Cross-Country Flight Planning and Procedures Flashcards
Weather products required for preflight planning, current and forecast weather for departure, en route, and arrival phases of flight.
a. Aviation Routine Weather Reports—METARs, SPECIs
b. Aircraft observations—PIREPS, AIREPs
c. Radar (NEXRAD) and satellite observations (AWC, NWS)
d. Surface analysis charts
e. Ceiling and Visibility Analysis (CVA), weather depiction chart
f. Upper air analysis—constant pressure analysis, skew-T diagram
g. SIGMETs, AIRMETs, G-AIRMETs
h. Center Weather Advisories (CWA)
i. Convective outlooks (AC)
j. Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA)
k. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
l. Winds and temperatures aloft (FB)
m. Current and forecast icing products (CIP/FIP) and freezing level graphics
n. Short-range prognostic charts
o. Significant weather forecast (SIGWX)
Route selection including:
a. Selection of easily identifiable en route checkpoints.
b. Selection of most favorable altitudes considering weather conditions and equipment capabilities.
c. Selection of alternate airport.
Appropriate sectional charts:
a. Use of appropriate and current aeronautical charts.
b. Properly identify airspace, obstructions, and terrain features.
c. Selection of appropriate navigation system/facilities and communication frequencies.
Current information on facilities and procedures:
a. NOTAMs relative to airport, runway, and taxiway closures
b. Special Notices
c. Services available at destination
d. Airport conditions including lighting, obstructions, and other notations in the Chart Supplement U.S.
Navigation log:
a. Measurement of course (true and magnetic)
b. Distances between checkpoints and total
c. How true airspeed was obtained
d. Estimated ground speed
e. Total time en route
f. Amount of fuel required and how it was obtained
g. Simulate filing a VFR flight plan
Weight and balance:
a. Calculations for planned trip
b. Determine computed weight and center of gravity are within the airplane’s operating limitations and if the weight and center of gravity will remain within limits during all phases of flight.
What is an RMI? (P/CG)
RMI is an abbreviation for radio magnetic indicator. It is an aircraft navigational instrument coupled with a gyro compass or similar compass that indicates the direction of a selected NAVAID (NDB or VOR) and indicates bearing with respect to the heading of the aircraft.
What is an HSI? (FAA-H-8083-15)
The HSI (horizontal situation indicator) is a flight navigation instrument that combines the heading indicator with a CDI, in order to provide the pilot with better situational awareness of location with respect to the courseline.
What is RNAV? (FAA-H-8083-15)
RNAV (area navigation) provides enhanced navigational capability to the pilot, by computing the airplane position, actual track and ground speed, then providing meaningful information relative to a route of flight selected by the pilot. Typical RNAV equipment provides the pilot with distance, time, bearing and crosstrack error relative to the selected TO or “active” waypoint and the selected route. Present day RNAV includes INS, LORAN, VOR/DME, and GPS systems.
What is DME? (AIM 1-1-7)
Equipment (airborne and ground) used to measure, in nautical miles, the slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigational aid. Aircraft equipped with DME are provided with distance and groundspeed information when receiving a VORTAC or TACAN facility. Operating frequency range of a DME according to ICAO Annex 10 is from 960 MHz to 1215 MHz.
What is the effective range distance for DME? (AIM 1-1‑7)
Operating on the line-of-sight principle, DME furnishes distance information with a very high degree of accuracy. Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude with an accuracy of better than 1⁄2 mile or 3 percent of the distance, whichever is greater. Distance information received from DME equipment is SLANT RANGE distance and not actual horizontal distance.
Give a brief description of GPS. (AIM 1-1-17)
The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a space-based radio navigation system used to determine precise position anywhere in the world. The 24-satellite constellation is designed to ensure at least five satellites are always visible to a user worldwide. A minimum of four satellites is necessary for receivers to establish an accurate three-dimensional position.
Can handheld GPS receivers and GPS systems certified for VFR operations be used for IFR operations? (AIM 1‑1‑17)
No, for the following reasons:
a. RAIM capability—VFR GPS receivers and all handheld units have no RAIM alerting capability. Loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error, cannot be displayed to the pilot by such receivers.
b. Database currency—In many receivers, an updatable database is used for navigation fixes, airports, and instrument procedures. These databases must be maintained to the current update for IFR operation, but no such requirement exists for VFR use.
c. Antenna location—In many VFR installations of GPS receivers, antenna location is more a matter of convenience than performance. In IFR installations, care is exercised to ensure that an adequate clear view is provided for the antenna to see satellites. If an alternate location is used, some portion of the aircraft may block the view of the antenna, causing a greater opportunity to lose navigation.
Note: VFR and handheld GPS systems are not authorized for IFR navigation, instrument approaches, or as a principal instrument flight reference. During IFR operations they may be considered only as an aid to situational awareness.
Required preflight preparations for an IFR flight using GPS for navigation should include a review of what information? (FAA-H-8083-15)
a. GPS is properly installed and certified for the operation.
b. Verify that the databases (navigation, terrain, obstacle, etc.) have not expired.
c. GPS and WAAS NOTAMs.
d. GPS RAIM availability for non-WAAS receivers.
e. Review the operational status of ground-based NAVAIDs and related aircraft equipment (e.g., 30-day VOR check) appropriate to the route of flight, terminal operations, instrument approaches at the destination, and alternate airports at ETA.
f. Determine that the GPS receiver operation manual or airplane flight manual supplement is on board and available for use.
How often must electronic navigation databases used for IFR flight be updated? (FAA-H-8083-15)
The navigation database is updated every 28 days. Obstacle databases may be updated every 56 days, and terrain and airport map databases are updated as needed.
Within which frequency band does the VOR equipment operate? (AIM 1-1-3)
VHF band—108.00 through 117.95 MHz
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment? (14 CFR 91.171)
a. VOT check; ±4°
b. Ground checkpoint; ±4°
c. Airborne checkpoint; ±6°
d. Dual VOR check; 4° between each other
e. Select a radial over a known ground point; ±6°
A repair station can use a radiated test signal, but only the technician performing the test can make an entry in the logbook.
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks? (14 CFR 91.171)
Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place, and bearing error and sign the aircraft log or other reliable record
Where can a pilot find the location of the nearest VOT testing stations? (AIM 1-1-4)
Locations of airborne check points, ground check points and VOTs are published in the Chart Supplement U.S.
How may the course sensitivity be checked on a VOR receiver? (FAA-H-8083-15)
In addition to receiver tolerance checks required by regulations, course sensitivity may be checked by recording the number of degrees of change in the course selected as you rotate the OBS to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side. The course selected should not exceed 10° or 12° either side.
How can a pilot determine if a VOR or VORTAC has been taken out of service for maintenance? (AIM 1-1-11)
During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, coded identification (or code and voice, where applicable) is removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. Removal of identification serves as a warning to pilots that the facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repair and may be unreliable even though intermittent or constant signals are received.
Explain the function of NDB and ADF equipment. (FAA-H-8083-15)
The non-directional radio beacon (NDB) is a ground-based radio transmitter that transmits radio energy in all directions. NDBs operate within the low-to-medium frequency band, 190 to 535 kHz. The automatic direction finder (ADF) receiver in the airplane determines the bearing from the aircraft to the transmitting station. The ADF needle points to the NDB ground station to determine the relative bearing (RB) to the transmitting station. It is the number of degrees measured clockwise between the aircraft’s heading and the direction from which the bearing is taken.
If a diversion to an alternate airport becomes necessary due to an emergency, what procedure should be used? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25)
a. Consider relative distance to all suitable alternates;
b. Select the one most appropriate for the emergency at hand;
c. Determine magnetic course to alternate and divert immediately;
d. Wind correction, actual distance and estimated time/fuel can then be computed while enroute to alternate.
How can the course to an alternate be computed quickly? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25)
Courses to alternates can be quickly measured by using a straight edge and the compass roses shown at VOR stations on the chart. VOR radials and airway courses (already oriented to magnetic direction) printed on the chart can be used to approximate magnetic bearings during VFR flights. Use the radial of a nearby VOR or airway that most closely parallels the course to the station. Distances can be determined by placing a finger at the appropriate place on a straight edge of a piece of paper and then measuring the approximate distance on the mileage scale at the bottom of the chart.
What information is provided by a maximum elevation figure on a sectional chart? (USRGD)
The maximum elevation figure (MEF) represents the highest elevation, including terrain and other vertical obstacles (towers, trees, etc.), within a quadrant. MEF figures are depicted in thousands and rounded to the nearest hundred feet above mean sea level. The last two digits of the number are not shown. The chart legend also provides the highest terrain elevation for the entire chart.
What recommended entry and departure procedures should be used at airports without an operating control tower? (AIM 4-3-3)
When entering a traffic pattern, enter the pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam the approach end of the landing runway on the downwind leg. Complete the turn to final at least 1⁄4 mile from the runway. When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45-degree turn (to the left when in a left-hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.
What are the recommended traffic advisory practices at airports without an operating control tower? (AIM 4-1-9)
Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless federal regulations or local procedures require otherwise.
A large or turbine-powered aircraft is required to enter Class D airspace at what altitude? (14 CFR 91.129)
A large or turbine-powered airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the applicable distance-from-clouds criteria, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until further descent is required for a safe landing.
If operating into an airport without an operating control tower which is located within the Class D airspace of an airport with an operating control tower, is it always necessary to communicate with the tower? (14 CFR 91.129)
Yes, operations to or from an airport in Class D airspace (airport traffic area) require communication with the tower even when operating to/from a satellite airport.
When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established? (AIM 4-3-2)
When operating at an airport where traffic control is being exercised by a control tower, pilots are required to maintain two-way radio contact with the tower while operating within Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas unless the tower authorizes otherwise. Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport.
When departing a Class D surface area, what communication procedures are recommended? (AIM 4-3-2)
Unless there is good reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the Class B, Class C and Class D surface areas, it is good operating practice to remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information. In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas.
You discover that both the transmitter and receiver in your aircraft have become inoperative. What procedures should be used when attempting to enter a traffic pattern and land at a tower controlled airport? (AIM 4-2-13)
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic.
c. Join the traffic pattern and wait for light gun signals.
d. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.
When a control tower located at an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace? (AIM 3-2-5)
During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface will become applicable. Check the Chart Supplement U.S. for specifics.
If the rotating beacon is on at an airport during daylight hours, what significance does this have? (AIM 2-1-10)
In Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation, and it is the pilot’s responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by 14 CFR Part 91.
What are the various types of runway markings (precision instrument runway) and what do they consist of? (AIM 2-3-3)
a. Runway designators—Runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the runway, measured clockwise from the magnetic north.
b. Runway centerline marking—Identifies the center of the runway and provides alignment guidance during takeoff and landings; consists of a line of uniformly-spaced stripes and gaps.
c. Runway aiming point marking—Serves as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft; two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe located on each side of the runway centerline and approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold.
d. Runway touchdown zone markers—Identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500 feet increments; groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline.
e. Runway side stripe markings—Delineate the edges of the runway and provide a visual contrast between runway and the abutting terrain or shoulders; continuous white stripes located on each side of the runway.
f. Runway shoulder markings—May be used to supplement runway side stripes to identify pavement areas contiguous to the runway sides that are not intended for use by aircraft; painted yellow.
g. Runway threshold markings—Used to help identify the beginning of the runway that is available for landing. Two configurations: either eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width.
What are the various types of taxiway markings and what do they consist of? (AIM 2-3-4)
Markings for taxiways are yellow and consist of the following types:
a. Taxiway centerline—Single continuous yellow line; aircraft should be kept centered over this line during taxi; however, being centered on the centerline does not guarantee wingtip clearance with other aircraft or objects.
b. Taxiway edge—Used to define the edge of taxiway; two types, continuous and dashed.
c. Taxiway shoulder—Usually defined by taxiway edge markings; denotes pavement unusable for aircraft.
d. Surface painted taxiway direction—Yellow background with black inscription; supplements direction signs or when not possible to provide taxiway sign.
e. Surface painted location signs—Black background with yellow inscription; supplements location signs.
f. Geographic position markings—Located at points along low visibility taxi routes; used to identify aircraft during low visibility operations.
What are the six types of signs installed on airports? (AIM 2-3-7 through 2-3-13)
a. Mandatory instruction signs—Red background/white inscription; denotes hazardous areas.
b. Location signs—Black background/yellow inscription; used to identify either a taxiway or runway on which an aircraft is located.
c. Direction signs—Yellow background/black inscription; identifies designation(s) of intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of intersection that pilot would expect to turn onto or hold short of.
d. Destination signs—Yellow background/black inscription; signs have arrow showing direction of taxi route to that destination.
e. Information signs—Yellow background/black inscription; provide pilot information on such things as areas that cannot be seen by control tower, radio frequencies, noise abatement procedures, etc.
f. Runway distance remaining signs—Black background with white numeral inscription; indicates distance (in thousands of feet) of landing runway remaining.
The acronym LAHSO refers to what specific air traffic control procedure? (AIM 4-3-11)
“Land And Hold Short Operations.” At controlled airports, air traffic control may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway. Pilots may accept such a clearance provided that the pilot-in-command determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop within the Available Landing Distance (ALD). Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program.
Where can Available Landing Distance (ALD) data be found? (AIM 4-3-11)
ALD data are published in the special notices section of the Chart Supplement U.S. and in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications. Controllers will also provide ALD data upon request.
Describe the visual aids that assist a pilot in determining where to hold short at an airport with LAHSO in effect. (AIM 4-3-11)
The visual aids consist of a three-part system of yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage and, in certain cases, in-pavement lighting. Pilots are cautioned that not all airports conducting LAHSO have installed any or all of the LAHSO markings, signage, or lighting.
Describe runway hold-short markings and signs. (AIM 2-3-5, 2-3-8)
Runway holding position markings—indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop when approaching a runway. They consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six or twelve inches apart, and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold.
Runway holding position sign—located at the holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that intersect other runways. These signs have a red background with a white inscription and contain the designation of the intersecting runway.
Describe a displaced threshold. (AIM 2-3-3)
It is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. Displacement of the threshold reduces the length of the runway available for landings. The portion of the runway behind it is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. A ten-foot-wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold. White arrowheads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar.
Describe a tri-color light VASI system. (AIM 2-1-2)
A tri-color visual approach slope indicator (VASI) normally consists of a single light unit projecting a three-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway. The visual glide path provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 NM from the runway threshold.
Red: Below glidepath
Amber: Above glidepath
Green: On glidepath
What is PAPI? (AIM 2-1-2)
The precision approach path indicator (PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row of either two or four light units. These systems have an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. The row of light units is normally installed on the left side of the runway.
What is PVASI? (AIM 2-1-2)
Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The useful range of the system is about four miles during the day and up to ten miles at night.
Pulsating white light: Above glidepath
Steady white light: On glidepath
Steady red light: Slightly below glidepath
Pulsating red light: Well below glidepath
Preflight planning for taxi operations should be an integral part of the pilot’s flight planning process. What information should this include? (AC 91-73)
a. Review and understand airport signage, markings and lighting.
b. Review the airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify any “hot spots.”
c. Review the latest airfield NOTAMs and ATIS (if available) for taxiway/runway closures, construction activity, etc.
d. Conduct a pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing that includes the expected/assigned taxi route and any hold short lines and restrictions based on ATIS information or previous experience at the airport.
e. Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route (complex intersections, crossing runways, etc.).
f. Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxi.
What is an airport “hot spot”? (Chart Supplement U.S.)
A “hot spot” is a runway safety-related problem area on an airport that presents increased risk during surface operations. Typically, it is a complex or confusing taxiway/taxiway intersection or taxiway/runway intersection. The area of increased risk has either a history of or potential for runway incursions or surface incidents due to a variety of causes, such as but not limited to: airport layout, traffic flow, airport marking, signage and lighting, situational awareness, and training. Hot spots are depicted on airport diagrams as open circles or polygons designated as “HS 1”, “HS 2”, etc.
Why is use of “sterile cockpit” procedures important when conducting taxi operations? (AC 91-73)
Pilots must be able to focus on their duties without being distracted by non-flight-related matters unrelated to the safe and proper operation of the aircraft. Refraining from nonessential activities during ground operations is essential. Passengers should be briefed on the importance of minimizing conversations and questions during taxi as well as on arrival, from the time landing preparations begin until the aircraft is safely parked.
After completing your pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing of the taxi route you “expect” to receive, ATC calls and gives you a different route. What potential pitfall is common in this situation? (AC 91-73)
A common pitfall of pre-taxi and pre-landing planning is setting expectations and then receiving different instructions from ATC. Pilots need to follow the instructions that they actually receive. Short-term memory is of limited duration.
When issued taxi instructions to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route? (AIM 4-3-18)
No; Aircraft must receive a runway crossing clearance for each runway that their taxi route crosses. When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify the runway, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. When issuing taxi instructions to any point other than an assigned takeoff runway, ATC will specify the point to which to taxi, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. ATC is required to obtain a read back from the pilot of all runway hold short instructions.
When receiving taxi instructions from a controller, pilots should always read back what information? (AIM 4-3-18)
a. The runway assignment
b. Any clearance to enter a specific runway
c. Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or line up and wait
What are some recommended practices that can assist a pilot in maintaining situational awareness during taxi operations? (AC 91-73)
a. A current airport diagram should be available for immediate reference during taxi.
b. Monitor ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft for the “big picture.”
c. Focus attention outside the cockpit while taxiing.
d. Use all available resources (airport diagrams, airport signs, markings, lighting, and ATC) to keep the aircraft on its assigned taxi route.
e. Cross-reference heading indicator to ensure turns are being made in the correct direction and that you’re on the assigned taxi route.
f. Prior to crossing any hold short line, visually check for conflicting traffic; verbalize “clear left, clear right.”
g. Be alert for other aircraft with similar call signs on the frequency.
h. Understand and follow all ATC instructions and if in doubt—Ask!
How can a pilot use aircraft exterior lighting to enhance situational awareness and safety during airport surface operations? (AC 91-73; SAFO)
To the extent possible and consistent with aircraft equipment, operating limitations, and pilot procedures, pilots should illuminate exterior lights as follows:
a. Engines running—Turn on the rotating beacon whenever an engine is running.
b. Taxiing—Prior to commencing taxi, turn on navigation/position lights and anti-collision lights.
c. Crossing a runway—All exterior lights should be illuminated when crossing a runway.
d. Entering the departure runway for takeoff—All exterior lights (except landing lights) should be on to make your aircraft more conspicuous to aircraft on final and ATC.
e. Cleared for takeoff—All exterior lights including takeoff/landing lights should be on.
Note: If you see an aircraft in take-off position on a runway with landing lights ON, that aircraft has most likely received its take-off clearance and will be departing immediately.
