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QA Question Base > A350 CBT > Flashcards

A350 CBT Flashcards

1
Q

You can use Keyboard and Cursor Control unit to interact…

A

With the MFD, ND, Mailbox and OIS.

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2
Q

To select and adjust information displayed on the ND, the crew can use

A

The EFIS control panel and/or the KCCU.

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3
Q

To interact with the OIS, the flight crew can use

A

The OIS keyboard or the KCCU.

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4
Q

The two navigation keys on the Cursor Control Device (CCD) are used for

A

Their onside ND and OIS, the PFDs and with the mailbox as well.

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5
Q

The KCCUs (Key and Cursor Control Units) interact with

A

Their onside ND and OIS, the MFDs and with the mailbox as well.

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6
Q

Which color-coding requires the flight crew’s awareness (and not immediate actions)

A

Amber

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7
Q

Which color-coding requires immediate actions

A

Red

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8
Q

On the shown PFD, the highlights “V” indication is the

A

Altitude Pitch limit indication to avoid tail strike (visible below 400’).

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9
Q

On the shown PFD, The red symbol represents:

A

An excessive pitch attitude.

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10
Q

On the shown PFD, You are at takeoff or go-around. In accordance with the shown PFD, the sideslip index appears in blue and

A

It refers to beta target with ENG 2 failed.

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11
Q

On the shown PFD, In accordance with speed scale indication, speed is

A

Selected. The aircraft will reach 275kt in 10s.

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12
Q

You are in high workload phase (takeoff or landing). The memos and some ECAM alerts are delayed to a more appropriate flight phase.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

The surveillance function enhances the situation awareness of the flight crew regarding

A

Weather, surrounding traffic, terrain and obstacle

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14
Q

The surveillance function includes the following systems

A

XPDR and TCAS, WXR, TAWS

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15
Q

The flight crew can select a surveillance (SURV) system manually

A

Via the pedestal SURV panel.

Via the MFD SURV STATUS & SWITCHING page.

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16
Q

To change the transponder operation mode, the flight crew can use

A

THE MFD SURV CONTROLS page. (RMP can only change transponder code).

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17
Q

In STBY mode, the flight crew will get an alert in case of potential collision of other aircrafts.

A

FALSE.

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18
Q

The flight crew can control TCAS via

A

The SURV panel and MFD SURV/CONTROLS page.

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19
Q

On the ND, the red filled square indicates

A

An intruder in the RA range, 1500ft below.

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20
Q

The radar TURB function can detect

A

Wet turbulence.

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21
Q

The TURB function is available. The NDs display areas of turbulence

A

Inmagenta.

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22
Q

The XPDR code can be set on

A

The RMP or the MFD SURV CONTROLS page.

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23
Q

In case of terrain or obstacle alert, the ND range and mode

A

Switch automatically to ARC mode, 10 nm.

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24
Q

If the flight crew does not press the WX Pb on the EFIS CP

A

The weather automatically turns on after takeoff.

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25
Q

What does the OIS switch give you when switched to EFB

A

Both A and B (The documentation equivalent to a traditional pilot briefcase / Flight operations applications)

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26
Q

Turn off the ADR 3 on the show ADIRS panel

A

ADR 3 Pb

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27
Q

Turn off the IR 1 on the show ADIRS panel

A

IR 1 Pb

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28
Q

On the A350, the time function operates in automatic mode (AUTO) mode by default. In this mode, time is provided by the GNSS.

A

TRUE.

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29
Q

On the shown VD, the yellow arrow represents

A

The radio altitude.

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30
Q

In accordance to the show panel

A

TOU VOR is tuned automatically. TBO VOR is tuned manually.

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31
Q

In accordance with the shown ND, TOU VOR is tuned manually

A

On the MFD POSITION/ NAVAID page.

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32
Q

The GLS and SLS enable to fly straight-in precision approaches with the “ILS look-alike” feature.

A

TRUE.

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33
Q

If only one ISIS is installed the ISIS can be used as Standby Flight display (SFD) but not as Standby Navigation Display (SND)

A

TRUE.

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34
Q

THE MASTER PRIM loses the best operational capability. The Slave 1 PRIM takes over and

A

The AP, FDs and A/THR (if engaged) stays engaged.

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35
Q

AP1 is engaged and an ILS approach is inserted in the FMS. You can engage the second AP

A

When APPR pb is pressed.

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36
Q

To disconnect the AP(s), Airbus recommends to press twice the sidestick pb. The first pression disconnects the AP(s). The second pression →

A

Acknowledges the disengagement and stops the warnings.

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37
Q

In accordance with the shown PFD (flashing FD)

A

FD orders are not available.

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38
Q

In accordance with the shown FMA, which FD bar(s) is/are displayed (1FD2)

A

Both FD bars.

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39
Q

In accordance with the shown FMA and AFS-CP (A/THR Blue)

A

The A/THR is armed.

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40
Q

In accordance with the shown thrust levers and FMA (MAN TOGA and A/THR Blue)

A

The A/THR is armed and you manually control the thrust.

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41
Q

On ground the FD’s automatically engage

A

The aircraft is powered up.

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42
Q

In flight, if OFF, the FD’s will automatically engage

A

If the flight crew selects go around mode with the thrust levers. Upon a TCAS resolution advisory.

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43
Q

If a normal monitored parameter goes out of its NORMAL range, but does not reach a level that trigger an alert, what would you expect the parameters indication to do

A

To pulse green on the SD page.

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44
Q

Look at the picture provided, what does the dashed line indicate in the vertical display overview box

A

Predicted FMS trajectory.

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45
Q

In flight, there is a reversion as per the pictures from NAV to HDG What will FD bars do

A

The pitch bar will flash for 10 sec.

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46
Q

At landing, if the “WINDSHEAR WARNING” (Reactive Windshear) is triggered on the PFD, the flight crew memory items are

A

THR LEVERS → TOGA, SET

AP (if engaged) → Keep ON

SRS ORDERS → FOLLOW.

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47
Q

If a flight computer detects an abnormal operation what does the FWS do…

A

Triggers the applicable alerts. Displays the associated procedures; display the applicable SD pages; provide the aircraft status and displays limitations if any.

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48
Q

The first actions of stall recovery procedure are…

A

Apply nose down pitch control and bank to wings level.

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49
Q

What is the maximum pitch attitude

A

30º

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50
Q

What is the maximum pitch attitude at low speed

A

25º (-15º down is max nose down pitch attitude)

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51
Q

All AP/FD modes may be used with or without A/THR unless specified

A

TRUE

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52
Q

Where would you expect to see the DISPCH white reminder

A

On the WD page. (reminder/memo appears in WD but the full Dispatch page appears in the SD)

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53
Q

After take off the AP must be engaged below 200ft AGL and at least 5 s after takeoff

A

FALSE.

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54
Q

What color are Reminders shown in on the Last part of the WD

A

White

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55
Q

What is the normal range of the vertical speed tape

A

+/-6000 fpm

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56
Q

The flight envelope function of the AFS, computes the normal flight envelopes, which provides what

A

Characteristics speeds / Specific Protections.

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57
Q

What kind of modes do these come under (LAND, FLARE, ROLL OUT)

A

COMMON.

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58
Q

The SD Page displays System Pages, BUT what other pages will it display

A

Cruise page, Status page and Status More page, Video page, Dispatch page.

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59
Q

What color are limitations shown in on the upper part of the WD

A

Blue

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60
Q

The A/THR is ON. In accordance with the speed-scale, if you select speed at 135kt

A

TheA/THRwillnotadjustthe speed below VLS.

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61
Q

VLS is the lowest selectable speed.

A

TRUE

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62
Q

The Alpha floor function is available in Normal Law and in Alternate Law..

A

FALSE

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63
Q

The FMS tunes the navaids automatically for the aircraft position computation and for

A

The ND display and the landing system.

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64
Q

In accordance with the shown MFD panel, what is the correct statement

A

The VOR 2 TBO and the course are selected manually. The frequency is selected by FMS.

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65
Q

The FMS Landing System (FLS) function enables to perform non-precision approaches with the help of FMS.

A

TRUE

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66
Q

The FMS Landing System (FLS) beam is virtual. It can go through terrain obstacles.

A

TRUE

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67
Q

For the CLB, CRZ and DES flight phase, does the FMS have one or two specific speed mode

A

Two → Long Range Cruise (LRC) mode and the (ECON) mode.

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68
Q

The FMS computes the Recommended Maximum Flight Level (REC MAX FL). At REC MAX FL

A

The speed is GDOT minimum and, The buffeting margin is 0.3g.

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69
Q

The yellow line on the ND shows

A

The temporary flight plan

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70
Q

The sidesticks are spring loaded to neutral. The sidesticks receive feedback from the control surfaces

A

In no case.

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71
Q

In abnormal operations, one of any PRIM or SEC is able to control the aircraft

A

TRUE.

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72
Q

An Electro-Hydrostatic Actuator (EHA) operates as

A

A back up conventional actuator.

73
Q

Hydraulic power is lost. The Electrical Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA) behaves as an Electro-Hydrostatic Actuator (EHA)..

A

TRUE

74
Q

The slats and flaps are monitored and controlled by

A

The two SFCCs.

75
Q

The Differential Flaps Setting (DFS) operates the outer flap independently from inner flaps to optimize cruise performance..

A

TRUE

76
Q

In normal law, the maximum pitch attitude protection is indicated by

A

2 pair of green horizontal bars.

77
Q

On the PFD, after the 1st engine start what symbols appear within the artificial Horizon

A

The maximum side stick deflection box and the side stick order symbols.

78
Q

In normal law, the maximum bank angle protection is indicated by

A

2 pair of green bars at 66 degrees.

79
Q

When both pilots press the SIDESTICK takeover pb

A

The last pilot pressing the pb gets the priority.

80
Q

When the F/O presses and maintains the takeover pb

A

The CAPT can reactivate his/her sidestick immediately by pressing and holding his/her takeover pb.

81
Q

When the F/O presses his/her SIDESTICK takeover pb for more than 30s and releases it

A

The CAPT’s sidestick is deactivated. To reactivate it, one of the sidesticks take over pb must be pressed. (40 seconds according to FCOM)

82
Q

Several braking modes exist on the A350. How many..

A

Normal, Alternate, Emergency, Parking Brake.

83
Q

You can use the parking brake as ultimate means of braking..

A

TRUE

84
Q

The runway-overrun warning/protection (ROW/ROP) are part of the functions related to runways.

A

TRUE

85
Q

During the rollout the ROP function computes in real time the LD taking in account current flight parameter and runway conditions selected by the crew. If a runway overrun is detected

A

The ROP function triggers the alerts. If the auto brake is active, the ROP function automatically activates maximum braking

86
Q

The A-SKID function is available in emergency braking..

A

FALSE

87
Q

In accordance with the shown PFD lower part, the landing gear is

A

In transit up.

88
Q

In accordance with the PFD lower part, the landing gear is

A

In transit down.

89
Q

The emergency braking mode uses the alternate network.

A

TRUE

90
Q

Two accumulators (one GREEN and one YELLOW) supply the alternate braking network

A

TRUE

91
Q

In normal braking mode, the wheel brakes are

A

Controlled individually.

92
Q

In alternate braking mode, with the accumulator pressure at 1700 psi

A

The same functionalities as in normal braking mode are available but powered by the accumulators only.

93
Q

In alternate braking mode, the A-SKID is available as long as the accumulator pressure is above 1600 psi..

A

TRUE

94
Q

In emergency braking mode

A

The A SKID is lost; The brake pressure is automatically limited to 1130 psi; The guaranteed number of brake pedals applications is at least 6 times.

95
Q

You can use the park brake as ultimate braking mode. The brake pressure is limited to 1600 psi to avoid tire burst.

A

FALSE

96
Q

In accordance with the shown WHEEL MORE SD page, the wheel brake

A

is released (vertical amber strips)

97
Q

In accordance with the shown WHEEL MORE SD page, the brake status indicates

A

A residual braking on one wheel.

98
Q

Where can you check the pressure applied on the left and right brakes

A

X100 PSI indicator.

99
Q

The memo AUTO BRK OFF indicates that A/BRK

A

Is deselected.

100
Q

On the WHEEL SD page, AUTO BRK indicates that the A/BRK

A

Is failed.

101
Q

A-SKID has failed. The ANTI SKID sw is set to OFF. In accordance with the shown SD extract, select the correct wheel SD page..

A

ALTN system with A SKID Amber

102
Q

At low speed, the Heading control function (HCF) compensates any crosswind effect or NWS offset..

A

TRUE

103
Q

The Yellow hydraulic system has failed. You can vacate the runway

A

With the backup steering function thanks to the conversion of the flight crew steering inputs into differential braking.

104
Q

The GREEN hydraulic system is failed. Select the good WHEEL SD page.

A

G SYS BRK ALTN and NWS is operative.

105
Q

The two BRAKES CTL systems have failed. In accordance with the shown WHEEL SD page

A

The Emergency braking mode automatically activates, without A-SKID and A/BRK.

106
Q

The avionics network is composed of

A

Two independent and redundant networks.

107
Q

Failure of a single or multiple switches on only one network

A

Has no operational effect.

108
Q

The failure of a single switch on only one network

A

Has no operational effect.

109
Q

In the case of single CRDC failure

A

There is no operational effect.

110
Q

IfallPRIMShavethesameoperationcapability,whichPRIMis the master, and in what mode do the other 2 PRIM operate in

A

Master is the first to be electrically supplied the others are slave 1 and slave 2.

111
Q

What is the Onboard Information System (OIS)

A

A system that provides software applications for flight operations, maintenance and cabin activities.

112
Q

The Fuel Tank Inerting Systems (FTIS) provides a fully automatic protection against fuel tank fire and explosion..

A

TRUE

113
Q

What is the engine feeding logic

A

The center tank pumps deliver fuel preferentially to the engines because they produce more pressure than the wing tank pumps.

114
Q

On the shown Fuel SD page, the TOTAL FU indicates

A

The total fuel used by the engines and the APU.

115
Q

On the shown Fuel SD page, ALL ENG FU indicates

A

The total fuel used by the two engines if the fuel used by the APU is not available.

116
Q

On the shown CRUISE SD page, the FU indicates the fuel used by each engine..

A

TRUE

117
Q

During a manual transfer, you can transfer manually fuel from a wing tank to the center tank.

A

TRUE

118
Q

In accordance with the shown MEMO, refueling is in progress (REFUEL PNL DOOR OPEN)

A

FALSE

119
Q

For gravity transfer from the wing tanks to the center tank, the fuel is

A

Manually transferred via the refuel gallery.

120
Q

In accordance with the shown FUEL SD page, the fuel leak detection is still operative.

A

FALSE (FOBFU) – BLOCK = 0

121
Q

In electrical emergency configuration, one main pump is available in each wing tank. But when the slats are extended, engines are fed by gravity..

A

TRUE

122
Q

The APU can get fuel from only the left and center Tanks

A

FALSE

123
Q

How many Fuel Quantity Management Systems does A350 have

A

2

124
Q

How many wing tank fuel pumps in the A350 fuel system

A

4

125
Q

Is the fuel transfer to the center tank from the wing tanks, done by pumps or gravity

A

Gravity

126
Q

How long would it take to jettison 60,000kg of fuel

A

60 minutes

127
Q

Can you jettison fuel without entering a value in the FMS FUEL and LOAD page

A

Yes.

128
Q

Fuel Jettison stops when

A

✔ A, B and C are correct

✔ (A) The gross weight reaches the Jettison final gross entered in the FMS.

✔ (B) The flight crew stops by switch off any of the two jettison pb-sw.

✔ (C) Fuel on board reduces to10.000kgs, if no jettison final gross weight was entered in the FMS Fuel & load.

129
Q

Battery, engine generator or external power can supply electrical power to APU

A

TRUE

130
Q

The APU GEN pb-sw allows to disconnect manually the APU generator from the electrical network

A

TRUE

131
Q

On the ECAM, the memo APU BLEED indicates that

A

APU provides bleed air.

132
Q

In accordance with AIR panel and the BLEED SD page, the APU bleed feeds the air conditioning system

A

TRUE.

133
Q

The APU can be shutdown from outside the aircraft with

A

The APU SHUTOFF sw on the Maintenance Nose Gear Panel, or the APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN sw on the external refuel panel.

134
Q

To start the APU, you have to press

A

The MASTER SW pb-sw and the START pb.

135
Q

To stop the APU, you have to press

A

The MASTER SW only.

136
Q

In accordance to the APU panel, the APU is

A

Ready to start.

137
Q

What causes an APU emergency shutdown without cooling period

A

APU FIRE pushbutton switch on the overhead panel; APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN sw on the external refuel panel; The APU SHUT OFF sw on the Maintenance Nose Gear Panel.

138
Q

The APU cannot supply back up electrical power throughout the whole envelope.

A

FALSE. (It can, up to 43000’)

139
Q

The different air sources of the bleed system are

A

The APU, the engines & the HP ground carts.

140
Q

The bleed air system supplies air to the Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS)

A

TRUE

141
Q

The bleed air system supplies air to

A

The engine start system, The air-conditioning system, The cabin pressurization system, The wing anti-ice, The engine anti-ice, and the fuel tank inerting system.

142
Q

The APU can supply bleed air for pressurization and air conditioning in flight, up to 22500 ft., with 2 packs running.

A

TRUE. (with SINGLE pack operation it would be up to 25000’)

143
Q

The APU can supply bleed air for engine start in flight up to 25000 ft..

A

TRUE

144
Q

What Altitude can the APU provide air conditioning up to a single pack

A

25000’ (with 2 pack operating it would be up to 22500’)

145
Q

On the A350 two HP ground sources can be connected.

A

TRUE

146
Q

In normal operation, the crossbleed valve interconnects or isolates the left and the right air systems if

A

XBLEED selector is in AUTO.

147
Q

The temperature of FWD cargo compartment is regulated with

A

Air from the cabin, the mixer unit and the trim air system.

148
Q

The temperature of the BULK cargo compartment is regulated with air form the cabin and from an electric heater..

A

TRUE

149
Q

The AFT cargo compartment is ventilated only with cabin air..

A

TRUE

150
Q

On the shown VENT panel, select the correct pb-sw to stop the recirculation fans.

A

CAB FANS

151
Q

When the DITCHING pb-sw is pressed

A

It closes all valves below the flotation line.

152
Q

According to the BLEED SD page and the ENGINE START PANEL, the correct statement is

A

The APU BLEED supplies the PACKS and the engine bleeds are closed.

153
Q

The aircraft is in flight. In accordance with the shown panels, select the correct statement.

A

✔ A bleed leak occurs.
✔ The engine 1 bleed valve is closed.
✔ The crossbleed valve automatically opens.

154
Q

The engine bleed air ensures internal engine cooling

A

TRUE

155
Q

In normal operation, the crossbleed valves interconnects or isolates the left and right air system if

A

XBLEED selector is set to AUTO

156
Q

The RAM air inlet opens when the differential pressure is lower than

A

2 PSI

157
Q

At low engine thrust which engine compressor supplies the bleed system..

A

The HP

158
Q

On takeoff the APU will provide air conditioning

A

TRUE (if APU bleed ON)

159
Q

Each engine-driven generator provides

A

AC power at variable frequency.

160
Q

When all Engine driven Generators are lost, the RAT is manually extended.

A

FALSE. (RAT extension is automatic in this case)

161
Q

On the EMER ELEC PWR PANEL, the RAT MAN ON pb

A

Extends the RAT.

162
Q

The electrical system has 2 Electrical Power Distribution Centers

A

EPDC side 1 and EPDC side 2. For each side, the emergency network is composed of 1 AC EMER 230V bus bar, 1 AC EMER 115v bus bar, 1 DC EMER 28v bus bar.

163
Q

In case of a generator overload, the Electrical Load Management Function (ELMF) automatically sheds the non- essential commercial electrical loads..

A

TRUE

164
Q

In case of a generator overload and not sufficient ELMF shedding, the Electrical Network Management Function (ENMF) sheds groups of loads..

A

TRUE

165
Q

The Electrical Network Management Function (ENMF) controls the automatic reconfiguration of the network..

A

TRUE

166
Q

The two engine-driven generators are lost on the same side. The APU GEN replaces both generators.

A

TRUE

167
Q

What NORMAL BUSBARS are NOT displayed on ELEC SD page

A

AC ETOPS 1/2 and HOT 1/2

168
Q

How many batteries connect to the electrical network.

A

4

169
Q

How many batteries provide DC28V electrical power to the aircraft

A

4

170
Q

The APU generator supplies the elec network with AC230V at a constant frequency of

A

400Hz

171
Q

What EMERGENCY bus are not displayed on ELEC SD page

A

EVAC 1/2 & EMER HOT bus 1/2

172
Q

The emergency generator supplies

A

230v.

173
Q

How is AC EMER 1 supplied with the emergency generator NOT operating

A

In that case, a static inverter (STAT INV) supplies the AC EMER 1 115v power from the BAT EMER 1

174
Q

The Transformers Rectifiers (TRs) convert

A

AC 230V into DC28V Power

175
Q

Both hydraulic systems (GREEN and YELLOW) generate and supply hydraulic power to the following components

A

Answer A, B and C are correct (Flight control surfaces, Brake accumulators re inflate, Slats and flaps)

176
Q

The A350 has two hydraulic systems (GREEN and YELLOW). The correct statement is

A

They are identical and independent. Engine driven and electrical pumps can supply each hydraulic system.

177
Q

The hydraulic power generation has two engine driven pumps per engine and

A

Each engine has one GREEN pump and one YELLOW hydraulic system.

178
Q

For redundancy purpose, flight control surfaces are powered by GREEN or YELLOW systems or by electrical backup..

A

TRUE

QA Question Base (8 decks)

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