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Pance Prep Pearls > Infectious Pathology > Flashcards

Infectious Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Drug class most commonly associated with hypersensitivtiy reactions

A

PCNs

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2
Q

Should cephalosporins be used in a patient with ANAPHYLACTIC reaction to PCNs?

A

No

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3
Q

Aztreonam definition

A

IV beta lactam antibiotic that is primarily gram negative aerobes only including pseudomonas and enterobacteriae, used most often in patients with PCN allergies, renal insufficiency, those who cannot tolerate aminoglycosides

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4
Q

Polymyxin definition

A

Most often used topical for infections of eye, ear, and skin, may be part of triple therapy ointment with neomycin and bacitracin

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5
Q

Vancomycin spectrum and adverse effects

A

Gram positive only including MRSA (IV) and C diff colitis (oral route), adverse effects include red man syndrome (flushing and pruritis due to histamine release), ototoxicity, and nephrotoxicity

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6
Q

Drug of choice for lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Doxycycline (doxy is drug of choice for all chlamydia)

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7
Q

Drug of choice for mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Azithromycin or doxycycline

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8
Q

Drug of choice for cholera

A

Doxycycline

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9
Q

Drug of choice for cat scratch fever

A

Azithromycin first line, doxycycline

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10
Q

Adverse reactions to macrolides

A

GI upset, ototoxicity, prolonged QT interval

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11
Q

Clindamycin adverse effect

A

C diff colitis

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12
Q

Drug of choice for rocky mountain spotted fever during pregnancy

A

Chloramphenicol (yeah I know, despite the whole gray baby thing…)

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13
Q

Drug that can be used to treat MRSA and VRE

A

Linezolid

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14
Q

C diff treatment

A

Metronidazole

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15
Q

Things that metronidazole treats

A

C diff, BV, giardia, trich, h pylori, added to PID sometimes

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16
Q

Quinupristin/dalfopristin function

A

MRSA, VRSA, VRE coverage, given IV

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17
Q

Tetanus management

A

Metronidazole plus IM Tetanus immune globulin, benzos to reduce spasms and respiroatry support if needed

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18
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis if previously vaccinated vs never vaccinated

A

Previously vaccinated: Tdap (preferred) or Td booster every 10 years or major or dirty wounds occuring >5 years since last booster
Never vacicnated: tetanus immune globulin plus initiation of tetanus toxoid vaccine, 2nd dose 4-8 weeks laer and a 3rd 6-12 months later

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19
Q

Tdap booster schedule

A

At 11-12 years of age, given 10 year intervals after that or sooner if major injury and booster was 5 years ago or longer, recommended once during every pregnancy

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20
Q

Clostridium perfringens management

A

Surgical debridement plus antibiotics IV penicillin plus clindamycin

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21
Q

Management of foodborne botulism vs wound botulism

A

Antitoxin first line therapy in foodborne with no antibiotics or if infantile, if wound based then antitoxin plus penicillin

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22
Q

Diphtheria management

A

Antitoxin plus either erythromycin or PCN

23
Q

Gonococcal arthritis first line treatment vs urethritis and cervicitis

A

IV ceftriaxone, ceftriaxone 250 im plus either doxy or azithro

24
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum vs chancroid presentation

A

Lymphogranuloma is PAINLESS at site of inoculation followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes), chancroid is caused by hemophilus ducreyi and is painful genital ulcer followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes)

25
Q

Severe invasive or life threatening candida infection treatment (ex - endocarditis)

A

Iv amphotericin B

26
Q

Most common cause of fungal meningitis

A

Cryptococcosis, from bird or pigeon droppings and most common in immunocompromised HIV patients with CD4 <100

27
Q

Histoplasmosis vs coccidiomycosis

A

Found in soil containing bird and bat feces in mississippi and ohio river valleys, aids defining illness and most patients are asymptomatic otherwise

Found in southwestern US from inhalation of spores, causes mild flu illness or valley fever

28
Q

MAC definition

A

Spread from water to soil and seen in immunocompromised patients or those with underlying pulmonary disease, treated with clarithromycin plus ethambutol plus rifampin (REC)

29
Q

Pinworm Enterobiasis treatment

A

Mebendazole, pyrantel preferred in pregnancy

30
Q

Ascariasis diagnosis and treatment

A

Stool ova and parasite, mebendazole or pyrantel preferred in pregnancy

31
Q

Trichonosis diagnosis and treatmnet

A

Eosinophilia, elevated creatinine kinase, managed with mebendazole

32
Q

Hookworm (Necator americanus) diagnosis and treatment

A

Eosinophilia, iron deficiency anemia, mebendazle or pyrantel preferred in pregnancy

33
Q

Malaria first line treatment

A

Chloroquine, hydroxychloroquine is alternative

34
Q

Malaria treatment in chloroquine resistant regions

A

Artemisnin or atovaquone proguanil

35
Q

Babesiosis management

A

Atovaquone plus azithromycin

36
Q

Toxoplasmosis definiton

A

Infection by toxoplasma gondii, most common cns infection in patients with AIDS not on medication, obtained from soil or cat litter, see enchpalitis especially when CD4 <100, diagnosed clinically but neuroimaging may show nonspecific multiple ring ehancing lesions (also seen in CNS lymphoma), managed with sulfadiazine, bactrim is first line prophylaxis

37
Q

Chancroid treatment

A

azithromycin

38
Q

2ndary and 3iary syphilis presentation

A

2nday may occur few weeks to 6 months after initial symptoms, maculopapular diffuse bilateral rash involving palsm and soles common, condyloma lata involving mucus membranes or other moist areas present, and some systemic symtpoms

3iary may occur 1-20 years later after latent infection and is either gummatous granulomas, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis leading to ataxia, areflexia, burning pain, weakness), argyll robertson pupil

39
Q

Diagnosis of syphilis

A

Non treponemal test screening, RPR or VDRL, if positive must be confirmed by FTA-ABS

40
Q

Late or severe management of lyme disease

A

IV ceftriaxone

41
Q

Lyme disease diagnosis

A

Clinical first line, serologic testing elisa followed by western blot if elisa posotive

42
Q

Acanthamoeba keratitis definition

A

Seen in contact lens wearers, presents with ocular pain, photophobia, conjunctival injection, partial or complete ring infiltrate of corneal stroma (physical exam findings)

43
Q

Test of choice for HSV1 and gold standard test

A

PCR, HSV1 serology

44
Q

The most common cause of encephailitis in the US

A

HSV-1 encephalitis

45
Q

Test of choice for epstein barr virus, peripheral smear finding

A

Heterophile antibody (monospot), peripheral smear may show atypical lymphocytes

46
Q

Most common congenital viral infection and what is the treatment of it in any situation

A

CMV, ganciclovir

47
Q

Varicella diagnosis and treatment

A

Usually clinical but PCR can be performed

Symptomatic treatment in 12 or younger, acyclovir in 13 or older or immunocompromised because of varicella pneumonia leading to mortality and morbidity in adutls

48
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis treatment of varicella

A

Varicella zoster imune globulin

49
Q

Herpes zoster diagnosis and treatment

A

Clinical but PCR can be performed

Acyclovir

50
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis of herpes zoste

A

Varicella zoster immune globulin for people exposed to shinles who are immunocompromised

51
Q

Hutchinson’s sign

A

Vesicles on side or tip of nose which ahve high correlation with occular involvmeent of herpes zoster infection due to nasociliary branch of CN V, herpes zoster ophthalmicus

52
Q

Herpes zoster oticus definition

A

Ramsay hunt syndrome, reactivation of varicella zoster in facial nerve CN VII, see ipsalateral facial paralysis plus ear pain plus vesicles in auditory canal or auricle, treated with valacyclovir plus prednisone

53
Q

AIDS is a cd4 count below

A

200

Pance Prep Pearls (15 decks)

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