Terminology 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is it called when a switch receives frames with the same source MAC address on different interfaces and therefore fails to forward them?

A

Thrashing the MAC table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is distributed switching?

A

When a virtual switch resides on more than one host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 5 states (in order) that STP transitions through?

A

Blocking
Listening
Learning
Forwarding
Disabled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What ports do switches send BDPUs out of?

A

All ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

BPDU

A

Bridge Protocol Data Units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In STP, what does a port in blocking state do?

A

Listen to BPDUs and drop all other frames.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What state are ports in when a switch running STP is powered up?

A

Blocking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In STP, what does a port in listening state do?

A

Listens to BPDUs checking for loops, it does not update the MAC address table.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In STP, what does a port in learning state do?

A

Listens to BPDUs, it also populates the MAC address table, but does not forward data frames.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the default delay before a port in listening state transitions to learning state?

A

15s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In STP, what two types of ports enter a forwarding state?

A

Root and designated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens to host data while STP is converging?

A

It stops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the typical STP convergence time?

A

50s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the RSTP typical convergence time?

A

5s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 5 problems that can affect data, and that QoS seeks to mitigate?

A
  1. Delay
  2. Dropped packets
  3. Error
  4. Jitter
  5. Out of order delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

VMPS

A

VLAN Management Policy Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many VLANs can an access port belong to?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many VLANs can a trunk port belong to?

A

All (1 to 4094)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DTP

A

Dynamic Trunking Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In what circumstance can an access port be assigned to a second VLAN?

A

When one is a Voice VLAN, a voice access port can be assigned as well as a data access port.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why would you use a trunk port for a server rather than an access port?

A

Because then the server can provide services to multiple VLANs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does ISL work?

A

It adds a header and CRC to a frame which contains VLAN information when sending it out on a trunk port.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does 802.1Q work?

A

It inserts an 802.1Q field along with tag information into a frame.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How big is the 802.1Q field and where is it inserted in a frame?

A

After the source address,
Length 2 bytes
3 bits - user priority filed
1 bit canonical information
12 bits - VLAN identifier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

VTP

A

VLAN Trunking Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the main requirement for a switch to be able to share VTP information with other switches?

A

They must be in the same VTP domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What ports are used to send VTP information?

A

Trunk ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is used in VTP updates to determine whether a switch needs to overwrite its existing VLAN database?

A

Revision numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 3 requirements for VTP to communicate VLAN information?

A
  1. The VTP management domain of both switches must be the same.
  2. One of the switches has to be configured as a VTP server
  3. If used, a password has to be set
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the three modes of VTP operation?

A

Server
Client
Transparent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What VTP mode is required to add, delete, and create VLANS in a VTP domain?

A

Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where are VLAN configurations saved when a switch is in server mode?

A

NVRAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do switches in transparent mode do?

A

They don’t participate in the VTP domain, or share its database, but they do forward any VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the purpose of transparent mode?

A

To allow remote switches to receive the VLAN database from a VTP server through a switch that is not participating in the VLAN assignments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

On a switch, what is port security?

A

Only allowing (a) certain MAC address(es) to access the port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

On a switch, what is DHCP snooping?

A

Only allowing the servers on defined ports to respond to DHCP requests it also builds a bindings table (IP to MAC address)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

On a switch, what is ARP Inspection?

A

Verification of MAC address to IP mappings of each frame (and dropping frames with altered mappings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DAI

A

Dynamic ARP Inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the prerequisite for DAI?

A

DHCP Snooping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

On a switch, what is Flood Guard?

A

Preventing an attacker from filling up the CAM on a switch with invalid MAC addresses (so that valid traffic is sent out all ports instead of just its designated port)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What two methods does Flood Guard use?

A

UUFB - Unknown unicast flood blocking
UUFRL - Unknown unicast flood rate limiting

42
Q

What does UUFB do?

A

Prevents unknown unicast and multicast traffic flooding at a specific port

43
Q

What does UUFRL do?

A

Applies a rate limit globally to unknown unicast traffic on all VLANs

44
Q

What does BPDU guard do?

A

Shuts down a port when a BPDU is received.

45
Q

Which ports should have BPDU guard enabled?

A

All ports that are not connected to known switches (usually all access ports)

46
Q

What does Root Guard do, and where is it applied?

A

It is applied to all ports on the root bridge and prevents these ports from becoming root ports

47
Q

PAgP

A

Port Aggregation Protocol (Cisco) - port bonding

48
Q

LACP

A

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (IEEE 802.3ad) - port bonding

49
Q

Port Channeling

A

Port Bonding

50
Q

EtherChannel

A

Cisco proprietary port channeling

51
Q

What are two other names for Port Mirroring?

A

SPAN and RSPAN ( Remote SPAN)

52
Q

SPAN

A

Switch Port Analyser

53
Q

RSPAN

A

Remote Switch Port Analyser

54
Q

What are the three unlicensed wifi bands released for public use by the FCC?

A

900 MHz
2.4 GHz
5 GHz

55
Q

ISM

A

Industrial, Scientific, Medical

56
Q

What are the frequencies in the ISM band?

A

900 MHz and 2.4 GHz

57
Q

U-NII

A

UnLicensed National Information Infrastructure

58
Q

GSM

A

Global System Mobile

59
Q

SIM

A

Subscriber Identity Module

60
Q

What does GSM require?

A

A SIM chip

61
Q

FDMA

A

Frequency Division Multiple Access

62
Q

What generation cell technology used FDMA?

A

1G

63
Q

TDMA

A

Time Division Multiple Access

64
Q

CDMA

A

Code Division Multiple Access

65
Q

What does CDMA do?

A

Assigns a code to each call and spreads data across the spectrum

65
Q

When was 3G deployed?

A

1990

66
Q

When was 4G deployed?

A

2000

67
Q

When was 5G deployed?

A

2014

68
Q

What is the bandwidth of 3G?

A

2 Mbps

69
Q

What is the bandwidth of 4G?

A

200 to 1000 Mbps

70
Q

What is the bandwidth of 5G?

A

1 to 10 Gbps

71
Q

What are the standards used with 3G?

A

WCDMA, CDMA-2000

72
Q

What are the standards used with 4G?

A

CDMA, LTE, WiMAX

73
Q

What are the standards used with 5G?

A

OFDM, MIMO, nm Waves

74
Q

What is the technology used with 3G?

A

CDMA/IP

75
Q

What is the technology used with 4G?

A

Unified IP, LAN/WAN

76
Q

What is the technology used with 5G?

A

Unified IP, LAN/WAN

77
Q

What band does 802.11b use?

A

2.4 GHz

78
Q

What is the maximum data rate of 802.11b?

A

11 Mbps

79
Q

What band does 802.11g use?

A

2.4 GHz

80
Q

What is the maximum data rate of 802.11g?

A

54 Mbps

81
Q

Is 802.11g backward compatible with 802.11b?

A

Yes

82
Q

What happens if you use one 802.11b card on an 802.11g network?

A

Everyone on the network will be forced to run 802.11b modulation.

83
Q

What modulation technique is employed by 802.11b?

A

DSSS

84
Q

What modulation technique is employed by 802.11g?

A

OFDM

85
Q

Roughly what percentage of WIFI’s bandwidth is used for the management of the network itself?

A

70%

86
Q

What is ‘goodput’?

A

The actual data throughput

87
Q

What are the bounds of the 2.4 GHz frequency band?

A

2.402 to 2.483

88
Q

How many 2.4 GHz channels are possible?

A

14

89
Q

How many 2.4 GHz channels are used in the US?

A

11

90
Q

What band does 802.11a use?

A

5 GHz

91
Q

What is the maximum data rate of 802.11a?

A

54 Mbps

92
Q

How many non-overlapping channels did 802.11a have?

A

12

93
Q

With WIFI, what is data-rate shifting?

A

Negotiating a lower data rate to compensate for an increased distance

94
Q

What band does 802.11h use?

A

5 GHz

95
Q

What standard is 802.11h an extension of?

A

802.11a

96
Q

How many non-overlapping channels does 802.11h provide for?

A

23

97
Q

What 2 features does 802.11h add?

A

DFS - Dynamic Frequency Selection
TPC - Transmit Power Control

98
Q

What does DFS do?

A

Scan the operating range for radar signals, if it finds them it either abandons the affected channel or marks it as unavailable

99
Q

What does TPC do?

A

Allows you to set the transmit power to cover various size ranges.