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Patho 2023 > Park lec 3 > Flashcards

Park lec 3 Flashcards

1
Q

List different classes of pathogens.

A

prions
Viruses
Bacteria
Fungi
parasites

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2
Q

what are viruses

A
  1. Obligate intracellular pathogens
  2. Capsid (protein coats) and genome (RNA or DNA)
  3. Some are enclosed within an envelope derived from the cytoplasmic membrane of the host cells
  4. Cause lysis and death of the host cell during replication
  5. Some remain in a latent, nonreplicating state for long periods without causing disease
    –> Varicella zoster virus
  6. Some cause cancer
    –> Human papillomavirus
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3
Q

what are bacteria

A
  1. Prokaryotic
  2. Microscopic shapes
    - Spherical
    –> Diplococci, staphylococci, streptococci
    - Elongated
    –> bacilli
    - Helical
    –> Spirilla (spirochete)
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4
Q

what is spirochetes

A
  1. type of bacteria
  2. anaerobic
  3. Ex: borrelia burgdorferi (lyme disease), treponema pallidum (syphilis)
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5
Q

what is mycoplasmas

A
  1. Much smaller than other bacteria
  2. No cell wall - resistant to cell-wall inhibiting antibiotics (ex. penicillins)
  3. Ex: mycoplasma pneumoniae (pneumonia)
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6
Q

what is rickettsiaceae

A
  1. type of bacteria
  2. Obligate intracellular pathogens
  3. Transmitted via arthropod vectors (mites, fleas, ticks, lice)
  4. Ex: rickettsia rickettsia (Rocky Mountain spotted fever)
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7
Q

what is chlamydiaceae

A
  1. type of bacteria
  2. Obligate intracellular pathogens
  3. Transmitted via person-to-person contact
  4. Ex: chlamydia trachomatis - sexually transmitted; cause conjunctivitis in newborns
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8
Q

what are the two types of fungi

A

superficial mycoses and systemic mycoses

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9
Q

what is superficial mycoses

A
  1. dermatophytosis
  2. Ringworm, athletes foot (tinea pedis), and jock itch (tinea cruris)
  3. caused by dermatophytes whose infection is limited to the cooler cutaneous surfaces
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10
Q

what is systemic mycoses

A
  1. Serious fungal infections of deep tissue (rare)
  2. Candidiasis (yeast infection) - opportunistic infection of candida albican, which is commensal flora in skin, mucous membranes, and GI tract
  3. aspergillosis - a lethal form of pneumonia caused by aspergillus, a common mold in people with lung diseases or immunocompromised patients
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11
Q

what is fungi

A
  • Intact immune mechanisms and competitions for nutrients provided by the bacterial flora normally keep colonizing fungi in check
  • A disease or an antibiotic therapy can upset the balance, permitting opportunistic infections
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12
Q

what are the 3 types of parasites

A

protozoa, helminths, and parasitic arthropods

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13
Q

what are protozoa

A
  1. Unicellular animals
  2. Ex: plasmodium (malaria) - vector-bone (mosquito)
  3. Ex: entamoeba histolytica (amebic dysentery, or amoebiasis), giardia duodenalis (giardiasis) - contaminated water and food
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14
Q

what are helminths

A
  1. Wormlike parasites
  2. Ex: roundworms, tapeworms, flukes
  3. Transmission primarily through ingestion of fertilized eggs (ova) or the penetration of infectious larval stages through the skin
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15
Q

what are parasitic arthropods

A
  1. Ectoparasites - mites ( scabies ), chiggers, lice (head,body,pubic) and fleas
  2. May serve as vectors of other infectious diseases, such as bubonic plague (fleas)
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16
Q

what are the different modes of transmissions from pathogens

A

penetrations, direct contact, indigestion, inhalation

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17
Q

describe penetrations

A
  1. Any disruption may allow the invasion of pathogens, which normally cannot penetrate intact skin or mucous membranes
  2. Ex: abrasions, burns, needles, insect, and animal bites
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18
Q

what are the two routes of direct contact

A

sex and congenital infections

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19
Q

describe sexually transmitted infections

A
  1. Transmitted by the exposure of the intact skin or membrane to pathogens
  2. Ex: gonorrhea, syphilis, chlamydia, and genital herpes
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20
Q

describe congenital infections

A
  1. Infection of a child during gestation or birth from mother (vertical transmission)
  2. Ex: Toxoplasmosis, Others (syphilis, varicella zoster, parvovirus B19), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus infection, and Herpes simplex virus (TORCH infection) and HIV
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21
Q

describe ingestion

A
  1. Cholera, typhoid fever, amoebic dysentery, food poisoning, etc.
  2. The low pH of the gastric acid acts as a barrier for many pathogens, but some are resistant to the low pH (ex: shigella and giardia) → differences in the infectious dose
  3. The normal bacterial flora of the bowel compete with pathogens
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22
Q

describe inhalation

A
  1. Bacterial pneumonia, meningitis, and tuberculosis
  2. Viral infections such as measles, mumps, chickenpox, flu, common cold, and COVID
  3. The respiratory tract is equipped with multiple-tiered defense system (mucous membrane, coughing, antibodies, and enzymes, phagocytosis, etc)
  4. Smoking and diseases such as cystic fibrosis impair the defense system
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23
Q

what are the types of sources for parasites to get in

A

endogenous, exogenous, person, fomites, animal, vector, place

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24
Q

describe endogenous sources

A

Opportunistic infection acquired from the host’s own microbial flora

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25
Q

describe what the sources do

A
  1. Location, host, object, or substance from which the infectious agent was acquired
    –> Who, what, where, and when
26
Q

describe exogenous sources

A

environment
– water, food, soil, air

27
Q

describe person sources

A

direct contact

28
Q

describe fomites as sources

A
  1. An inanimate object contaminated with infected body fluids
  2. Rhinovirus through shared toys
  3. HIV Hepatitis B virus by shared syringes
29
Q

describe animals as sources

A
  • Zoonoses - infectious diseases passed from other animal species to humans
  • Ex: HIV, rabies, plague, flu, SARS, MERS, etc.
  • 70% of emerging viral infections
30
Q

describe vectors as sources

A
  1. Biting arthropod
    - Ex; lyme disease, west nile virus
31
Q

describe place as a source

A
  1. Healthcare associated infection (nosocomial infection)
  2. Community acquired
32
Q

what are the stages of disease courses

A

incubation period, prodromal stage, acute stage, convalescent stage, and resolution stage

33
Q

describe the incubation period

A

Active replication of a pathogen without recognizable symptoms

34
Q

describe the prodromal stage

A
  1. Initial appearance of symptoms
  2. Mild fever, myalgia, headache, and fatigue (somewhat nonspecific)
35
Q

describe the acute stage

A
  1. Max impact of the infectious process
  2. Inflammation and tissue damage (more specific)
36
Q

describe the convalescent stage

A

Progressive elimination of the pathogen

37
Q

describe the resolution stage

A

Tool elimination of a pathogen

38
Q

describe virulence factors

A
  1. Substances or products generated by infectious agents that enhance their ability to cause disease
39
Q

what pathological functions of does virulence factors have?

A

exotoxins, endotoxins, adhesion factors, evasive factors, invasive factors

40
Q

describe exotoxins

A
  1. Proteins released by pathogenic bacteria
  2. Inactivate key cellular constituents (ex: diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis)
  3. Many are superantigens inducing excessive and nonspecific inflammatory responses
    –> Bind to MHC of antigen-presenting cells and t-cell receptors
    –> T cells are activated regardless of the antigen presented on MHC
41
Q

describe endotoxins

A
  1. Lipids and polysaccharides, not released (ex: lipopolysaccharides)
  2. Can induce clotting, bleeding, inflammation, hypotension, and fever (endotoxic shock)
42
Q

describe adhesion factors (adhesion)

A
  1. Bind to macromolecules on surface of host cells
  2. Adhesion is critical for the colonization of the pathogens
  3. Some pathogens form a mucous layer (slime)
43
Q

describe evasive factors

A
  1. Inactivate host’s immune system
  2. Ex: leukocidins form pores in the cell membrane of neutrophils and macrophages
  3. Some pathogens survive and reproduce within phagocytes after phagocytosis by neutralizing lysosomal contents with evasive factors
44
Q

describe invasive factors

A
  1. Facilitate the penetration of anatomic barriers
  2. Ex; pseudomonas aeruginosa collagenase breaks skin
45
Q

what does commensalism mean

A
  1. colonizing bacteria acquire nutrition and host is neither benefit nor are harmed
    –> Commensal bacteria in a human body (normal flora) are 10x more than human cells
46
Q

what does mutualism mean

A
  1. both the microorganisms and the host derive benefits from the interaction
    -> Infectious disease
    -> Infectious agents
47
Q

what does incidence mean

A

The number of new cases of an infectious disease that occur within a defined population ( ex: per 100,000 people ) over an established period of time ( ex: monthly, quarterly, yearly)

48
Q

what does disease prevalance mean

A

The number of active cause at a given time in a population

49
Q

what does endemic mean

A

Describes relatively stable incidence and prevalence in a particular geographical region

50
Q

what does epidemic mean

A

Describes an abrupt and unexpected increase in the incidence of disease over endemic rates

51
Q

what does pandemic mean

A

Refers to the spread of disease beyond continental boundaries

52
Q

what do fomites mean

A

An animate object contaminated with infected body fluids

53
Q

what do zoonoses mean

A

Infectious diseases passed from other animal species to humans

54
Q

what do nosocomial infection mean

A

Healthcare associated infection

55
Q

what does congenital infection mean

A

Infection of child during gestation or birth from mom

56
Q

what does prodromal stage mean

A

Initial appearance of symptoms

57
Q

what does acute stage mean

A

Max impact of infectious process

58
Q

what does convalescent stage mean

A

Progressive elimination of the pathogen

59
Q

what is a exotoxin

A

Proteins released by pathogenic bacteria

60
Q

what is a endotoxin

A

Can induce a lot of things (endotoxic shock)

61
Q

what is a superantigen

A

Induces excessive and nonspecific inflammatory responses

Patho 2023 (37 decks)

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