.

Question 1

Name the two organisations that were formed in 1995 as a result of the Civil Aviation Legislation Amendment Act?

Answer 1

Airservices and CASA

Question 2

Who is the international regulatory body for aviation?

Answer 2

ICAO

Question 2

Who is IFR separated from in Class A?

Answer 2

IFR
(All is incorrect, IFR shows knowledge of airspace)

Question 3

What are the 5 objectives of air traffic control?

Answer 3

The objectives of Air Traffic Services are to:
a) prevent collisions between aircraft;
b) prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions
on that area;
c) expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic;
d) provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of
flights; and
e) notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue
aid, and assist such organisations as required.

Question 4

Who is IFR separated from in Class C?

Answer 4

IFR from IFR
IFR from VFR
IFR from Special
VFR

Question 5

Who is VFR separated from in Class C?

Answer 5

VFR from IFR

Question 5

Who is Special VFR separated from?

Answer 5

Only ever:
Special VFR when VIS does not meet VMC

Question 6

Who is IFR separated from in Class D?

Answer 6

IFR from IFR
IFR from Special VFR

Question 7

In what Class do VFR receive an ATC service?

Answer 7

C + D

Question 8

What service can an ATC provide in Class G airspace?

Answer 8

Flight information service to IFR + VFR.
Flight following service if navaids are out for VFR.

Question 9

What are the ICAO designators for AUS FIRS?

Answer 9

YBBB, YMMM.

Question 10

Name the callsign to match the role.
Surface = ?
Combined Approach =
Approach =
Departures =

Answer 10

Surface = Ground
Combined Approach = Approach
Approach = Approach
Departures = Departures

Question 11

Which Aerodrome controller does airways clearance

Answer 11

Clearance Delivery (ACD, just write clearance delivery).

Question 12

Which ATS Officer creates flextracks?

Answer 12

Trackmaster

Question 13

What message does a trackmaster send out to advise of a new flextrack?

Answer 13

Track definition message (TDM).

The TDM consists of:
- Track identifier
Track validity period

Question 14

Who has priority between an aircraft taxiing and taking off?

Answer 14

Taking off

Question 15

Does a multiengine aircraft with one engine failure not subject to SAR phases have a higher priority than an aircraft performing in SAR?

Answer 15

Yes.
Priority list.
1. Emergency/unlawful interference.
2. a multiengine aircraft with one engine failure not subject to SAR phases
3. An aircraft with radio comms failure
4. A medical flight, SAR, or FFR (Fire/Flood relief)
5. Police aircraft operating under callsign POLAIR RED or FEDPOL RED
6. Aircraft transporting head of state
7. State-arranged aircraft where clearance has been pre-obtained

Question 16

Can an aerodrome control unit provide an approach service?

Answer 16

Yes

Question 17

Which ATS units may provide a FIS?

Answer 17

All. All ATCs are required to be able to provide a FIS.

Question 18

Who must ATC provide a FIS (Flight information service) to?

Answer 18

MATS 9.1.1.1
Provide FIS to all aircraft which are:
a) provided with air traffic control service; or
b) otherwise known to the relevant air traffic services units

Question 19

Get your ERC chart out and define a hollow white triangle with a box around it. Do the rest of em too

Answer 19

check legend

Question 20

What are the three roles as defined by ICAO?

Answer 20

Area
Approach
Aerodrome

Question 21

What are the three roles of Air Traffic Services?

Answer 21

Air Traffic Controlling/Controllers
Flight Information Service
Alerting Service

Question 22

When do we provide directed traffic information?

Answer 22

VFR:
Pass traffic information to VFR aircraft when:
a) requested by pilots;
b) pilots notify intention to change level and/or track; or
c) you become aware of relevant traffic

IFR:
Pass traffic information to IFR aircraft when:
a) requested by pilots;
b) pilots notify intention to change level and/or track;
c) pilots notify either taxi or airborne or departure, whichever is first; or
d) you become aware of relevant traffic.

Question 23

When an aircraft declares an emergency whilst a transfer of control is underway, whose responsibility is it to provide initial response service?

Answer 23

When an aircraft declares an emergency and responsibility for the aircraft is in the
process of being transferred to another ATS position, provide initial response and
assistance from the ATS position where the emergency was declared.

Question 24

What are the steps involved with transfer of jurisdiction?

Answer 24

1. Prior coordination with the connecting ATC.
2. Handover/transfer jurisdiction to new ATC.
3. Advise pilot of new frequency information

Question 25

How is coordination conducted?

Answer 25

a) on a point-to-point basis, whenever possible;
b) so that traffic coordination takes precedence over non-traffic coordination
requirements;
c) on intercom or liaison channels; and
d) on public telephone channels when c) is not available.

Question 26

How is responsibility for an aircraft determined?

Answer 26

Airspace and Frequency

Question 27

At which altitude must aircraft operating in the Australian FIR change to QNH 1013.2 HPA?

Answer 27

A100
(A is used because it’s specifically referencing an altitude here, whereas a flight level is simply an accurate estimation based on ISA (intl standard atmosphere).

Question 28

Which Flight Levels are not available when the Area QNH is 993 HPA?

Answer 28

FL110, FL115

Question 29

What are four items in the flight data record that NAPM mandates must be maintained by ATC?

Answer 29

o Pilot position reports
o Pilot estimates
o Pilot reported speed
o Pilot reported altitudes and flight levels

Question 30

Which form must be sent to the Australian Maritime Security Operations centre to relay
information regarding suspicious activities?

Answer 30

o Surveillance Report (SURVEREP)

AMSOC

Question 31

When written information is required at an ATC console, which document must be used when
an authorised form isn’t available?

Answer 31

Answer: SCRATCH PAD

Question 32

Fill in the blanks: What methods may be used to make records of verbal information?
__ equipment
Writing on a __
Typing on __
Writing in accordance with __ __
Writing on __ __
Entering directly into __-__ __

Answer 32

VOICE RECORDING equipment
Writing on a FLIGHT PROGRESS STRIP
Typing on AUTHORISED FORMS
Writing in accordance with LOCAL REQUIREMENTS
Writing on APPROPRIATE FORMS
Entering directly into COMPUTER-BASED EQUIPMENT

Question 33

If you make an error during record keeping, correct errors on active forms or strips, fault
reports and journals by:

Answer 33

Drawing a line through the incorrect data and writing the correct data adjacent thereto
OR

o Cancelling and rewriting the record, retaining both the old and new for later reference

Question 34

ATC witnesses an aviation incident as part of their controlling duty; they must now complete
what report?

Answer 34

Air Safety Accident or Incident Report (ASAIR)

Question 35

What separation is provided in each Airspace Class?

Answer 35

Class A = IFR from IFR (as VFR is not permitted)
Class C = IFR from IFR; IFR from VFR; IFR from Special VFR; VFR from IFR; Special VFR
from Special VFR
Class D = IFR from IFR; IFR from Special VFR; Special VFR from Special VFR
Class E = IFR from IFR
Class G = NIL; we provide DTI only and they maintain their own avoidance

Question 36

Fill in the blanks: As per MATS, the objectives of ATS are to:
o Prevent _ between aircraft
o Prevent collisions between aircraft on the _ and obstructions on
that area
o Expedite and maintain an _
o Provide _ useful for the _ conduct of
flights
o Notify _ regarding aircraft in need of _ aid, and assist such organisations as required

Answer 36

Prevent COLLISIONS between aircraft
Prevent collisions between aircraft on the MANEOUVRING AREA and obstructions on
that area
Expedite and maintain an ORDERLY FLOW OF AIR TRAFFIC
Provide ADVICE AND INFORMATION useful for the SAFE AND EFFICIENT conduct of
flights
Notify APPROPRIATE ORGANISATIONS regarding aircraft in need of SEARCH AND
RESCUE aid, and assist such organisations as required

Question 37

What is a Restricted Area?

Answer 37

An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a
State, within which the flight of an aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions

Question 37

What is a Flex Track?

Answer 37

A non-fixed ATS route calculated on a daily basis to provide the most efficient
operational flight conditions between specific city pairs

Question 38

Chart Definition of different symbols:
Shaded triangle =
Un-shaded triangle =
Square around the position report symbol =

Answer 38

Shaded triangle = “compulsory position report for all aircraft”
Un-shaded triangle = “position report for aircraft with TAS less than 300KT and for other aircraft on request”
Square around the position report symbol = “in addition to the position report, AIREP
Section 3 required from designated flights”

Note: AIREP is a report on in-flight weather conditions

Question 38

Fill in the blanks: According to MATS, what is the duty priority of an ATC?
Give first priority to _, issuing _ and providing _ as required by this Manual; perform first that action
which is most critical from a _ standpoint

Answer 38

Give first priority to SEPARATING AIRCRAFT, issuing SAFETY ALERTS and providing
DIRECTED TRAFFIC INFORMATION as required by this Manual; perform first that action
which is most critical from a SAFETY standpoint

Question 39

According to MATS, ATC have a requirement to provide flight information services (FIS) to all
aircraft which are what?

Answer 39

Provided with air traffic control service;
or
Otherwise known to the relevant air traffic services unit

Question 40

The control and communication responsibility for an aircraft entering airspace assigned to a sector or unit…..

Answer 40

The control and communication responsibility for an aircraft entering airspace
assigned to a specific sector or unit should be transferred to that sector or unit

Question 41

Fill in the blanks: Aircraft are required to remain on the frequency for the airspace in which they
are operating, except:
In certain aspects of _____
When significant ___________ _______ will be gained.

and workload, communications
and equipment capabilities permit the responsible Controller to take such action as is
necessary to preserve separation

Answer 41

In certain aspects of SAR alerting services

When significant operational advantage will be gained and workload, communications
and equipment capabilities permit the responsible Controller to take such action as is necessary to preserve separation

Question 42

Aircraft operating under which flight rules require a clearance in Class D Airspace?

Answer 42

IFR, VFR and Special VFR

Question 43

In which Airspace Classes can aircraft operate Special VFR?

Answer 43

o A = NO
o C = YES
o D = YES
o E = NO
o G = NO

Question 44

What Flight Level is not available when QNH is 1008?

Answer 44

FL110

Question 45

What is the name of the online pre-flight information service where pilots may access the latest
aerodrome NOTAMS?

Answer 45

NAIPS (National Aeronautical Information Processing System)

Question 46

What is the name of the pre-flight information service where pilots may access information by
fax?

Answer 46

Answer:AVFAX

Question 47

What are the pre-flight briefing service options that pilots have, and what order do we prefer them to utilise to obtain the information?

Answer 47

1 = NAIPS
2 = AVFAX
3 = METBRIEF
4 = personal
5 = in-flight radio/frequency

Question 48

List some of the MET Products that pilots can reference as part of their pre-flight briefing:

Answer 48

o TAF (terminal aerodrome forecast)
o METAR (meteorological aerodrome report)
o SPECI (special meteorological report)
o GAF (graphical area forecast)

Question 49

Which office of the Network Coordination Centre (NCC) is responsible for checking flight plans
and notifications?

Answer 49

AIM (Aeronautical Information Management)

Question 50

Which aircraft may operate ‘Due Regard’?

Answer 50

STATE/MILITARY AIRCRAFT

Question 51

Which aircraft are ATC required to separate from aircraft operating Due Regard?

Answer 51

ATS is NOT responsible for:
ATS to due regard aircraft
Separation between due regard aircraft and other aircraft

Question 52

Fill in the blanks: What is a holding fix?
A ____ that serves as a reference for a holding procedure

Answer 52

A GEOGRAPHIC LOCATION that serves as a reference for a holding procedure

Question 53

Fill in the blanks: What is a holding procedure?
A predetermined maneouvre which keeps an aircraft within a ____
while awaiting ____

Answer 53

A predetermined maneouvre which keeps an aircraft within a SPECIFIED AIRSAPCE while awaiting FURTHER CLEARANCE

Question 54

What must ATC provide to the pilot of an IFR aircraft in Glass G airspace wishing to descend
from 9,000ft to 7,000ft?

Answer 54

DTI (Directed Traffic Information)

Question 55

ATC may use separation based on what four principles?

Answer 55

Longitudinal
Lateral
Vertical
Visual

Question 56

When establishing a distance separation standard between two aircraft using onboard
navigation equipment, what equipment may be used to prove the required distance?

Answer 56

GNSS (Global Navigation Satellite System)
SCNS (Self Contained Navigation System)

Question 57

Fill in the blanks: What is the definition of a “Basic Lateral Separation Point” (BLSP)?
The BLSP is the point at which the navigation tolerances of both aircraft are no closer
than __

Answer 57

The BLSP is the point at which the navigation tolerances of both aircraft are no closer
than 1 nautical mile

Question 58

Fill in the blanks: The five elements of assuring separation are:
o Scanning and __ aircraft
o __
o Planning to resolve conflicts and __
o __ a plan
o __ the implemented solution to ensure separation is achieved

Answer 58

o Scanning and ASSESSING aircraft
o IDENTIFYING CONFLICTS
o Planning to resolve conflicts and ASSURE SEPARATION
o EXECUTING a plan
o MONITORING the implemented solution to ensure separation is achieved

Question 59

What phrase must an approach controller use to initiate a visual approach?

Answer 59

“CLEARED VISUAL APPROACH”

Question 60

Fill in the blanks: There are certain conditions that must be met in order for a visual approach;
what are they?
The visibility along the flight path is not less than ____, or by day, the _______ ___ _____.
The aircraft is within ___ of the aerodrome.

Answer 60

The visibility along the flight path is not less than 5,000m, or by day, the AERODROME IS
IN SIGHT. The aircraft is within 30NM of the aerodrome.

Question 61

Which tower control position has responsibility for the runways?

Answer 61

Aerodrome Controller (ADC) (Tower)

Question 62

Name the 5 stages of a runway approach, starting with upwind leg.

Answer 62

Upwind, crosswind, downwind, base, final.

Question 63

What must ATC provide to aircraft receiving pushback approval?

Answer 63

RELEVANT TRAFFIC INFORMATION incl. Apron movements

Question 64

Fill in the blanks: What are the six considerations for ATCs prior to issuing a take-off clearance?
o The aircraft is at or _____ ____ _____ in use
o The _____ _____ permits
o The aircraft has reported “_____”
o A _____ _____ of the take-off path has been completed
o No _____ OR _____ _____ exists
o There is _____ _____ that the _____ _____ _____ will
exist when the aircraft _____ _____-_____

Answer 64

o The aircraft is at or APPROACHING THE RUNWAY in use
o The TRAFFIC SITUATION permits
o The aircraft has reported “READY”
o A VISUAL CHECK of the take-off path has been completed
o No OBSTRUCTIONS OR COLLISION RISK exists
o There is REASONABLE ASSURANCE that the PRESCRIBED SEPARATION STANDARD will
exist when the aircraft COMMENCES TAKE-OFF

Question 65

. Fill in the blanks: What nine considerations must be made when choosing the aircraft to be
used?
o Type of _____
o Effective _____ of runway
o _____ velocity
o _____ _____, including wind gradient, wind shear, wake turbulence…
o In near minima conditions, availability of _____ _____
o Disposition of_____ _____
o _____ distances
o _____ conditions
o If workload and/or traffic conditions permit, implement ‘preferred runway’ systems in
certain wind conditions to:
i. Provide the optimum traffic management configuration
ii. Comply with noise abatement procedures

Answer 65

o Type of AIRCRAFT
o Effective LENGTH of runway
o WIND velocity
o WEATHER PHENOMENA, including wind gradient, wind shear, wake turbulence…
o In near minima conditions, availability of APPROACH AIDS
o Disposition of OTHER TRAFFIC
o TAXIING distances
o BRAKING conditions
o If workload and/or traffic conditions permit, implement ‘preferred runway’ systems in
certain wind conditions to:
i. Provide the optimum traffic management configuration
ii. Comply with noise abatement procedures

Question 66

Fill in the blanks: Ensure low visibility procedures (LVP) are fully implemented when:
o An instrument approach operation will take place when the ceiling or visibility is less
than the precision approach CAT 1 minima for the runway being used
o A take-off operation will take place when the RV/RVR is less than 550m for the runway
being used
o For a runway without a precision approach:
i. The RV/RVR is ______ or less
ii. The ceiling is _____ or less

Answer 66

o An instrument approach operation will take place when the ceiling or visibility is less
than the precision approach CAT 1 minima for the runway being used
o A take-off operation will take place when the RV/RVR is less than 550m for the runway
being used
o For a runway without a precision approach:
i. The RV/RVR is 800m or less
ii. The ceiling is 200ft or less

Question 67

Look at an approach chart and identify:
Final approach fix
Holding Pattern
Holding Fix
Minimum safe altitude
Circling prohibited
Magnetic Variation

Answer 67

Do it, do even more

Question 68

List the major areas of responsibility of the Network Coordination Centre (NCC) and some things that they do.

NCC = AABN!

Answer 68

o Airspace Management
i. Slot management
ii. Flex tracks
o Aeronautical Information Management
i. Produce and coordinate NOTAMs
ii. Ensures smooth flow of aeronautical messaging
o Business Continuity and Reporting
i. Activate crisis response arrangements
ii. Provide scheduled reporting
o NCC Met
i. Maintain a weather watch
ii. Provide regular weather briefings

Question 69

Fill in the blanks: What is the Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) responsible for?
o AIS is responsible for the __ __ AND __ of
aeronautical information and instructions relating to the safety, regularity and efficiency
of air navigation
o An __ __ __ is established at Canberra for the purpose of the
international exchange of NOTAM
o The AIS is responsible for the collection and dissemination of aeronautical information
for the __ __ OF __and its associated airspace, and for the
airspace over the high seas encompassed by the __ AND __ __

Answer 69

o AIS is responsible for the COLLECTION, COLLATION AND DISSEMINATION of
aeronautical information and instructions relating to the safety, regularity and efficiency
of air navigation
o An INTERNATIONAL NOTAM OFFICE is established at Canberra for the purpose of the
international exchange of NOTAM
o The AIS is responsible for the collection and dissemination of aeronautical information
for the ENTIRE TERRIROTY OF AUSTRALIA and its associated airspace, and for the
airspace over the high seas encompassed by the BRISBANE AND MELBOURNE FIRs

Question 70

You will be provided with the following list:
o Planning Chart Australia (PCA)
o World Aeronautical Chart (WAC)
o Visual Navigation Chart (VNC)
o Visual Terminal Chart (VTC)
o En-Route Charts Low (ERC-L)
o En-Route Charts High (ERC-H)

Answer 70

As well as the list, you will be provided with descriptors similar to the ones below:
o Depicts HF network boundaries and VHF coverage at 5,000ft and 10,000ft = PCA
o Designed for visual operations near terminal areas = VTC
o Designed for pre-flight planning and pilotage = WAC
o Depicts airspace, air routes and radio navigation facilities up to and including FL200 =
ERC-L
o Depicts airspace, air routes and radio navigation facilities above FL200 = ERC-H
o Designed for operations under VFR and contain an aeronautical overlay of controlled
airspace over a topographical base, containing radio communication and other
navigational data appropriate for visual navigation = VNC

Question 71

Fill in the blanks: What information is NOT to be promulgated not a NOTAM?
o Relates to an __ __ ___ and its vicinity, and does not affect its operational status
o Is not of direct __ __
o Does not preclude __ __
o Is not likely to influence a pilot or operator’s decision to __ _ __

Answer 71

o Relates to an AERODROME OR HELIPORT and its vicinity, and does not affect its
operational status
o Is not of direct OPERATIONAL SIGNIFICANCE
o Does not preclude SAFE OPERATION
o Is not likely to influence a pilot or operator’s decision to DIVERT A FLIGHT

Question 72

Fill in the blanks: Use the following criteria as a guide for the origination of NOTAM concerning
the establishment, condition or change of a hazard(s)
o Presence of __ which affect air navigation
o Erecting, removal of, or changes to __ __to air navigation
o Presence or removal or significant changes in hazardous conditions due to __,
__, __OR __on the movement area
o Operationally significant changes in __, the location, date and time of
volcanic eruptions
o Release into the atmosphere of __ __ OF __ __
following a nuclear or chemical incident

Answer 72

o Presence of HAZARDS which affect air navigation
o Erecting, removal of, or changes to SIGNIFICANT OBSTACLES to air navigation
o Presence or removal or significant changes in hazardous conditions due to SNOW,
SLUSH, ICE OR WATER on the movement area
o Operationally significant changes in VOLCANIC ACTIVITY, the location, date and time of
volcanic eruptions
o Release into the atmosphere of RADIOACTIVE MATERIALS OF TOXIC CHEMICALS
following a nuclear or chemical incident

Question 74

If you become aware of any hazards that affect air navigation, when are the general broadcasts made?

Answer 74

On receipt, and H+15 & H+45

Question 75

Review this TAF

TAF YCOM 070635Z 0708/0720 18015KT 9999 FEW005 BRK020
TEMPO 0710/0714 2000 -SHSN BKN005 SCT020
RMK T 03 00 M02 M04 Q 1008 1007 1006 1006

o YCOM = Aerodrome ( Cooma )
o 070635 = Time of issue; 0635 on the 7th
o 0708/0720 = Validity; from 0800 on the 7th until 2000 on the 7th
o 18015KT = Wind; 180 degrees, 15 knots
o 9999 = Visibility; visibility is greater than 10km
o FEW05 = Clouds; few oktas of clouds at 500ft
13
o BKN020 = Clouds; broken clouds at 2,000ft
o TEMPO = Tempo Period; between 1000-1400 on the 7th
o 2000 = Visibility; during the period above the visibility is down to 2,000m
o SHSN = Conditions; showers and snow
o BKN005 = Clouds; broken clouds at 500ft
o SCT020 = Clouds; scattered clouds at 2,000ft
o RMK = Remarks Line
o T = Temperature
o Q = QNH

Answer 75

look up more tafs nd stuff

Question 76

Fill in the blanks: What is an Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)?
o A notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a __, or
for inclusion in the __, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical,
__ OR __ matters

Answer 76

o A notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM, or
for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical,
ADMINISTRATIVE OR LEGISLATIVE matters

Question 77

Fill in the blanks: Depending on the class of airspace or stage of flight, parameters for coordination may vary. However, basic principles in MATS say that you must conduct
coordination:
o On a __ __ __ __, whenever possible
o So that __ __ takes precedence over __ __ ____
requirements
o On __ or __channels
o On __ __ __ when the above is not available

Answer 77

On a POINT-TO-POINT BASIS, whenever possible
o So that TRAFFIC COORDINATION takes precedence over NON-TRAFFIC COORDINATION
requirements
o On INTERCOM or LIAISON channels
o On PUBLIC TELEPHONE CHANNELS when the above is not availabl

Question 78

Fill in the blanks: What elements constitute heads-up coordination?
o An indication of the __ __
o The aircraft’s __ __
o The __ __ if different to the __

Answer 78

o An indication of the AIRCRAFT’S POSITION
o The aircraft’s CALLSIGN
o The COORDINATED LEVEL if different to the CFL

Question 79

Fill in the blanks: What would you readback on the receipt of a heads-up notification?
o Aircraft’s __, and
o The __ or __ __unless the standard assignable level specified is assigned

Answer 79

Aircraft’s CALLSIGN, and
The CFL or COORDINATED LEVEL unless the standard assignable level specified is
assigned

Question 80

Fill in the blanks: What do you need to coordinate when you are coordinating a formation
flight?
o When coordinating formation flights, include the __ __ ___ and
___ if appropriate

Answer 80

o When coordinating formation flights, include the TYPE OF FORMATION and
DIMENSIONS if appropriate

Question 81

To which organisation must ATC coordinate significant weather information?

Answer 81

o Answer: Bureau of Meteorology (BoM)

Question 82

What are the elements of a HandOver/TakeOver (HOTO) Checklist?

RAWFNTO

Answer 82

o R = RUNWAYS
o A = AIRSPACE and airspace releases
o W = present and forecast WEATHER
o F = FACILITIES/frequencies/equipment
o N = NAVAIDS and NOTAMs
o T = TRAFFIC
o O = OUTSTANDING instructions/matters

Question 83

What class of aviation incident required only a written report within 72 hours?

Answer 83

Answer: RRM = Routinely Reportable Matter

Question 84

IRM or RRM: A report of a break-in into the cockpit?

Answer 84

o Answer: IRM

Question 85

IRM or RRM: Failure of ATC to provide DTI?

Answer 85

o Answer: RRM

Question 86

IRM or RRM: Pilot requiring oxygen?

Answer 86

o Answer: IRM

Question 87

IRM or RRM: Aircraft suffering fuel exhaustion?

Answer 87

o Answer: IRM

Question 88

IRM or RRM:
Aircraft entering control steps without a clearance?

Answer 88

o Answer: IRM

Question 89

ATC witnesses an aviation incident as part of their controlling duty; they must now complete
what report?

Answer 89

o Answer: Air Safety Accident or Incident Report (ASAIR)

Question 90

Retention of records; how long are these documents kept for?
o Hand or typewritten records: __
o Voice recordings: __
o NOTAMS: __
o CPDLC: __
o Airways Operations Journal (AOJ): __
Message tapes monitoring outward traffic: ___
ATS Surveillance System recordings: __
Inward/outward message check sheets: ___
INTAS RECORDINGS: ___
EUROCAT RECORDINGS: __

Answer 90

o Hand or typewritten records: 30 days
o Voice recordings: 30 days
o NOTAMS: 30 days
o CPDLC: 30 days
o Airways Operations Journal (AOJ): Permanently
Message tapes monitoring outward traffic: 3 hours
ATS Surveillance System recordings: 30 days
Inward/outward message check sheets: 24 hours
INTAS RECORDINGS: 30 days
EUROCAT RECORDINGS: 30 days

Question 91

Which form must be sent to the Australian Maritime Security Operations centre to relay
information regarding suspicious activities?

Answer 91

Surveillance Report (SURVEREP)

Question 92

What are four items in the flight data record that NAPM mandates must be maintained by ATC?

Answer 92

o Pilot position reports
o Pilot estimates
o Pilot reported speed
o Pilot reported altitudes and flight levels