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Neuroscience Y2S1 > Building Brains 1 > Flashcards

Building Brains 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which direction would be described as ‘rostral’ in the brain and spinal cord? (2)

A

SPINAL CORD:
Upwards - towards the beak

BRAIN:
Forwards - towards the nose

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2
Q

Which direction would be described as ‘caudal’ in the brain and spinal cord? (2)

A

SPINAL CORD:
Downwards - towards the tail

BRAIN:
Backwards - towards occipital lobe

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3
Q

What direction would be described as ‘dorsal’ in the brain and spinal cord? (2)

A

SPINAL CORD:
Towards back

BRAIN:
Towards top

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4
Q

What direction would be described as ‘ventral’ in the brain and spinal cord? (2)

A

SPINAL CORD:
Towards the front

BRAIN:
Towards the bottom

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5
Q

Name the three meninges surrounding the brain. (3)

A
  • Dura mater
  • Arachnoid mater
  • Pia mater
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6
Q

Name the three dural folds/reflections. (3)

A
  • Falx cerebri
  • Tentorium cerebelli
  • Falx cerebelli
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7
Q

Name the two layers of the dura mater. (2)

A
  • Endosteal layer
  • Meningeal layer
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8
Q

Underneath which layers of the meninges are CSF and blood vessels contained? (1)

A

Arachnoid

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9
Q

What is the purpose of arachnoid granulations? (1)

A

Allow reabsorption of CSF from subarachnoid space to dural venous sinuses.

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10
Q

Name two fluids contained in dural venous sinuses. (2)

A
  • Blood
  • CSF
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11
Q

Which meningeal layer acts to protect the brain? (1)

A

Dura mater

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12
Q

Which meningeal layer follows the contours of the brain the closest? (1)

A

Pia mater

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13
Q

Which sulcus of the brain is the deepest? (1)

A

Precentral

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14
Q

Which sulcus runs on both the outside and the inside of the brain? (1)

A

Parieto-occipital sulcus

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15
Q

Name three brain sulci that only run on the inner surface of the brain. (3)

A
  • Calcarine sulcus
  • Cingulate sulcus
  • Marginal sulcus
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16
Q

Give another name for the hindbrain. (1)

A

Rhombencephalon

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17
Q

Give the two divisions of the hindbrain, and the structures that they contain. (5)

A

Metencephalon:
- Pons
- Cerebellum

Myelencephalon:
- Medulla oblongata

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18
Q

Give another name for the midbrain. (1)

A

Mesencephalon

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19
Q

Give three structures that make up the midbrain. (3)

A
  • Tectum (colliculi)
  • Tegmentum
  • Cerebral peduncles
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20
Q

Give another name for the forebrain. (1)

A

Prosencephalon

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21
Q

Give two divisions of the forebrain and the structures that they contain. (6)

A

Diencephalon:
- Thalamus
- Hypothalamus

Telencephalon:
- Basal ganglia
- Cortex

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22
Q

Where is the thalamus located in relation to the putamen and caudate nucleus? (1)

A

The thalamus is deeper

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23
Q

Which system are the superior colliculi involved in? (1)

A

Visual

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24
Q

Which system are the inferior colliculi involved in? (1)

A

Auditory

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25
Q

Which colliculi are involved in the unconscious turning of the head in response to a visual stimulus? (1)

A

Superior

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26
Q

Which colliculi are involved in the localisation of sound? (1)

A

Inferior

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27
Q

Which part of the midbrain is involved in the main descending movement pathway? (1)

A

Cerebral peduncles

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28
Q

Name the area of the midbrain which surrounds the cerebral aqueduct.
What brain function is this area involved in? (2)

A

Periaqueductal grey
Pain

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29
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released by the substantia nigra? (1)

A

Dopamine

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30
Q

Why does the substantia nigra appear dark? (1)

A

Melanin is a by product of dopamine

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31
Q

Complete the sentence:

The ________________________ is a structure in the midbrain which appears a certain colour, and is involved in the extrapyramidal motor system. (1)

A

Red nucleus

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32
Q

Moving through the ventricular system, why does each ventricle get smaller than the last? (1)

A

To maintain pressure and flow of CSF.

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33
Q

Name (in order) the structures that CSF flows through in the brain (the ventricular system). (5)

A
  1. Lateral ventricles
  2. Interventricular foramen
  3. Third ventricle
  4. Cerebral aqueduct
  5. Fourth ventricle
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34
Q

Name the cistern which lies in close proximity to the cerebellum, where CSF is held after it has left the ventricles. (1)

A

Cisterna magna

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35
Q

Give three roles of the CSF. (3)

A
  • Assists in circulating substances
  • Provides cushioning
  • Absorbs shock
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36
Q

In relation to the meninges, where is the cisterna magna located? (1)

A

Subarachnoid space

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37
Q

Name the two arteries that feed into the circle of Willis. (2)

A

Internal carotid arteries

Vertebral arteries

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38
Q

Describe the territory of the anterior cerebral artery. (1)

A

Medial frontal lobes (and corpus callosum)

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39
Q

Which artery of the circle of Willis supplies the diencephalon? (1)

A

Posterior cerebral artery

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40
Q

Which part of the brain does the posterior inferior cerebellar artery supply? (1)

A

Posterior cerebellum

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41
Q

Which part of the brain does the anterior inferior cerebellar artery supply? (1)

A

Anterior cerebellum

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42
Q

Which part of the brain does the superior cerebellar artery supply? (1)

A

Bulk of the cerebellum

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43
Q

Describe the territory of the posterior cerebral artery. (1)

A

Medial occipital and inferior temporal lobes (and hippocampus)

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44
Q

Which branches of the circle of Willis make up the posterior circulation? (5)

A
  • Inferior posterior cerebellar artery
  • Basilar artery
  • Inferior anterior cerebellar artery
  • Superior cerebellar artery
  • Posterior cerebral artery
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45
Q

Which branches of the circle of Willis make up the anterior circulation? (2)

A
  • Anterior cerebral artery
  • Middle cerebral artery
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46
Q

Describe the territory supplied by the middle cerebral arteries. (3)

A

Lateral temporal and parietal lobes, and posterior frontal lobe

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47
Q

Name the connection between endothelial cells in the blood vessels which stop unwanted molecules getting into the brain. (1)

A

Tight junctions

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48
Q

Name four things that make up the blood-brain barrier. (4)

A
  1. Endothelial cells
  2. Basement membrane
  3. Pericytes
  4. Astrocytic end feet
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49
Q

What are the roles of pericytes in the blood brain barrier? (3)

A
  • Communicate with endothelial cells
  • Contribute to debris removal
  • Control blood flow in capillaries
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50
Q

What are the roles of astrocytes in the blood brain barrier? (2)

A
  • Stabilization
  • Contain aquaporins to allow water to enter the brain
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51
Q

Why is the cortex of the brain folded? (1)

A

To increase surface area

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52
Q

Is the cortex composed of white matter or grey matter? (1)

A

Grey matter

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53
Q

Name the two main neurones found in the cerebral cortex. (2)

A
  • Pyramidal cells
  • Granule cells
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54
Q

Are pyramidal cells or granule cells more abundant in the cortex? (1)

A

Pyramidal cells

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55
Q

Describe the relative sizes of pyramidal cells and granule cells in the cortex. (1)

A

Pyramidal cells are larger than granule cells.

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56
Q

Do pyramidal cells contain dendritic spines? (1)

A

Yes

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57
Q

Describe the granule cells found in the cerebellum (spines, neurotransmitter, excitatory or inhibitory). (3)

A
  • Smooth (no spines)
  • GABA
  • Inhibitory
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58
Q

Describe the granule cells found in the cerebral cortex (spines, neurotransmitter, excitatory or inhibitory). (3)

A
  • Spiny
  • Glutamate
  • Excitatory
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59
Q

Name three roles of astrocytes. (3)

A
  • Maintain homeostasis (sequestering K and glutamate)
  • End feet maintain BBB
  • Repair and scarring
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60
Q

What is the role of microglia? (1)

A

Resident immune cells

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61
Q

Describe the shape/function of a microglial cell during rest vs when activated. (4)

A

REST:
- Fine processes

ACTIVATED:
- Ramified
- Amoeboid
- Mobile

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62
Q

Are microglia capable of phagocytosis? (1)

A

Yes

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63
Q

What is the role of oligodendrocytes? (1)

A

Myelin

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64
Q

The cerebral cortex is made up of how many layers? (1)

A

6

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65
Q

Name the six cortical layers, from superficial to deep. (6)

A
  1. Molecular
  2. External granular
  3. External pyramidal
  4. Internal granular
  5. Internal pyramidal
  6. Multiform
66
Q

Which cortical layer contains very few cells? (1)

A

Molecular (I)

67
Q

Describe the cells making up the external granular (II) layer of the cortex. (2)

A
  • Small pyramidal cells
  • Granular cells
68
Q

Describe the cells that make up the external pyramidal (III) layer of the cortex. (2)

A
  • Small and medium pyramidal cells
  • Granular cells
69
Q

Describe the cells contained in the internal granular (IV) layer of the cortex. (2)

A
  • Mostly stellate neurones
  • Some pyramidal cells
70
Q

Describe the cells in the internal pyramidal (V) layer of the cortex. (2)

A
  • Large pyramidal cells
  • Projection neurones
71
Q

Describe the cells making up the multiform (VI) layer of cortex. (1)

A

Small, spindle-like pyramidal neurones.

72
Q

Which two layers of the cerebral cortex are most densely packed with cells? (2)

A

IV and V

73
Q

Which area is contained in the postcentral gyrus? (1)

A

Primary somatosensory area

74
Q

Which area is contained in the precentral gyrus? (1)

A

Primary motor area

75
Q

Which area is contained in the superior parietal lobe and supramarginal gyrus? (1)

A

Somatosensory association areas

76
Q

Which area is contained in the middle frontal gyrus? (1)

A

Premotor area

77
Q

Which areas are contained in the superior temporal gyrus? (2)

A

Wernicke’s area and primary auditory area

78
Q

Which area is contained in the inferior frontal gyrus? (1)

A

Broca’s area

79
Q

What is the function of cortical layer IV? (1)

A

Receives sensory information

80
Q

What is the function of cortical layers V and VI? (1)

A

Output to other parts of the brain

81
Q

Compare cortical layer IV in the motor and sensory cortices. (1)

A

Much larger in sensory cortex

82
Q

Compare cortical layers V and VI in the motor and sensory cortices. (1)

A

Much larger in motor cortex.

83
Q

What is the function of cortical layers I, II, and III? (1)

A

Integrative functions

84
Q

What is the role of the premotor area in movement? (1)

A

Organising movement

85
Q

What is the role of the prefrontal area in movement? (1)

A

Planning movement

86
Q

Describe Broca’s aphasia. (1)

A

Failure to formulate speech

87
Q

Describe Wernicke’s aphasia. (1)

A

Failure to comprehend speech

88
Q

If a patient has an aphasia but is unaware that there is a problem, which aphasia are they most likely to have? (1)

A

Wernicke’s

89
Q

If a patient has an aphasia and is aware that there is a problem, which aphasia are they most likely to have? (1)

A

Broca’s

90
Q

State the starting and ending points for the corticospinal tract. (2)

A

START - Primary motor cortex

END - Spinal cord

91
Q

Describe the extent of the exchange of information which is carried out by white matter association fibres. (1)

A

Information exchange within one hemisphere

92
Q

Describe the extent of the exchange of information which is carried out by white matter commissural fibres. (1)

A

Information exchange between hemispheres

93
Q

Describe the extent of the exchange of information which is carried out by white matter projection fibres. (1)

A

Information exchange between cortex and other regions of the brain and spinal cord

94
Q

Name four commissural fibres found within the brain. (4)

A
  • Corpus callosum
  • Fornix
  • Anterior commissure
  • Posterior commissure
95
Q

In which part of the brain is the posterior commissure located? (1)

a) thalamus
b) midbrain
c) pons

A

Midbrain

96
Q

What two structures are connected by the anterior commissure? (1)

A

Amygdalas

97
Q

What does the posterior commissure connect? (1)

A

Bilateral midbrain nuclei

98
Q

Describe the route that upper motor neurones take from the primary motor cortex to the spinal cord. (6)

A
  • Primary motor cortex (layer V)
  • Internal capsule (via corona radiata)
  • Cerebral peduncles
  • Pons
  • Medullary pyramids
  • Spinal cord
99
Q

The internal capsule runs in between which two structures of the basal ganglia? (2)

A
  • Caudate nucleus
  • Putamen
100
Q

True or false:

The corticospinal tract, which is a projection fibre, is formed of upper and lower motor neurones.

(1)

A

False - only upper motor neurones

101
Q

In which layer of the primary motor cortex do the pyramidal tracts originate? (1)

A

Layer V

102
Q

Name the two individual tracts which together make up the corticospinal tract. (2)

Hint:
Cortico……….. tract and cortico…………… tract

A
  • Corticospinal tract
  • Corticobulbar tract
103
Q

Where does the corticobulbar tract terminate and what does it innervate? (2)

A
  • Terminates in brain stem
  • Innervates head, neck, and face
104
Q

Does the corticobulbar tract innervate structures:

a) ipsilateral
b) contralateral
c) bilateral

Are there any exceptions?

(2)

A

Mostly bilateral, except CNVII and CNXII which are contralateral

105
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract terminate? (1)

A

Spinal cord

106
Q

Give the names and percentage contributions to the two divisions of the corticospinal tract. (2)

A
  • Lateral (80%)
  • Ventral (20%)
107
Q

Where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate? (1)

A

Medulla

108
Q

Where does the ventral spinal tract decussate? (1)

A

It doesn’t cross over (according to the lectures) however it crosses just before it synapses in the spinal cord.

109
Q

Which muscles does the lateral corticospinal tract innervate? (1)

A

Limb and digit muscles

110
Q

Which muscles does the ventral corticospinal tract innervate? (1)

A

Trunk muscles

111
Q

Where in the grey matter are neurones which innervate distal muscles located? (1)

A

Laterally

112
Q

Where in the grey matter are neurones which innervate proximal muscles located? (1)

A

Medially

113
Q

Where in the grey matter are neurones which innervate flexor muscles located? (1)

A

Dorsally

114
Q

Where in the grey matter are neurones which innervate extensor muscles located? (1)

A

Ventrally

115
Q

Give six symptoms of upper motor neurone lesions. (6)

A
  • Muscle weakness
  • Stiffness
  • Hypertonia
  • Exaggerated reflexes
  • Spasticity
  • Upgoing babinski
116
Q

Give four symptoms of a lower motor neurone lesion. (4)

A
  • Muscle weakness
  • Hypotonia
  • Inhibited reflexes
  • Fasciculations
117
Q

Give four types of motor neurone disease. (4)

A
  • Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
  • Primary lateral sclerosis
  • Pseudobulbar palsy
  • Progressive muscular atrophy
118
Q

Which motor neurones (upper/lower) are affected in ALS? (1)

A

Upper and lower

119
Q

Which motor neurones (upper/lower) are affected in primary lateral sclerosis? (1)

A

upper (corticospinal tract)

120
Q

Which motor neurones (upper/lower) are affected in pseudobulbar palsy? (1)

A

Upper (corticobulbar tract)

121
Q

Which motor neurones (upper/lower) are affected in progressive muscular atrophy? (1)

A

Lower

122
Q

Do the pyramidal tracts produce voluntary, involuntary movements, or both? (1)

A

Voluntary

123
Q

Which motor neurones (upper/lower) are affected in multiple sclerosis? (1)

A

Can affect either

124
Q

Give three inputs to the basal ganglia (and name their pathways). (6)

A
  • Cerebral cortex (corticostriate)
  • Thalamus (thalamostriate)
  • Brainstem (nigrostriate)
125
Q

Give three outputs of the basal ganglia. (3)

A
  • Thalamus
  • Cortex (via thalamus)
  • Brainstem
126
Q

Give two functions of the basal ganglia. (2)

A
  • Facilitate context appropriate voluntary behaviour and movement
  • Inhibit inappropriate involuntary movement
127
Q

Which nucleus of the thalamus is involved in basal ganglia circuits? (1)

A

Ventral lateral nucleus

128
Q

Which structures make up the lentiform nucleus of the basal ganglia? (2)

A
  • Putamen
  • Globus pallidus
129
Q

Which structures make up the corpus striatum of the basal ganglia? (3)

A
  • Caudate nucleus
  • Putamen
  • globus pallidus
130
Q

Which structures make up the neostriatum of the basal ganglia? (2)

A
  • Caudate nucleus
  • Putamen
131
Q

Which structures make up the paleostriatum of the basal ganglia? (2)

A

Both parts of the globus pallidus

132
Q

Which structures make up the basal ganglia? (6)

A
  • Caudate nucleus
  • Putamen
  • Globus pallidus
  • Thalamus
  • Subthalamic nucleus
  • Substantia nigra
133
Q

Name the two parts of the substantia nigra.
Which part sends out signals and which part receives signals? (4)

A

Pars compacta - sends signals
Pars reticulata - receives signals

134
Q

Describe the morphology of the neurones found in the striatum of the basal ganglia. (2)

A

Medium
Spiny
Neurones

135
Q

Describe the output and neurotransmitter of the striatum. (4)

A

Inhibitory (GABA) to globus pallidus and substantia nigra pars reticulata

136
Q

Describe the inputs to the striatum (including inhibitory/excitatory, neurotransmitter, and location). (9)

A

Substantia nigra pars compacta
Dopamine
Can be excitatory or inhibitory

Thalamus
Glutamate
Excitatory

Cerebral cortex
Glutamate
Excitatory

137
Q

Which structure is the major input to the basal ganglia? (1)

A

Striatum

138
Q

Which structure is the major output of the basal ganglia? (1)

A

Globus pallidus internal

139
Q

Describe the main neurotransmitter input and output to the globus pallidus internal. (2)

A

INPUT - GABA
OUTPUT - GABA

140
Q

Describe the main neurotransmitter input and output to the globus pallidus external. (2)

A

INPUT - GABA
OUTPUT - GABA

141
Q

Which pathway of the basal ganglia is the GPi mainly involved in? (1)

A

Direct

142
Q

Which pathway of the basal ganglia is the GPe mainly involved in? (1)

A

Indirect

143
Q

Give two neurotransmitters which form part of the communication between the striatum and the GPi. (2)

A

Substance P

Dynorphin

144
Q

Give a neurotransmitter which forms part of the communication between the striatum and the GPe. (1)

A

Enkephalin

145
Q

Describe the role and neurotransmitter associated with the substantia nigra pars compacta. (2)

A

Dopaminergic output

to striatum

146
Q

Describe three inputs into the substantia nigra pars reticulata (location and NT). (6)

A
  • Substantia nigra pars compacta (dopamine)
  • Subthalamic nucleus (glutamate)
  • Striatum (GABA)
147
Q

Describe the output of the substantia nigra pars reticulata. (2)

A

GABAergic to thalamus

148
Q

What is the role of the direct pathway of the basal ganglia? (1)

A

Initiate movement

149
Q

Describe (structures and outputs) of the direct pathway of the basal ganglia. (7)

A

Striatum - GPi/SNr - Thalamus + Cortex (and striatum)

150
Q

Describe (structures and outputs) of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia. (11)

A

Striatum - GPe - STN + GPi/SNr - Thalamus + Cortex (and striatum)

151
Q

What is the role of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia? (1)

A

Inhibits movement

152
Q

Describe the role of dopamine in the basal ganglia. (1)

A

ALWAYS facilitates movement

153
Q

What happens when dopamine from the SNc binds to D1 receptors in the striatum? (1)

A

Activates the direct pathway and facilitates movement.

154
Q

What happens when dopamine from the SNc bind to D2 receptors in the striatum? (1)

A

Inhibits the indirect pathway to facilitate movement.

155
Q

Give a sentence describing the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease. (1)

A

Death of cells in the substantia nigra pars compacta.

156
Q

How does Parkinson’s disease causes its symptoms? (4)

A

Less dopamine to bind D1 and D2 in striatum.

Less activation of direct pathway.

Less inhibition of indirect pathway.

Less movement.

157
Q

Give a sentence to describe the basic pathophysiology seen in Huntington’s disease. (1)

A

Loss of neurones in the striatum.

158
Q

Give the three stages of progression of Huntington’s disease. (3)

A
  • Psychological and cognitive disturbances
  • More movement (chorea)
  • Less movement in end stages
159
Q

What pathophysiology causes more movement and chorea in Huntington’s disease? (2)

A

Loss of D2 medium spiny neurones in striatum.

Loss of the indirect pathway which inhibits movement.

160
Q

What pathophysiology causes loss of movement in the end stages of Huntington’s disease? (2)

A

Loss of D1 medium spiny neurones in striatum.

Loss of direct pathway which usually causes movement.

161
Q

How is the body mapped in the primary motor and sensory cortices? (1)

a) Upside down with the feet near the top of the brain

b) Right way up with the head near the top of the brain

A

a) Upside down with the feet near the top of the brain

Neuroscience Y2S1 (16 decks)

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