oophor/itis
oophoritis

A

ovary/inflammation

Inflammation of an ovary

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138
Q

oophoro/pathy
oophoropathy

A

ovary/disease

Any disease of an ovary

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139
Q

oophoro/salping/itis
oophorosaplingitis

A

ovary/uterine tube/inflammation

Inflammation of an ovary and a uterine tube

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140
Q

salping/itis
salpingitis

A

Uterine tube/information

Inflammation of a uterine tube

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141
Q

salpingo/cele
salpingocele

A

Uterine tube/herniation

Hernial protrusion of a uterine tube

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142
Q

Tubal pregnancy

A

Sometimes a fertilized ovum implants in a site other than within the uterine wall. The abnormal implantation site is usually in the uterine tube

The most common type of ectopic pregnancy

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143
Q

Ectopic pregnancy
It means outside the usual place

A

Fertilize egg implants outside the uterus

Is one in which a fertilized ovum implants somewhere outside the uterine cavity.
Means situated in an unusual place, away from its normal location

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144
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A

The uterine tubes are usually infected in pelvic, inflammatory disease. Without treatment, the tubes can become obstructed and cause infertility.
PID is any infection that involves the upper genital tract beyond the cervix.

Untreated gonococcal or staphylococcal infections, can spread along the endometrium to the uterus tubes and caused an acute salpingitis. If untreated or treated, it adequately, the tubes can become obstructed. PID

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145
Q

septicemia

A

Infection/blood

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146
Q

Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

A

A sudden, high fever, headache, confusion, acute renal failure, and abnormal liver function are characteristics

This acute disease is caused by a type of staphylococcus species and is most common in menstruating women who use tampons.

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147
Q

Hysteroptosis

A

Three stages of uterine prolapse
grade 1) uterus bulges into the vagina, but does not protrude through the entrance
grade 2) cervix isvisible within the vagina
grade 3) body of the uterus and cervix protrude through the vaginal orifice.

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148
Q

Uterine cancer

A

The stage of uterine cancer is identified by the extent to which it has spread to other organs

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149
Q

Hystero/pathy
Hysteropathy

A

Uterus/any disease

Any disease of the uterus

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150
Q

Hystero/ptosis
Hysteroptosis

A

Uterine/prolapse

Weakening of the ligaments causes a prolapse uterus

Prolapsed uterus can be congenital or caused by heavy physical exertion. It is classified according to its severity.

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151
Q

Uterine displacements

A

The uterus, normalize midline of the pelvis; however, some variations, called neutering displacements, occur.

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152
Q

Abnormal (forward, or backward) displacements of the uterus

A

A) anteversion-forward displacement of the body of the uterus toward the pubis, (the anterior portion of the hipbone.)with the cervix tilted.
B) retroversion-tipped backward (the opposite of anteversion)
C) anteflexion-bending forward of the uterus
D) retroflextion-bending backward of the uterus

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153
Q

Endometriosis

A

A condition in which endometrium occurs in places besides the uterus

The abnormal location of endometrial tissue is often the ovaries and less commonly other pelvic structures

Is an abnormal condition in which tissue that contains typical endometrial elements is present outside the uterus, usually within the pelvic activity.

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154
Q

myometritis

A

Inflammation of the myometrium

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155
Q

Endometritis

A

Inflammation of the endometrium and is generally produced by bacterial invasion of the endometrium.

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156
Q

Chocolate cyst

A

And period of endometriosis inside an ovary

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157
Q

Adhesion

A

Is an abnormal adherence of structures that are not normally joined

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158
Q

Formation of adhesions

A

(scar tissue that binds anatomic surfaces that normally are separate) is the body’s response to peritoneal trauma.
For example, adhesions commonly form in the abdomen, after abdominal surgery, inflammation, or injury, and may cause amenorrhea or infertility.

Adhesions are frequently seen during laparscopic procedures .
Example, scar tissue that has formed within the afternoon after repeated surgeries is a type of abdominal adhesion.

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159
Q

Leiomyoma
leio/my(o)/oma

A

Smooth/muscle/tumor

Also called uterine fibroids
is the most common benign tumor occurring within the uterus

The tumors develop from the myometrium, and stay attached by means of a pedicle. Subserosal, submucosal, and intramural leiomyomas protrude through the outer surface of the Nygren wall, protrude into the cavity of the uterus, or are contained within that you were in the wall, respectively.

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160
Q

Cervical polyps

A

Are benign lesions attached to the cervix, often by a stalk, and can sometimes be seen in a gynecological examination

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161
Q

Cervic/itis
Cervicitis

A

cervix uteri/inflammation of

Refers specifically to information of the cervix uteri. Acute cervicitis is infection of the cervix, marked by redness, bleeding on contact, a foul smelling discharge from the vagina, and often pain, itching, or burning. Acute cervicitis may be caused by several species of bacteria, chlamydia (specialized bacteria) candida albicans (yeast), Trichomonas vaginalis.

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162
Q

Chronic cervicitis

A

Persistent inflammation of the cervix

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163
Q

Leuko/rrhea
Leukorrhea

A

white/discharge

Specifically refers to a white, viscid discharge from the vagina and the uterine cavity.
Normally occurs in the adult female, and is somewhat increase before and after the menstrual period.

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164
Q

colpo/dynia
colpodynia

A

Is pain of the vagina

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165
Q

colpo/rrhagia
colporrhagia

A

Vagina/hemorrhage

Hemorrhage from the vagina

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166
Q

Vaginal fistulas

A

Are abnormal openings between the vagina and the urethra, the bladder, or the rectum

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167
Q

Urethro/vaginal fistulas
urethrovaginal fistulas

A

Occur between the urethra and the vagina

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168
Q

Rectovaginal fistulas

A

An abnormal opening between the rectum and a vagina

Is one that occurs between the rectum and the vagina

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169
Q

vesico/vagin/al fistula
vesicovaginal

A

Occurs between the urinary bladder and the vagina

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170
Q

cysto/cele
cystocele

A

Herniation of the urinary bladder through the wall of the vagina.

bladder/herniation
Protrusion of the urinary bladder through the wall of the vagina, occurs when support is weak in between the two structures.
A large cystocele can interfere with emptying the bladder.

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171
Q

recto/cele
rectocele

A

rectum/herniation
Occurs from a weakening between the vagina and rectum. Both problems are common and often asymptomatic.

A large rectocele can interfere with empty in the rectum .

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172
Q

Uterine prolapse

A

Weakening of the ligaments that hold the uterus in place

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173
Q

retroversion

A

A common uterine condition in which it is tipped backward

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174
Q

Dysmenorrhea

A

Painful menstrual flow, is caused by uterine cramping, and can usually be alleviated with aspirin or anti-inflammatory drugs, such as ibuprofen.

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175
Q

Amenorrhea

A

Can be treated by surgical and pharmaceutical means (for example, hormone replacement, and stimulation of the ovaries)

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176
Q

Menopause

A

It’s a natural termination of menstruation, and many women experienced few, if any unpleasant symptoms of hot flashes and night sweats.

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177
Q

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

A

A pharmaceutical intervention for treating the symptoms of menopause is HRT.
So how was your snapping today? Do I need to check it? What’s up OK I’m trusting you Kade all right I appreciate it.

A combination of estrogen and progesterone, is the primary intervention for women who experience the symptoms of transition, or for those at high risk of osteoporosis (abnormal loss of bone density) and deterioration of bone tissue. 

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178
Q

colpo/plasty
colpoplasty

A

Vagina/surgical repair
Surgical repair of the vagina

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179
Q

colpo/rrhaphy
colporrhaphy

A

Vagina/suture
Suture of the vagina

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180
Q

hyster/ectomy
Hysterectomy

A

Uterus/excision
Removal of the uterus; removal of the uterus through the abdominal wall is an Abdominal hysterectomy. A vaginal hysterectomy, also called a colopohysterectomy, is the removal of the uterus by way of the vagina. A laparohysterectomy is laparoscopic removal of the uterus.

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181
Q

Hystero/pexy
Hysteropexy

A

Uterus/surgical fixation
Surgical fixation of a displaced uterus

Surgical taxation of the uterus to the abdominal wall

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182
Q

oophor/ectomy
oophorectomy

A

Ovary/excision
Surgical excision of one ovary (for example, laparoscopic oophorectomy of a polycystic ovary) or both ovaries (for example, and ovarian cancer) is performed when possible. Removal of both ovaries, prohibits reproduction.

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183
Q

oophoro/hyster/ectomy
oophorohysterectomy

A

ovary/uterus/excision

Is removal of the uterus and ovaries

Surgical removal of the ovaries and uterus

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184
Q

oophoro/pexy
oophoropexy

A

Ovary/surgical fixation

Surgical fixation of an ovary

Surgical fixation to correct an overhead that has lost its normal support

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185
Q

oophoro/salping/ectomy
oophorosalpingectomy

A

Ovary/uterine tube/excision
Removal of an ovary and its uterine tube salpingo-oophorectomy

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186
Q

ovari/an cyst/ectomy
ovarian cysts tomy

A

ovary/pertaining to cyst/excision
Removal of a benign ovarian cyst, using either laparoscopy or open abdominal surgery.

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187
Q

hyster/ectomy
hysterectomy

A

Uterus/excision
Removal of ovaries, fallopian tubes, lymph nodes, and lymph channaels, as well as the uterus and cervix

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188
Q

salpingo/pexy
salpingopexy

A

Uterine tube/surgical fixation
Surgical fixation of the uterine tube

Surgical fixation of a fallopian tube

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189
Q

salpingo/rrhaphy
salpingorrhaphy

A

Uterine tube/suture
Suture of a fallopian tube

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190
Q

vagin/ectomy
vaginectomy

A

Vagina/excision
Removal of all or part of the vagina, used to treat vaginal cancer; colpectomy

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191
Q

vulv/ectomy
vulvectomy

A

Vulva/excision
Excision of the vulva, characteristically used to treat vulval cancer

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192
Q

bagging the specimen

A

Avoids contamination of the peritoneal cavity or the incision. Once the specimen is completely within the bag, the drawstring is closed.

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193
Q

Simple vulvectomy

A

Simple vulvectomy includes the removal of the skin of the labia minors, labia majora, and clitoris

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194
Q

Radical vulvectomy

A

Is excision of the labia majora, Libia minora, clitoris, surrounding tissue, and pelvic lymph nodes

195
Q

Salpingectomy

A

Removal of a fallopian tube

Is surgical removal of one or both uterine tubes and one must stay at which uterine tube is removed or if it is bilateral removal.
It is performed for removal of a tumor or cyst, or as a method of sterilization, and is included in a hysterectomy, or oophorectomy

196
Q

Tubal ligation

A

The sterilization procedure in which both fallopian tubes are constricted, severed, or crushed

Is one of several sterilization procedures, in which both uterine tubes are constricted, severed, or crushed to prevent conception.

197
Q

Patency

A

Condition of being open

198
Q

salpingostomy

A

Forming a new opening into a fallopian tube

Making a new opening into a uterine tube, may be performed also for the purpose of drainage if a uterine tube is obstructed by infection or scar tissue.

199
Q

Dilation and curettage (D&C)

A

In a D&C, the cervix is dilated, and the endometrium is scraped.

A common surgical procedure that is performed for either diagnosis or treatment
In this procedure, the cervix is dilated to allow the insertion of a curet into the uterus
The surgical procedure is done to assess disease of the uterus, to correct heavy or prolonged vaginal bleeding, to empty the uterus of residue after childbirth, and/or to remove the products of conception.

200
Q

Curet

A

It’s a surgical instrument shaped like a spoon or scoop, and is used for scraping and removal of material from the endometrium.

201
Q

Endometrial ablation

A

Destruction of the endometrium

202
Q

Adhesiolysis

A

Lysis of adhesions

Destruction of adhesions

203
Q

Cryo/therapy
cryotherapy also called
cryosurgery

A

cold/treatment

Treatment using subfreezing temperatures to destroy tissue

Treatment using cold temperatures
Is a treatment that uses a sub freezing temperature to destroy tissue. Cryosurgery and laser surgery are especially useful in the treatment of lesions of genital warts.

204
Q

Cauterization

A

To burn tissues by laser, hot metal, electricity, or another agent with the objective of destroying tissue

205
Q

Cauterize

A

Verb example
The tissue is cauterized in cauterization

206
Q

Pelvic exenteration

A

Removal of all pelvic organs, is done when other forms of therapy are ineffective in controlling the spread of cancer and no metastases have been found outside the pelvis.
This radical surgery usually involves removal of the uterus, ovaries, uterine tubes, vagina, bladder, do Reatha, and pelvic lymph nodes.

207
Q

Total abdominal hysterectomy

A

When the ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes are removed.

208
Q

Loparohysterectomy

A

Removal of the uterus through a small opening in my abdominal wall

209
Q

Laparoscope

A

Instrument to visualize the abdominal cavity

210
Q

Postmenopausal

A

Pertaining to the period of life after normal cessation of menstruation

211
Q

Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

A

Removal of both ovaries and uterine tubes
Removal of both ovaries and fallopian tubes

212
Q

Pelvic examination

A

Examination of the external and internal female genitalia

213
Q

Cystocele

A

Herniation of the urinary bladder through the wall of the vagina

214
Q

Male reproductive system

A

produces, sustains, and transports spermatozoa; introduces them into the female vagina; and produces hormones.

215
Q

testes

A

Are responsible for production of both spermatozoa and hormones.
Is the plural form of testis, which means the same as testicle

all other organs, ducts, and glands in this system transport and sustain the spermatoza, the male, sex cells, often shortened to sperm (singular, spermatozoon or sperm)

Sperm leave the testis through ducts that enter the epididymis

216
Q

male gonads

A

Testes, the primary organs of the male reproductive system.

217
Q

Prepuce

A

Foreskin, covers the glans penis

218
Q

epididymis

A

A tightly coiled comma–shaped organ, located along the superior and posterior margins of the testes.

Lying just posterior to the testis is the epididymis, where sperm are stored until they are released

219
Q

Scrotum

A

The testes and epididymides are contained in a pouch of skin that is posterior to the penis

that contains the testes and their accessory organs

220
Q

ductus deferens also called
vas deferens

A

begins at the epididymis, continues upward, and then enters the abdominopelvic cavity.
Each ductus deferens joins a duct from the seminal vesicle to form a short ejaculatory duct

is a long duct that begins at the epididymis, enters the abdominal cavity, and connects with other structures of the internal reproductive tract.

Is the duct leading from the epididymis

221
Q

ejaculatory duct

A

Passes through the prostate gland and empties into the urethra

222
Q

bulbourethral glands

A

Contribute an alkaline mucuslike fluid to the semen.

223
Q

ejaculation

A

Is expulsion of the semen from the urethra

224
Q

Penis

A

The male organ for copulation, transfers, sperm to the vagina.

225
Q

glans penis

A

Conical tip of the penis

226
Q

copulation also called coitus

A

Is sexual union between male and female, during which the penis is inserted into the vagina

227
Q

seminal vesicles

A

The prostate, seminal vesicles, and the bulbourethral glands produce fluids that contribute to the semen and are necessary for the survival of the sperm

228
Q

Semen

A

is the secretion of the male reproductive organs that is discharged from the urethra during ejaculation.

229
Q

Seminal

A

Pertaining to semen

230
Q

pen/ile
penile

A

penis/pertaining to
pertaining to the penis

231
Q

prostat/ic
prostatic

A

prostate/pertaining to
Pertaining to the prostate

232
Q

scrot/al
scrotal

A

scrotum/pertaining to
pertaining to the scrotum

233
Q

spermat/ic
spermatic

A

spermatozoa/pertaining to
Pertaining to sperm or pertaining to semen

234
Q

testicul/ar
testicular

A

testicle/pertaining to
pertaining to a testicle

235
Q

spermato/genesis
spermatogenesis

A

Production of sperm is called_______

spermatozoa/producing, or for me produced by, or in
is the production or formation of mature, functional sperm capable of participating in conception, the union of a sperm with an ovum.
The hypothalamus in the brain, the pituitary gland, and the testis produce hormones that influence spermatogenesis.

Begins at puberty and normally continues throughout life, showing a decline in later years.

236
Q

lobules

A

Testis is divided into several compartments called_______

237
Q

Seminiferous tubules

A

Each lobule contains convoluted seminiferous tubules.

Sperm are produced in these tubules

sperm are produced within

238
Q

Interstitial cells of Leydig

A

A cross-section of a seminiferous tubule shows that seminiferous tubules are surrounded by cells called____________ _____ __ ______

these cells produce a major male sex hormone, testosterone

239
Q

sperm in cross-section

A

The nucleus contains the chromosomes and is located in the head.
The tip of the head is covered by an ACROSOME, which contains enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the ovum.
The midpiece contains mitochondria that provide energy, and the tail is the typical flagellum (for movement)

240
Q

The passage of sperm from where they are produced in the testis to ejaculation in semen

A

SEMINIFEROUS Tubules of the testes
(sperm production)
EPIDIDYMIS
(Sperm storage)
Ductus deferens
Ejaculatory duct
Urethra
Ejaculation of sperm in semen

241
Q

spermatozoa

A

Singular form spermatozoon

242
Q

Testosterone

A

The major male sex hormone produced by the testicles

LH acts on interstitial cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Testosterone also brings about male secondary sex characteristics for example, enlarging of the sex organs, distribution of hair, deepening of the boys, and increased muscular development.

Often called the masculine, amazing hormone.

243
Q

Seminal fluid

A

also called semen

is a mixture of sperm cells and secretions from the accessory glands (prostate, seminal vessels, and bulbourethral glands)

244
Q

erection

A

Is the condition of swelling, rigidity, and elevation of the penis, and to a lesser degree in the clitoris of the female, caused by sexual arousal

245
Q

sperm bank

A

It’s a facility for storage of semen to be use for artificial insemination or sperm storage

246
Q

testicle

A

The structure that is responsible for sperm production

247
Q

LH luteinizing hormone

A

One of the two important hormones that stimulate sperm production are FSH and…….

248
Q

three important parts of a routine examination of the male genitalia

A

1) Inspection of the external genitalia
are examined for the dissent and size of the testicles, abnormalities of the scrotum and penis, and the presence of urethral discharge

2) palpitation for inguinal hernias
3) examination of the rectum digitally

249
Q

Urethral discharge

A

Means secretions from the urethra

250
Q

STD

A

Lesions or ulcers on the penis may indicate……..

251
Q

Genital herpes

A

Produce blisters

252
Q

first stage of syphilis

A

Chancre is a lesion that indicates that first stage of syphilis
appearance of a painless sore
The VDRL and the RPR tests are blood test to detect and monitor syphilis

253
Q

inguinal hernia

A

Palpitation me reveal an inguinal hernia, one in which a loop of intestine enters that inguinal canal, which is the passageway in the lower muscular layers of the abdomen wall. That is a common site for hernias,
sometimes feels that entire scrotal sac..

254
Q

Digital rectal examination

A

Is an assessment of the prostate gland and the rectum. The examiner inserts a lubricated, gloved finger into the rectum, and the size and consistency of the prostate are assessed.

255
Q

Testicular self examination

A

is a procedure recommended by the National Institutes of Health (NIH) for detecting, tumors, or other abnormalities of the testicles

256
Q

prostate specific antigen (PSA)

A

Blood test for prostatic cancer

is a blood test used to screen for prostate cancer and to monitor the patient’s response to treatment. Elevated PSA levels are associated with prostatic cancer.

The antigen that is a tumor marker for prostatic cancer

257
Q

Needle biopsy

A

Removal of tissue for microscopic study

A needle biopsy of the prostate is generally performed if cancer of the prostate is suspected.
In a needle biopsy, A small amount of tissue is removed, using a needle inserted from the outside. In this case the needle is inserted through the rectal mucosa to the prostate. Cytology is performed on the tissue, examining the cells microscopically for the presence of cancer cells.

258
Q

Cytology

A

Is the study of cells

259
Q

Semen analysis

A

Test of semen

The test that evaluates the number and health of spermatozoa

One of the most important aspects of a fertility study, involves measuring freshly collected, semen for volume and sperm, count, as well as motility and morphology. The sperm count is a test for male fertility in a sperm count, the number, appearance, and motility of the sperm in a collected sample of semen are examined.

260
Q

Uro/logy
Urology

A

urinary tract/the study of

Specialty for the urinary tract and male reproductive system

Is the branch of medicine that specializes in the male and female urinary tract and also includes male reproductive structures

261
Q

testicular cancer

A

Occurs most often in younger men

262
Q

Prostatic cancer

A

Is common in older men

263
Q

Torsion

A

Axial rotation of the spermatic cord is testicular
Twisting of the spermatic cord

264
Q

Balanitis

A

inflammation of the glans penis

265
Q

Siemen storage

A

It’s a special processing, freezing, and storage of spring for a sperm bank for future use

266
Q

orchi/ectomy

A

testis/excision
excision of the testis
removal of both testes results in infertility

267
Q

stem cell transplantation

A

Is sometimes used with high-dose chemotherapy. In stem cell transplantation, the patient’s stem cells are removed from the bone marrow and preserved by freezing for later transplantation

268
Q

Orchio/plasty
orchioplasty

A

testicle/surgical repair
surgical repair of a testicle

when torsion, twisting of the spermatic cord, has occurred, loss of blood supply to a testicle for more than a few hours, will result in deterioration of the testicle. Surgical correction soon after the injury is important to prevent loss of the testicle.

269
Q

orchio/tomy
orchiotomy

A

testicle/incision

means incision (and drainage) of a testicle

270
Q

Orchio/rrhaphy
orchiorrhaphy

A

testicle/suture

Means suture of a testicle

271
Q

Penile prosthesis

A

The prosthesis that is designed to treat an erectile dysfunction.

Surgical implantation to correct erectile dysfunction

One of several types of prostheses, this self-contained type consist of a pump, a cylinder filled with fluid, and a reservoir, all in one unit. The patient squeezes the pump just below the head of the penis to fill the cylinder and achieve direction. When an erection is no longer desired, the patient presses a release valve, located behind the pump.

272
Q

Erectile dysfunction

A

Drugs, such as Sildenafil (Viagra) or tadalafil (Cialis), are used to treat erectile dysfunction, particularly when the problem is inability to sustain an erection
Surgical treatment includes injections and surgical implantation of a penile prosthesis.

273
Q

prosthesis

A

Means an artificial replacement for a body part (for example, an artificial arm or leg) or a device designed to improve function (for example, a hearing aid).

274
Q

orchio/pexy
orchiopexy

A

testicle/fixation
Surgical fixation of a testicle
Is corrective surgery for cryptorchidism

Is surgical fixation of an undescended testis in the scrotum

Orchiopexy, sometimes called orchidopexy, is the attachment of the previously undescended testicle to the wall of the scrotum.

275
Q

hydrocel/ectomy
hydrocelectomy

A

Is surgical removal of a hydrocele,(a mass, usually filled with a straw-colored fluid)

276
Q

circumcision

A

Is the surgical removal of the end of the prepuce and is commonly performed on the male infant at birth.

The tightness of the prepuce in phimosis can usually be corrected by circumcision
ritual female circumcision (excision of the prepuce of the clitoris) is performed in some parts of the world and may include largely closing up the vagina with clips or stitches.

277
Q

Prostatitis

A

Inflammation of the prostate inflammation is often the result of infection and is treated with antibiotics.

278
Q

Transurethral resection prostatectomy TURP

A

Removal of small pieces of the prostate via the urethra

when the prostate gland is so enlarged (BPH) that it interferes with urination or causes frequent infection I’d transurethral resection prostatectomy may be necessary (transurethral resection of the prostate) TURP

In a TURP, small pieces of the enlarged prostate are exercised. This procedure has been replaced in selected cases by photoselective vaporization of the prostate. (Green Light PVP)

A variety of laser procedures are available, sometimes referred to as laser prostatectomy

279
Q

transurethral resection

A

Is a surgical procedure that is performed through the urethra

280
Q

obstructive BPH

A

Less invasive technologies are available for treatment,
1) transurethral microwave thermotherapy TUMT - uses microwave energy to raise the temperature of the prostatic tissue
2) transurethral needle ablation TUNA - uses low-level radio frequency energy

in both of these procedures, the heat causes necrosis and death of the pro static tissue, thus relieving the obstruction. procedures are performed through the urethra.

ablation means removal or excision of a growth on any part of the body.

281
Q

ablation

A

Means removal or excision of a growth on any part of the body

282
Q

vasectomy

A

Surgical excision of a portion of the vas deferens

Excision of a portion of the vast deferens. Bilateral vasectomy results in sterility

This elective surgical procedure is performed as a permanent method of contraception (although it sometimes can be surgically reversed). It can be performed under local anesthesia. A small incision is made in the scrotum, and a piece of the vas deferens is removed.

283
Q

treatments for prostatic carcinoma

A

Including radiation (especially radioactive seed implants), hormonal therapy, and prostatectomy.

284
Q

prostatectomy

A

is excision of all or part of the prostate gland
Surgical excision of the prostate gland

285
Q

Castration

A

surgical excision of one or both testicles (or ovaries in females), is performed most frequently to reduce the production and secretion of hormones that may stimulate the proliferation of malignant cells; it results in steriity. If a boy is castrated before puberty, male secondary sex characteristics do not develop, and he becomes an eunuch.

286
Q

vaso/tomy
vasotomy

A

vas deferns/incision
incision of the vas deferens

287
Q

vasostomy

A

creation of a new opening in the vas deferens

Is surgical formation of a new opening into the vast deferens, but the term is sometimes used as a synonym for vasotomy.

288
Q

vasovasostomy

A

Anastomosis of the ends of the severed vast deferens

Can sometimes be used to correct an obstruction or to restore the suffered ends of the vas deferens. The latter procedure is used to reverse a vasectomy.

289
Q

Chemotherapy

A

Chemical treatment for cancer

290
Q

orchiectomy

A

Surgical excision of a testicle

291
Q

Transurethral

A

Pertaining to through the urethra

292
Q

Gamete

A

Is a reproductive cell (ovum or spermatozoon)

an ovum or sperm is called.……

293
Q

Ovum (plural, ova)

A

is also called the egg which lives only a few days

294
Q

Spermatozoon singular for
spermatozoa

A

or sperm, which also live only a few days before they die after being discharged into the vagina

295
Q

ovulation

A

Is the release of an ovum from the ovary.

296
Q

fertilization
conception

A

Is the union of the sperm cell nucleus with an egg cell nucleus. This usually occurs in the uterine tube.
The fertilized ovum undergoes a series of cell divisions as it moves along the uterine tube, and then enters into the uterine cavity. About the seventh day after ovulation, the fertilized ovum attaches to the endometrium.
This is called implantation.

297
Q

Endometrium

A

Is the inner lining of the uterus

298
Q

Zygote

A

The product of fertilization is the zygote, which undergoes rapid cell divisions.
The zygote is known by different means that various stages.

299
Q

Embryo

A

it is usually at the beginning of the third week that the developing offspring is called an embryo.
It is during the embryonic stage that all the organ systems form, making this the most critical time in development. This is also when the extraembryonic membranes form.

300
Q

Embryonic

A

Refers to the embryo

301
Q

extraembryonic

A

means located outside the embryo

302
Q

extraembryonic membranes
2

A

Amnion
Chorion
These two membranes surround the embryo. The amnion and the chorion are membranes that provide protection by surrounding the embryo with amniotic fluid.
Amnionic and amniotic have the same meaning the latter is more commonly used.

303
Q

Fetus

A

The embryo is called the fetus after the eighth week

304
Q

fet/al
fetal

A

Fetus/pertaining to
Means pertaining to the fetus

305
Q

placenta

A

Formed in the embryonic stage, is a highly vascular structure that nourishes the fetus.
It secretes large amounts of progesterone, which is necessary for maintaining the uterus during pregnancy.

306
Q

progesterone

A

is the hormone that is responsible for maintaining the uterus throughout pregnancy

307
Q

afterbirth

A

Along with the placenta, the amnion, and the chorion are called afterbirth and are shed shortly after birth

308
Q

maternal blood vessels

A

Of the placenta are in close contact with the fetal blood vessels from the cord, but do not directly mix.
rather, the nutrients from the mother pass across the vessel walls into the blood of the unborn, and the ways products from the unborn pass across to the mother

309
Q

Early stages of human development

A

zygote: Begins with the fertilization of the ovum and implantation, through approximately the first two weeks

embryo: Begins about the beginning of the third week. Organ systems and extraembryonic membranes form. Lasts through approximately the eighth week.

fetus: Begins after the eighth week and lasts until birth. Major structures have been outlined in the embryo, and body structures continue to define during the fetal stage until birth.

310
Q

infertility

A

Is the condition of being unable to produce offspring.

311
Q

Infertility

A

Is the condition of not being able to produce offspring

312
Q

in vitro fertilization (IVF)

A

Is a complex series of procedures used to treat fertility or genetic problems and assist with conception. After mature ova are collected from the females ovaries and artificially fertilized by sperm in a laboratory, the fertilized, egg, or eggs are implanted in the uterus.

313
Q

ooblast

A

Is an immature ovum

314
Q

Spermatoblast

A

is an embryonic sperm

embryonic form of a sperm

Is an immature stage in the development of a mature sperm

315
Q

chorionic

A

Pertaining to the chorion

316
Q

Amniochorionic
Amniochorial

A

Pertains to two membranes, the amnion and the chorion

317
Q

implantation

A

Attachment of the fertilized ovum to the endometrium

318
Q

Contraception

A

against conception

Is birth control, which is a process or technique for preventing pregnancy

319
Q

contraceptives

A

Diminishes the likelihood of or prevent pregnancy

320
Q

postcoital contraceptive

A

It’s a pill that blocks or terminates pregnancy, and must be taken within 72 hours after unprotected intercourse

321
Q

abstinence

A

Refraining from sexual intercourse, is the only means of contraception that is 100% effective

322
Q

coitus interruptus

A

Withdrawal of the penis before ejaculation, and douching, washing out the vagina immediately after intercourse, are not recommended as contraceptives because of high failure rates

323
Q

condoms (male or female)

A

Are the only contraceptives that also offer protection from STDs?

324
Q

Contraceptive methods and their effectiveness

A

Most effective
1) subdermal implant - capsule implanted under the skin, slowly releases a hormone that blocks the release of ova, surgical implant considered permanent
2) intrauterine device - small plastic or metal device placed in the uterus, (some release hormones); more of the action is not known, but is believed to prevent fertilization or implantation
3) injectable contraceptive oral contraceptive - hormonal injection on a specific schedule prevents ovulation. “Pill” that contains hormones, usually progestin and estrogen, which prevent ovulation.
4) contraceptive patch - skin patch that releases the hormones, progestin and estrogen in the bloodstream; one patch weekly for three weeks, then one week without a patch
5) diaphragm (with spermicide) - soft rubber cup that covers the uterine cervix, designed to prevent sperm from entering the cervical canal
6) sponge (with spermicide) acts as a vaginal barrier to the sperm; also releases spermicide
7) cervical cap (with spermicide) - small cup that fits over the cervix to prevent sperm from entering the cervical canal
8) male, condom thin sheath (usually latex) worn over the penis to collect the semen, informally called rubbers.
9) female condom - thin sheath (usually latex) worn in the vagina to collect the semen
10) vaginal spermicide - foam cream or jelly that is inserted into the vagina before intercourse to destroy sperm
11) natural family planning - any of several methods of conception control that do not rely on a medicine or a physical device for effectiveness.
A) the calendar or rhythm method - natural family planning relies on determining the fertile period and practicing abstinence during unsafe days
B) basal body temperature - method determines ambulation by a drop and subsequent rise in the basal body temperature.
C) ovulation method - uses observation of changes in the cervical mucus to determine population
D) symptothermal method - incorporates ovulation and basal body temperature methods.

325
Q

Adhesiolysis

A

is destruction of adhesions often by a laser (or excision during open surgery)

326
Q

Laparoscopically

A

Sometimes called the belly button surgery

327
Q

tubal ligation is generally done laparoscopically

A

many techniques are use for tubal legation, all for the purpose of interrupting the continuity of the uterine tubes.
a method of tying off a loop of uterine tube, cutting the loop in half, and burning, using clips, or tying off the ends is sometimes done after a cesarean section when no more pregnancies are wanted.
Burning to seal the cut ends of the tube is accomplished by several meetings, including laser and cauterization.

328
Q

tubal ligation reversal

A

Often referred to as tubal anastomosis

all methods of tubal ligation should be considered permanent means of sterilization, but tubal ligation reversal may be possible, especially in younger women with no other infertility factors. The surgery may be laparoscopic or conventional surgery.

329
Q

Laparoscope

A

is an illuminated tube with an optical system. Graspers or forceps are used to grasp the uterine tubes or other tissue.

330
Q

Pregnancy

A

Is the process of growth and development of a new individual from conception, through the embryonic and fetal periods to birth.

331
Q

Parturition

A

Is the birth of the baby, childbirth

332
Q

obstetrician

A

Specializes in obstetrics, the medical specialty that is concerned with the care of the mother and fetus throughout pregnancy, childbirth, and the time immediately after childbirth.

333
Q

Nurse midwife

A

has advanced education and clinical experience in obstetric care and care of the newborn. The nurse midwife manages care of women having a normal pregnancy, labor, and childbirth. A midwife is a person who assists women in childbirth.

334
Q

gestation
prenatal period

A

Is another name for pregnancy.

The average period of gestation is about 266 days from the date of fertilization, but it is clinically considered to last 280 days from the first day of the LMP.

335
Q

pre/natal
prenatal

A

before/birth
Is that time before birth

336
Q

quickening

A

The first recognizable movements of the fetus in the uterus, occurs at about 18 to 20 weeks in a first pregnancy and slightly sooner and later pregnancies.

337
Q

Abortion

A

termination of pregnancy before the fetus is capable of survival outside the uterus
most often refers to a deliberate, interpretation of pregnancy

in the medical sense, both spontaneous loss and deliberate interpretation of pregnancy are called abortions.

338
Q

Miscarriage

A

A spontaneous or natural loss of the fetus

339
Q

trimester

A

Is one of the three periods of approximately three months into which pregnancy is divided
First trimester: time from the first day of the LMP to the end of 12 weeks (carries the greatest risk of miscarriages)
Second trimester: extends from the 12th to the 28th week. (The fetus and pregnancy are now easier to monitor. A viable offspring, one that is able to survive outside the uterus, with or without medical help, occurs at about 24 weeks.)
Third trimester: begins at the 28th week and extends to the time of delivery. (The body systems that formed earlier develop further, especially the respiratory and nervous systems.)

340
Q

Viable offspring

A

One that is able to survive outside the uterus, with or without medical help, occurs at about 24 weeks

341
Q

Page389

primi/gravida
primigravida

A

first/pregnant female
a female during her first pregnancy

A female who is pregnant for the first time

342
Q

Page 389

multi/gravida
multigravida

A

many/pregnant female
Means a female who has been pregnant more than one time

343
Q

Page 389

parous

A

is a general term that refers to having borne one or more offspring

344
Q

Page 389

Para

A

Is a term used with numerals to indicate the number of pregnancies carried to more than 20 weeks gestation, such as para III or 3, indicating three pregnancies, regardless of the number of offspring produced in a single pregnancy or the number of stillbirths after 20 weeks.

345
Q

Methods to provide an overview of a female’s obstetric history

A

Page 389
T refers to term births after 37 weeks. Gestation
P refers to premature births
A refers to abortions (includes induced abortions and miscarriages or ectopic pregnancies)
L refers to living children

346
Q

Page 389

Primi/para
Primipara also called para I

A

first/the number of pregnancies carried to more than 20 weeks gestation
which means that she has produced one viable offspring

347
Q

Page 389

multi/para
multipara

A

many/viable offspring
A woman who has delivered more than one viable offspring

348
Q

nulli/para
nullipara

A

none/woman who has given birth

a woman who has not given birth to a viable infant; para 0

349
Q

quadri/para
quadripara

A

four/woman who has given birth

A woman who has had four successful pregnancies; para 4

350
Q

secundi/para
secundipara

A

A woman who has had two children who aren’t twins

Second/woman who has given birth
a woman who has had two pregnancies that resulted in viable offspring; para 2 Bipara is less common

351
Q

tri/para
tripara

terti/para
tertipara

A

three/woman who has given birth
a woman who has had three pregnancies that resulted in viable offspring; para 3

third/woman who is giving birth

352
Q

amniorrhexia (”water breaks”)

A

Rupture of the amnion
water break—occurs before the child is born and sometimes is the mother’s first sign of impending labor

353
Q

Labor

A

The process by which the child is expelled from the uterus, is that time from the beginning of cervical dilation to the delivery of the placenta.

354
Q

Dilatation

A

a synonym for dilation

Is the condition of being dilated or stretched beyond the normal dimensions.

355
Q

Cervical dilation

A

First stage of labor

Is enlargement of the diameter of the opening of the uterine cervix in labor.

356
Q

uterine

A

Is the neck of the uterusIs the neck of the uterus?

357
Q

cervical dilatation

A

Is the dilation or stretching of the cervical opening?

358
Q

Effacement

A

The shortening and thinning of the cervix during labor

this term describes how the constrictive neck of the uterus is obliterated or effaced

when this occurs, the mucous plug that fills the cervical canal dislodges

359
Q

Labor stages 3 or sometimes for

A

1) dilatation (cervical dilatation) begins with the onset of regular uterine contractions and ends when the cervical opening is completely dilated.
2) expulsion extends from the end of the first stage until complete expulsion of the infant. during this stage, the amniotic sac ruptures, if that has not occurred already.
3) placental stage, extends from the expulsion of the child until what structure in the membranes are expelled? Placenta placenta.
4) postpartum is the hour or two after delivery, when uterine tone is established.

360
Q

Puerpera

A

Means of woman who has just given birth

361
Q

Cesarean section (birth)
CS or C-section

A

1) the uterus is entered through a transverse incision.
2)The fetal had his brought through the incision.
3) the final step involves the use of heavy sutures to close the uterus

362
Q

Apgar scoring system

A

is an elevation of a newborns physical condition, and is based on a rating of five factors (heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflects, irritability, and color) that reflect the infants ability to adjust to extrauterine life. The Apgar score ( 0 to a normal value of 2 for each factor) rapidly identifies infants will require intervention or transferred to a neonatal intensive care unit

363
Q

Partum

A

Refers to the mother

364
Q

Postpartum

A

Means after childbirth 1-2 hours
The time after birth with reference to the mother

365
Q

mammary glands

A

Prepare the breast for a pregnant female for the production of milk. The glands secrete a cloudy fluid called colostrum during the first few days, after a female gives birth.

366
Q

Colostrum

A

The mammary glands secrete a cloudy fluid during the first few days after female gives birth. This fluid serves adequately as food for the infant while milk production begins 2 to 3 days after birth.

367
Q

Chapter 12

Lactogenesis

A

The production of milk

368
Q

prenatal
antenatal

A

Both refer to the time before birth

369
Q

preterm

A

Pertains to a shorter than normal period of gestation

370
Q

Anti-partum
antepartum
ante partum

A

Means before parturition (childbirth)

Before the onset of labor

371
Q

Postnatal

A

Means the time after birth, with reference to the newborn and extends for about six weeks

372
Q

Neonate

A

Is a newborn child

373
Q

Neonatal

A

is a specific term that refers to the period covering the first 28 days after birth.

Neonatal also means pertaining to the newborn child

374
Q

neonatology

A

Is the branch of medicine that specializes in the care of the newborn, and the specialist is a neonatologist

375
Q

Expulsion

A

The second stage of labor

376
Q

para 1

A

A female who has had one successful pregnancy

377
Q

placental stage

A

The third stage of labor

378
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

A

within a few days after conception, the chorion starts producing a hormone……

HCG is present in body fluids (urine, blood) of pregnant females, and blood or urine is tested to determine whether pregnancy exist.
HCG can be detected long before other signs of pregnancy appear.
HCG is the hormone that is tested for in pregnancy test.

379
Q

gonado/tropin
gobadotropin

A

Means a substance (hormone) that stimulates the gonads

380
Q

amnio/centesis
amniocentesis

A

amnion/surgical puncture

is a surgical procedure in which a needle is passed through the abdominal and uterine walls (guided by ultrasound) to obtain a small amount of amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
The procedure is usually performed to aid in the assessment of fetal health and diagnosis of genetic defects or other abnormalities.

381
Q

Chorionic villi

A

are the tiny finger like projections of the chorion that infiltrate the endometrium and help form the placenta.

382
Q

chorionic villus sampling

A

Is sampling of these villi (placental tissue) for prenatal diagnosis of potential genetic defects, and is usually performed between the eighth and 12th weeks of pregnancy

Two types of chorionic tissue sampling 1) insertion of the needle through the mother’s abdomen and uterine walls

2) is aspiration by catheter through the cervix.
Both methods are performed using ultrasonic guidance.

383
Q

fetoscope

A

A special type of stethoscope that is used to monitor the fetal heartbeat or an endoscope for viewing the baby utero

Is a stethoscope for assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR) though the mother’s abdomen.

384
Q

Transabdominal puncture

A

Of the amniotic sac is done to remove fluid for diagnostic study after the ultrasound indicates the position of the fetus and the location of the placenta

385
Q

Electronic fetal monitor (EFM)

A

Maybe use during labor to monitor the fetal heart and record the FHR and the maternal uterine contractions. The EFM may be applied either internally or externally.

386
Q

pelvi/metry
pelvimetry

A

Pelvis/measurement

Is the measurement to estimate the size of the birth canal

measurement of the pelvis. This procedure is usually performed by the obstetrician during the first prenatal examination of a pregnant woman or may be used if problems arise during labor.
clinical pelvimetry is vaginal palpitation of specific bony landmarks and is used to estimate the size of the birth canal

387
Q

cephalo/pelvic disproportion (CPD)
cephalopelvic disproportion

A

it’s a condition in which a babies head is too large, or the mothers birth canal is too small to permit normal labor or birth. If the disproportion is too great, a cesarean delivery will be necessary.

388
Q

fetal sonography

A

is a noninvasive procedure that is used to assess structural abnormalities and monitor development of the fetus

389
Q

Four dimensional (4D) baby scan

A

Provide a video clip in are similar to 3-D scans except that they show fetal movement.

390
Q

Faulty embryonic development

A

conjoined twins (formally known as Siamese twins) are the result of ____________the severity of the condition ranges from superficial fusion to joined heads or torsos and several shared internal organs…..

391
Q

Ectopic pregnancy

A

whenever a fertilized ovum implants anywhere other than the uterus

392
Q

Tubal pregnancy (or ectopic pregnancy)

A

The all of them implants in a fallopian tube

393
Q

Extrauterine pregnancy

A

Also known as ectopic pregnancy

394
Q

pseudo/cyesis
pseudocyesis
Also called
pseudopregnancy

A

false/pregnancy

In which certain signs and symptoms, such as the absence of menstruation, suggest pregnancy.
Pseudocyesis is the presence of one or more of these signs or symptoms when conception has not occurred. The condition may be cycle, genetic, or it may be caused by a physical disorder.

395
Q

preeclampsia

A

This complication of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure

Is one of several complications of pregnancy. This condition is characterized by the onset of acute high blood pressure after the 24th week of gestation.

396
Q

Proteinuria

A

protein in the urine, and Adema may also be present.

397
Q

Eclampsia

A

Preeclampsia made progress to eclampsia, which is the greatest form of pregnancy induced high blood pressure. The latter, characterized by seizures, coma, high blood pressure, proteinuria, edema, leads to convulsions and death, if untreated.

398
Q

abruptio placentae

A

This complication or separation of the placenta from the uterine wall

Premature detachment of a placenta

this condition is a premature separation of the placenta (implanted in normal position) from the uterine wall after 20 weeks or more, or during labor, and it often result in severe hemorrhage. Fetal death results if there is complete separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, so cesarean sections are performed in severe cases.

399
Q

Placenta previa

A

Placenta covers the internal OS

Is a condition in which the placenta is implanted abnormally in the uterus, so that it impinges on or covers the internal os (opening at the upper end of the uterine cervix)

One of the most common reasons for painless, bleeding in the last trimester

400
Q

stillbirth

A

Is the birth of a fetus that died before or during delivery.

401
Q

dystocia

A

abnormal or difficult labor
it may be caused either by an obstruction or constriction of the birth passage or by an abnormal shape, size, position, or condition of the fetus

402
Q

down syndrome formerly called mongolism
Congenital condition

A

A genetic disorder that can be detected by study of the amniotic fluid

Patients with down syndrome, have an extra chromosome, usually number 21, and have moderate to severe intellectual disabilities and developmental delays.
This chromosomal aberrations, also called trisomy 21(tri- means three) , is often associated with late maternal age.
A genetic disorder, usually associated with trisomy of chromosome number 21

403
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Also called
erythroblastosis fetalis

A

which is anemia of newborns, characterized by premature destruction of red blood cells, and resulting from maternal-fetal blood group incompatibility, especially involving the Rh factor and the ABO blood groups

404
Q

Rh incompatibility

A

The hemolytic reaction occurs because the mother is Rh negative and the infant is our age positive

405
Q

erythroblast

A

is an immature form of red blood cell that is present in the blood of newborns with this type of anemia. The first pregnancy usually does not present a serious problem, and complications, and a future pregnancy can general Lee be prevented by injection of the mother shortly after delivery with RhoGAM, or a similar immune globulin.

406
Q

Eythroblastosis fetalis. Page 396

A

when hemolytic disease of the newborn is suspected, prenatal diagnosis of the disease is confirmed by high levels of bilirubin (a product of red blood cell distraction) in the amniotic fluid, which is obtained by amniocentesis. Intrauterine, transfusion or immediate exchange transfusions after birth may be necessary. Intrauterine transfusion is transfusion of the fetus, while it is still within the uterus.

407
Q

hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Another name for it is erythroblastosis

408
Q

Fetal presentation

A

Describes the part of the fetus that is touched by the examining finger through the cervix or has entered the mother’s lesser pelvis ( lower part of the pelvis) during labor.
Positions of the fetus are defined as follows.
Cephalic presentation - the top of the head, the brow, the face, or the chin presents itself at the cervical opening during labor.
Breech presentation - The buttocks, knees, or feet are present. ( occurs in approximately 3% of labors)
Shoulder presentation - one in which the long axis of the baby’s body is across the long axis of the mother’s body, and the shoulder is presented at the cervical opening, also called transverse presentation. Vaginal delivery is impossible unless the baby turns spontaneously or is turned in utero.

409
Q

Conjoined twins

A

two fetuses developed from the same ovum who are physically united at birth.

410
Q

cleft palate

A

A defect characterized by a clef (division or fissure) in the midline of the palate
Often associated with cleft lip - one or more clefs in the upper lip

Congenital anomalies

411
Q

Esophageal atresia

A

Abnormal esophagus that is not continuous with the stomach

Congenital anomalies

412
Q

Gastroschisis

A

Incomplete closure of the abdominal wall

Congenital anomalies

413
Q

respiratory distress syndrome

A

Acute lung disease occurring most often in premature babies

Congenital anomalies

414
Q

spinal bifida

A

Developmental anomaly of the vertebra

Congenital anomalies

415
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome

A

physical abnormalities that tend to appear in infants, whose mothers consumed alcohol during pregnancy

Congenital anomalies

416
Q

nevus
birthmark

A

Is a pigmented skin blemish that is usually benign

417
Q

Amniotomy

A

Is the deliberate rupture of the fetal membranes to induce labor

incision of that amnion

418
Q

Oxytocin

A

Is a hormone that is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates uterine contraction. Oxytocin (Pitocin) is also used as a drug to induce or augment uterine contractions. Other drugs, uterine, relaxants, slow, or stop labor by slowing or stopping uterine contractions.

419
Q

episiotomy

A

facilitates delivery if the vagina opening is too small. It is a surgical procedure in which an incision is made in the female perineum to enlarge the vaginal opening for delivery.

420
Q

laparotomy

A

Incision of the abdominal wall

421
Q

laparorrhaphy

A

Suture of the abdominal wall

422
Q

amniorrhexis

A

Rupture of the inner membrane surrounding the fetus

423
Q

STI sexually transmitted infections
STD sexually transmitted disease

A

Are usually caused by infectious organisms that have been passed from one person to another through, anal, oral, or vaginal intercourse. STDs were formally called venereal diseases. (VDs) , named for Venus, the Roman goddess of love.

424
Q

STDs

A

Are transmitted only by sexual contact, Some can be transmitted via body fluids (for example, AIDS via blood transfusion) and others can cause infection in other parts of the body. An example is an eye that has been infected by hands that are contaminated with organisms that cause gonorrhea. Some of the organisms that cause STDs can also be transmitted by other means, which include the following:
-blood transfusion or handling of contaminated products
-Needles or drug paraphernalia
-intrauterine (within the uterus) transmission to the fetus
-infection of the infant during childbirth

STDs start as lesions on the genital organs. A person who already has one STD can become infected with another STD. Different STDs are caused by specific types of viruses, bacteria, protozoa, fungi, and parasites. Without treatment, they can contribute to in fertility, insanity, problem pregnancies, cancer, and death.

425
Q

gono/rrhea
gonorrhea
Another name for gonorrhea
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Caused by Graham negative intercellular diplococci

genitals/discharge
is caused by a gono/coccus gonococcus (GC), a gram-negative intracellular diplococcus. Intra/cellular (intracellular) means that the bacteria are located within the cells. (in this case, white blood cells.)
gonorrhea causes a heavy urethral discharge in males, but females may be asymptomatic. The disease can usually be treated with penicillin or with another antibiotic and penicillin sensitive persons.

426
Q

gonococcus

A

The GC (gonococcus) that causes gonorrhea, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacterium. When the presence of Graham – negative intracellular diplococci is detected, a bacterial culture is generally perform to confirm that the organisms are gonococci

427
Q

syphilis
Caused by a spirochete

A

Another STD is characterized by distinct stages over a period of years.

First stage of syphilis is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, and the appearance of a painless sore called a chancre. this disease can spread to another person through sexual contact.
Don’t confuse chancre with canker, which is an ulceration of the oral mucosa

If the disease is not treated with penicillin or another antibiotic, the second stage of syphilis occurs two weeks to six months after the chancre disappears. The results of blood tests for syphilis are generally positive at this time, but should be confirmed by additional tests. The disease becomes systemic as organism spread throughout the body, and a generalized rash appears. The disease can affect many organs.
The outward sign that is characteristic of the second stage of syphilis is the rash. The second stage last two to six weeks and is followed by a fairly asymptomatic latent stage. Transmission of the disease can occur by blood transfer to another person during the latent stage.

only about 1/3 of untreated individuals progress to the third stage of syphilis, which has irreversible complications, including changes in the cardiovascular and nervous system and soft rubbery tumors, called gummas, on any part of the body.

428
Q

spirochete

A

Pages 399-400

Causes syphilis

429
Q

Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)

A

Is a blood test for syphilis

430
Q

gummas

A

soft rubbery tumors ( syphilis.) third stage

431
Q

neurosyphilis

A

This is a complication of late syphilis. Some psychotic patients in mental hospitals may have been suffering from neurosyphilis, before the problems of the third stage of syphilis were recognized.

432
Q

Christopher Columbus, fever therapy Europe the origin of syphilis intentional infection with malaria which is a disease characterized by chills and fever.

A

fever therapy was used to treat mental illness in past times. Syphilitic patients who were infected with malaria, developed high fever, and improved.

The organisms that cause syphilis, like many others, are adversely affected by high temperatures, (sometimes a rise of as little as only 1°F or 2°F)

433
Q

Congenital syphilis

A

is acquired by the fetus from the mother during pregnancy. The bacteria that causes syphilis can cross the placenta of an infected female and cause congenital syphilis.
Infants who are born with congenital syphilis may have severe physical and mental defects and die within a few weeks after birth.
An infant of an infected mother may be infected during childbirth. When the mother is known to be infected, a cesarean section is usually performed.

434
Q

Bacterial
Gonorrhea

A

Causative Organism
Neisseria gonorrhoear

435
Q

Disease
Syphilis

A

Causative Organism
Treponema palladium, a spirochete

436
Q

Disease
Clamydial Infection

A

Causative Organism
Chlamydia trachomatis

437
Q

Disease
Chancroud (nonsyphilitic venereal ulcer)

A

Causative Organism
Haemophilus ducreyi

438
Q

Disease
nonspecific genital infection

A

Causative Organism
various organisms, not all of which are bacteria

439
Q

Disease
Trichomoniasis

A

Causative Organism
Trichomonas vaginalis

440
Q

Disease
Candidiasis

A

Causative Organism
Candida albicans

441
Q

Disease
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
AIdS

A

Causative Organism
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

442
Q

Disease
Herpes genitalis (genital herpes)

A

Causative Organism
Herpes Simplex virus type 2 (HIV-2)

443
Q

Disease
Condyloma acuminatum (genital warts)

A

Causative Organism
Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

444
Q

Disease
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D

A

Causative Organism
Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
Hepatitis D virus (HDV)

445
Q

Disease
Pubic lice

A

Causative Organism
Phthirus pubis

446
Q

Chlamydiosis

A

Chlamydial infection is transmitted by intimate sexual contact and is treated with antibiotics

447
Q

Chancroid

A

Another STD caused by a bacterium, produces painful ulcers.

448
Q

Nongonococcal urethritis

A

is inflammation of the urethra by an organism other than the GC, the bacterium that causes gonorrhea.

449
Q

Genital warts

A

caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) is the only STD for which there is immunization

450
Q

Intracellular versus extracellular diplococci

A

Cocci in pairs that are located inside vs outside a cell

451
Q

Immunodeficiency

A

Makes an individual susceptible to infection, cancer, and other diseases.

452
Q

AIDS
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

A

AIDS is caused by HIV and is spread by sexual intercourse or exposure to contaminated blood, semen, milk, or other foods of infected persons. The virus has a long, incubation period, and the disease we recognize as AIDS is the late fatal stage of infection.

453
Q

opportunistic infections

A

A number of opportunistic infections are associated with AIDS. Many types of opportunistic infections, (for example, tuberculosis herpes simplex, and histoplasmosis) can occur. As well as wasting syndrome, (characterized by weight loss, associated with chronic fever and diarrhea.)

454
Q

Viral hepatitis

A

is an inflammatory condition of the liver caused by one of the hepatitis viruses, A, B, C, D, or E.
Hepatitis A and EE are not considered STDs, because transmission is generally through direct contact with contaminated food or water.

455
Q

hepatitis B

A

Is transmitted by sexual contact, blood products, and contaminated needles. Hepatitis B vaccine is available, required by various educational institutions, and recommended for healthcare workers and others at greater than usual risk.

456
Q

hepatitis C

A

Is primarily transmitted by blood products, shared needles or shared straws for inhaling cocaine. It is transmitted, less commonly by sexual intercourse. This type of hepatitis has a high likelihood of progressing to chronic hepatitis.

457
Q

hepatitis D

A

Occurs only in patients who are infected with hepatitis B. It is transmitted by sexual contact and needle sharing.

458
Q

Herpes genitalis

A

A viral infection caused by the herpes Symplex virus type 2 (HSV-2), is also known as genital herpes.

459
Q

Condyloma acuminatum

A

Is commonly called genital warts, which also describes its major characteristic. Persons who have had genital warts are at greater risk, for Jenna, told malignancy, especially cervical cancer.

Treatment to destroy the genital warts includes destruction with acid, laser, or cryotherapy (cold therapy)

460
Q

precancerous

A

Means likely to become cancerous

461
Q

cryo/therapy
cryotherapy

Treatment of tissue using cold temperature

A

cold/treatment

destruction of the lesions using very cold temperatures

462
Q

genital warts

A

Is the only STD, as well as the only cancer, for which a vaccine is available.

However, the vaccine prevents infection against the two types of HPV responsible for the majority of cervical cancer cases.

Cervical cancer is the third most common type of cancer in women worldwide.

463
Q

Trichomoniasis

A

is an infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, a protozoon.
diagnosis is by microscopic examination of fresh urethral, or vaginal secretions a
Symptoms of trichomoniasis include a frothy discharge with a bad odor in females; symptoms are minor or absent in males.

464
Q

Candidiasis

A

It’s a fungal infection, not limited to the genitals, can cause vulvovaginitis, which means inflammation of the vulva and the vagina.
The infection is usually caused by Candida albicans, a yeast-type fungus, and it sometimes occurs after administration of antibiotics for a bacterial infection, or when immunity is suppressed.

465
Q

C. albicans

A

Is also called Monilia, and the infection is sometimes called moniliasis.

466
Q

pubic lice

A

Are external parasites, and her sometimes included with STDs, because they can be transmitted by sexual contact. They are also transmitted by close contact with contaminated objects, such as linens.

they are commonly called crab lice, and are primarily infest the pubic region, but are also found in armpits, beards, eyebrows, and eyelashes.

467
Q

Alpha blockers

A

Relax, smooth muscle in the prostate to improve urinary flow

doxazosin (Cardura)
tamsulosin (Flomax)
terazosin (Hytrin)

468
Q

Antiandrogens

A

decrease significant androgen hormone levels to treat benign prosthetic hyperplasia

dutasteride (Avodart)
finasteride (Proscar)

469
Q

Antiretrovirals:

A

Treat HIV infection (subtype of antivirals)

didanosine (Videx)
efavirenz (Sustiva)
lamivudine (Epivir)
ribavirin (Virazole)
ritonavir (Norvir)
zidovudine (Retrovir)

470
Q

Aromatase Inhibitors:

A

Block conversion of androgen hormones to estrogens to treat breast or ovarian cancer

anastrozole (Arimidex)
exemestane (Aromasin)
letrozole (Femara)

471
Q

Contraceptives:

A

S: Estrogen and progestin combination (or progestin alone) hormone therapy used to prevent pregnancy

Various routes of administration: Oral, transdermal, intrauterine, vaginal, or by injection
drospirenone/ethinyl estradiol (Yaz) medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera)
norelgestromin/ethinyl estradiol (Xulane)
norethindrone (Micronor)
norgestimate/ethinyl estradiol (Ortho Tri-Cyclen)

472
Q

Estrogens

A

Female hormones used for contraception or hormone replacement therapy, usually in combination with progestins

conjugated estrogens (Premarin)
estradiol (Estrace, combination products)
estropipate (Ogen)

473
Q

Impotence Agents:

A

Increase blood flow to penis to treat erectile dysfunction

alprostadil (Caverject)
sildenafil (Viagra)
tadalafil (Cialis)

474
Q

Ovulation Stimulants:

A

Fertility drugs used to promote ovulation

bromocriptine (Parlodel)
chorionic gonadotropin (Pregnyl)
clomiphene (Clomid)
follitropin alfa (Follistim AQ)

475
Q

Oxytocics:

A

Stimulate uterine contractions to promote laboror suppress postpartum uterine bleeding; also called uterotonics

methylergonovine (Methergine)
oxytocin (Pitocin)

476
Q

Progestins:

A

Progesterone hormones used for contraception or hormone replacement therapy, usually in combination with estrogens; or to
treat menstrual disorders, endometriosis, or infertility

levonorgestrel (Mirena, combination products)
medroxyprogesterone (Provera)
norgestimate (in combination, e.g., Ortho Tri-Cyclen)

477
Q

Tocolytics:

A

Suppress uterine contractions to stop premature labor

indomethacin (Indocin)
magnesium sulfate (*no brand name)
terbutaline (Brethine)

478
Q

laparohysterectomy

A

Is laparoscopic removal of the uterus

479
Q

amnion

A

is the thin membrane that lines the chorion (fetal part of placenta) and contains the fetus and amniotic fluid

480
Q

Colpocervical

A

Means pertaining to the cervix uteri

481
Q

Orchiepididymitis

A

Involves inflammation of a testicle

482
Q

Multipara

A

A woman who has produced more than one child

483
Q

Aspermatogenesis

A

Absence of sperm production