Week 7

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT defined by the ANSI/ISA-88.01-1995 (S88) standard?
a. Hierarchical models for virtually any batch process
b. Standard terminology applicable only to batch control
c. Internally consistent set of principles
d. General and site recipe models and representation

Answer 1

b. Standard terminology applicable only to batch control

Question 2

Which of the following is the International Electrotechnical Commission’s (IEC’s)
equivalent of ANSI/ISA-88.01-1995(S88)?
a. IEC 60519-1
b. IEC 61131-1
c. IEC 61131-3
d. IEC 61512-1

Answer 2

d. IEC 61512-1

Question 3

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason a company might choose batch
control over traditional continuous process control?
a. To precisely predict material requirements
b. To control the procedure
c. To maximize productivity
d. To optimize the costs
d. A fuzzy logic controller cannot replace a PID controller unless the fuzzy
controller is linear.

Answer 3

b. To control the procedure

Question 4

Which of the following is true of ANSI/ISA-88.01-1995 (S88) standard principles?
a. Recipe information should be integral to the sequential controls for the
equipment.
b. A recipe contains all of the equipment in a process, but a process cell directs
units.
c. Control is an automated function, and manual processes should not be
included.
d. A process consists of modules that can do many non-product-specific tasks.

Answer 4

d. A process consists of modules that can do many non-product-specific tasks.

Question 5

Which of the following is true of the modules described within ANSI/ISA-88.01-1995
(S88)?
a. A unit can have multiple batches in multiple phases at one time.
b. Control modules and equipment modules are the level of detail with which the
recipe concerns itself.
c. A process cell need not have any units.
d. Each batch in a process cell may follow different paths through the equipment.

Answer 5

d. Each batch in a process cell may follow different paths through the equipment.

Question 6

Which of the following has its own phases and may be a permanent part of a unit or a
common resource temporarily attached to a unit?
a. Procedure module
b. Control module
c. Equipment module
d. Process cell

Answer 6

c. Equipment module

Question 7

Which of the following explains why ANSI/ISA-88.01-1995 (S88) treats control
modules as a separate entity?
a. A control module is inextricable from its equipment.
b. Each control module is encapsulated so it can be reused.
c. Each control module has a phase and directs a set of final control elements.
d. A control module is partitioned to prevent the phase from commanding other

Answer 7

b. Each control module is encapsulated so it can be reused.

Question 8

Regarding ANSI/ISA-88.01-1995 (S88) and ANSI/ISA-95.00.01-2000 (S95), why is a
precise definition of requirements for batch control significantly more important than
traditional functional specifications for continuous control?
a. The S88 holistic process standard supplants traditional control, which allowed
isolated control of equipment/process variables; S95 supplants traditional
make-to-stock methodology.
b. Traditional specifications allowed isolated control of equipment/process
variables, while S88 defines holistic processes and S95 links them to business
requirements.
c. Traditional specifications allowed holistic control of equipment/process
variables, while S88 defines isolated batch control and S95 links them to
business requirements.
d. The S88 standard supplants traditional control, which focused on how to make
a product; S95 focuses on what to make.

Answer 8

b. Traditional specifications allowed isolated control of equipment/process
variables, while S88 defines holistic processes and S95 links them to business
requirements.

Question 9

An engineer at plant number 5 has further modified a recipe to include the actual lots
of pigment and other chemicals to be used in paint batch 5445332. Which of the
following types is this recipe?
a. Site recipe
b. Master recipe
c. Control recipe
d. General recipe

Answer 9

c. Control recipe

Question 10

Which of the following correctly indicates the importance of the recipe and why it
provides flexibility in the manufacture of batch products?
a. The procedural control model is unified so that all of the procedure is in the
recipe and none is in the units.
b. A schedule becomes a vital part of control by directing the order of recipes that
are completely separate from the control code.
c. The control recipe is written by a control engineer to keep a recipe from risking
damage to equipment by being poorly written.
d. Control code and control recipe are inextricably linked to provide batch-specific
control at the specific plant and device level.

Answer 10

b. A schedule becomes a vital part of control by directing the order of recipes that
are completely separate from the control code.

Question 11

Which of the following places the steps of the procedure model in the correct order?
a. Procedure, unit procedure, phase, operation
b. Unit procedure, procedure, operation, phase
c. Unit procedure, procedure, phase, operation
d. Procedure, unit procedure, operation, phase

Answer 11

d. Procedure, unit procedure, operation, phase

Question 12

Which of the following correctly states the relationship between procedural control
and equipment control?
a. Procedural control is embedded in equipment control; equipment control
carries out process-oriented tasks and an equipment entity simply initiates the
tasks.
b. Procedural control is embedded in equipment control; equipment control
carries out process-oriented tasks and a recipe simply initiates the tasks.
c. Equipment control is embedded in procedural control; equipment control
carries out process-oriented tasks and a recipe simply initiates the tasks.
d. Equipment control is embedded in procedural control; procedural control
carries out equipment-oriented tasks and an equipment entity simply initiates
the tasks.

Answer 12

b. Procedural control is embedded in equipment control; equipment control
carries out process-oriented tasks and a recipe simply initiates the tasks.

Question 13

Which of the following is the MOST common place for linkage between productindependent procedures for units and product-dependent procedures in the
recipes?
a. Procedure level
b. Operation level
c. Unit procedure level
d. Phase level

Answer 13

d. Phase level

Question 14

Which of the following is the first step in designing batch automation for a plant?
a. Focusing on control loops, valves, and other equipment control specifics
b. Conducting a highly detailed study of required functionality and business
requirements
c. Setting procedures, unit procedures, and operations for the entire plant
d. Completing a broad overview of required functionality and business
requirements

Answer 14

b. Conducting a highly detailed study of required functionality and business
requirements

Question 15

Preferring to err on the side of safety, engineers at a plant have set aggressive
alarm trip points and configured a high percentage of alarms as high priority. This
scenario is MOST likely to lead to excessive levels of
a. stale alarms.
b. nuisance alarms.
c. alarm clarity problems.
d. alarm floods.

Answer 15

b. nuisance alarms.

Question 16

Which statement BEST describes a key difference between availability and
reliability?
a. Availability metrics help control user risks associated with unit failure; reliability
metrics help to identify the risks.
b. Availability is based on failure rates and repair rates; reliability is based on
failure rates and operating time interval.
c. Availability can be directly derived from probability theory; reliability is a
function of the random variable time to fail (T).
d. Availability is a probability that a unit is ready for use at a stated instant;
reliability is an average over a long operating time interval.

Answer 16

b. Availability is based on failure rates and repair rates; reliability is based on
failure rates and operating time interval.

Question 17

Which of the following is NOT included in alarm philosophy documentation?
a. Change management processes
b. Individual alarm specifications
c. Operator training requirements prior to installation
d. Rationalization principles and procedures

Answer 17

b. Individual alarm specifications

Question 18

Alarms that remain in the alarm state when no operator action is required BEST
describes
a. stale alarms.
b. alarm clarity problems.
c. alarm floods.
d. nuisance alarms.

Answer 18

a. stale alarms.

Question 19

Examining an individual alarm against the principles and criteria specified in an
alarm philosophy results in
a. baseline performance limits.
b. basic control system information.
c. distinct monitoring limits to trigger action.
d. documented design principles.

Answer 19

b. basic control system information.

Question 20

Too many alarms configured for a given event have generated excessive,
unnecessary, and confusing alarm events. What steps should be taken to correct
this situation?
a. Monitoring, rationalization, and surveying techniques
b. Monitoring and advanced alarming techniques
c. Rationalization and advanced alarming techniques
d. Monitoring, rationalization, and advanced alarming techniques

Answer 20

d. Monitoring, rationalization, and advanced alarming techniques

Question 21

Under which condition can a system with a low reliability potentially have a high
availability?
a. When there is low mean time to restore (MTTR)
b. When there is a low mean time to failure (MTTF)
c. When failures are discovered and repaired during periodic inspection
d. When the restore rate is a constant

Answer 21

a. When there is low mean time to restore (MTTR)

Question 22

Which of the following information is required to train operators on how to respond
to an alarm?
a. Record retention period, reporting requirements, and notification requirements
b. Consequences, corrective action, response time, consequence category, and
basis
c. Alarm priority, corrective action, and response time
d. Engineering units for an analog type/discrete states for a digital type

Answer 22

b. Consequences, corrective action, response time, consequence category, and
basis

Question 23

Which statement BEST describes the purpose of an alarm management system?
a. Prioritizing alarms to indicate degree of importance or rank for operator actions
b. Designing alarms and specifying what to alarm, alarm actions, and how
operators will interact with the alarms
c. Measuring alarm rate and resolving any chronic problems such as nuisance
alarms, stale alarms, and alarm floods
d. Ensuring that alarms are presented at a rate that can be assimilated and
appropriately resolved by a human operator

Answer 23

d. Ensuring that alarms are presented at a rate that can be assimilated and
appropriately resolved by a human operator

Question 24

Which of the following alarm-based information will an operator learn from HMI
design guidance documentation?
a. Default settings for alarm deadbands
b. Alarm functions such as priority definitions, color codes, and tones
c. Methods for handling alarms on bad signal values
d. Techniques to reduce the alarm load

Answer 24

b. Alarm functions such as priority definitions, color codes, and tones

Question 25

The key difference between an alarm system and a safety system is
a. Advanced alarm techniques can reduce alarm system failures; operator
training is necessary to reduce erroneous safety system warnings.
b. Operator training is required to correct alarm system failures; training will have
no effect on erroneous safety system warnings.
c. The alarm function always requires operator intervention; the safety function
never requires operator intervention.
d. The alarm function always requires operator intervention; the safety function
almost always functions without the operator.

Answer 25

d. The alarm function always requires operator intervention; the safety function
almost always functions without the operator.

Question 26

Which of the following statements is correct?
a. MTBF formulas include MTTR (mean time to restore) in their calculation;
MTBF is used for both nonrepairable and repairable units.
b. MTBF formulas exclude wearout failures; MTTF formulas include allowances
for wearout failures during a unit’s useful life.
c. MTBF formulas exclude end-of-life failures; MTTF includes end-of-life failures
in most calculations.
d. MTTF indicates a unit’s guaranteed minimum life; MTBF indicates reliability
during a unit’s useful life.

Answer 26

a. MTBF formulas include MTTR (mean time to restore) in their calculation;
MTBF is used for both nonrepairable and repairable units.

Question 27

Which type of design guidance documentation explains the use of condition-based
logic that an alarm should not occur when the base alarm condition is present?
a. Current good manufacturing practices (cGMP)
b. Guidance on basic configuration practices
c. HMI design guidance documentation
d. Advanced techniques for managing alarms

Answer 27

d. Advanced techniques for managing alarms

Question 28

Why is defining satisfactory performance important in predicting system reliability?
a. To help identify and control risks resulting from failures
b. To differentiate satisfactory performance from failure
c. To help collect satisfactory performance and failure data from the field
d. To ensure that the system will be ready for use when required

Answer 28

b. To differentiate satisfactory performance from failure

Question 29

During the 10 minutes following a major plant upset, a system displays 110 alarms.
According to guidance metrics set forth in Engineering Equipment and Materials
Users Association (EEMUA) Publication 191, this alarm rate is typically classified as
a. a nuisance.
b. hard to cope with.
c. manageable.
d. definitely excessive.

Answer 29

d. definitely excessive.

Question 30

Which of the following statements BEST describes operating time interval within the
context of reliability for a newly manufactured and successfully tested component?
a. Reliability is a function of the operating time interval.
b. As the operating time interval increases, reliability will plateau and then
increase.
c. Reliability will remain constant if a standby subsystem is ready to operate if the
primary component fails.
d. The accumulated age of the component will not affect reliability.

Answer 30

a. Reliability is a function of the operating time interval.

Question 31

During a 30-minute period of steady operation, a system generates six alarms, total.
The alarms occur at roughly five-minute intervals. According to guidance metrics
set forth in Engineering Equipment and Materials Users
Association (EEMUA) Publication 191, the alarm rate is
a. over-demanding.
b. excessive.
c. manageable.
d. unacceptable.

Answer 31

c. manageable.

Question 32

Which of the following activities is NOT included in calculating the mean time to
restore (MTTR)?
a. Locating the cause of a failure
b. Documenting activities from diagnosis through restoration
c. Periodic inspections
d. Delays in waiting for spare parts

Answer 32

c. Periodic inspections

Question 33

The frequency metric of an alarm by tag is typically defined in
a. current good manufacturing practices (cGMP).
b. the alarm philosophy.
c. Engineering Equipment and Materials Users Association (EEMUA) Publication
191.
d. the HMI design.

Answer 33

b. the alarm philosophy.

Question 34

Mean time between failure (MTBF) includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. periodic part replacement.
b. time to detect a failure.
c. actual repair time.
d. time to failure.

Answer 34

a. periodic part replacement.