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ANSC 220 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

How do oxygen and carbon dioxide transport down gradients in tissues and capillaries?

A

Passive diffusion

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2
Q

What is ventilation?

A

Transport of external gas across or into a gas exchange area (bringing air into the lungs or water over gills).

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3
Q

What is respiratory exchange?

A

Gas diffusion between the external environment and the animal internal body (diffusion of air oxygen from the lungs or gills into blood vessels).

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4
Q

What are the steps of external respiration?

A
  1. Ventilation
  2. Respiratory exchange
  3. Circulation
  4. Cellular exchange
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5
Q

Describe the circulation step of external respiration.

A

The transport of gas throughout the body in the extracellular fluid.

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6
Q

Describe the cellular exchange step of external respiration.

A

Gas diffusion between the extracellular fluid and the tissue cell.

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7
Q

What is tidal ventilation?

A

Air moves in and out through the same opening by inhalation and exhalation (mammals)

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8
Q

What is flow-through ventilation?

A

Water or air enters one opening and leaves through a separate opening (fish)

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9
Q

What is more efficient, tidal ventilation or flow-through ventilation?

A

Flow-through ventilation

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10
Q

Describe ventilation in birds (simple description).

A

A combination of tidal and flow-through ventilation.

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11
Q

In bats during flight, __% of body CO2 is exchanged through the ____.

A

12, wings

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12
Q

1-2% of CO2 and O2in other animals can be exchanged through the ___.

A

skin

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13
Q

Describe the flow of the respiratory tract in mammals.

A

Nasal passages, pharynx, larynx, trachea, primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

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14
Q

What increases tidal volume in horses and cheetahs?

A

Pliable nostrils

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15
Q

What are maxilloturbinals?

A

Thin curls of cartilage and bone covered skin deep in the nasal cavity that help retain animal heat and moisture.

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16
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

The common passageway for food and air before the trachea and esophagus.

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17
Q

What is the larynx?

A

The gatekeeper of the trachea and respiratory tract

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18
Q

What does the larynx consist of?

A

Many articulating cartilage structures including the epiglottis, glottis, thyroid cartilage, and vocal folds/cords.

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19
Q

What is the trachea?

A

The long tube with collagen rings for which air passes leading into the lungs.

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20
Q

What does the trachea divide into?

A

The left and right primary bronchi, each entering a lung (has collagen rings).

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21
Q

What do the primary bronchi branch into?

A

The secondary bronchi entering different lung lobes (has collagen rings).

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22
Q

What do the secondary bronchi branch into?

A

Bronchioles

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23
Q

What are bronchioles wrapped with?

A

Smooth muscle

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24
Q

What controls the diameter of bronchioles?

A

The autonomic nervous system

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25
Q

What do the bronchioles end with?

A

Alveoli

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26
Q
A
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27
Q

What are alveoli?

A

Hollow sacs where air gas is exchanged with pulmonary capillaries.

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28
Q

Alveoli _______ distance of gas diffusion and _______ lung surface area.

A

decrease, increase

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29
Q

How many cells layers make up the alveolar wall?

A

One (thin, type 1 alveolar cells)

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30
Q

How big is the space between air in alveolus and RBC in capillaries?

A

50x thinner than a piece of paper

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31
Q

What is the purpose of type II alveolar cells?

A

They secrete pulmonary surfactant

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32
Q

What is pulmonary surfactant?

A

A solution that reduces surface tension inside of alveolus so it remains open or expanded for gas exchange.

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33
Q

What do alveolar microphages do?

A

Provide a defense mechanism against microorganism and foreign material.

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34
Q

How many alveoli do human lungs have?

A

300 million

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35
Q

Smaller animals have ____ alveoli and alveolar capillaries.

A

more

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36
Q

What is pleura?

A

Connective tissue that lines outside each lung and is continuous with thoracic wall.

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37
Q

What is visceral pleura?

A

Pleura covering the lungs

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38
Q

What is parietal pleura?

A

Pleura covering the thoracic wall and diaphragm.

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39
Q

What is the pleural sac?

A

The space between visceral and parietal pleura with lubricating fluid. The space is sometimes referred to as the intrapleural space or cavity.

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40
Q

What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level?

A

760 mmHg at sea level

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41
Q

What is atmospheric pressure?

A

The pressure of atmospheric gas on earth’s surface at sea level

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42
Q

What is intra-alveolar pressure?

A

Pressure in alveoli (760 mmHg when equilibrated with atmosphere)

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43
Q

What is pleural cavity pressure?

A

Pressure in the pleural cavity (756 mmHg)

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44
Q

Why do lungs tend to expand with the thoracic wall?

A

Intrapleural fluid cohesiveness and intramural pressure gradient

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45
Q

What is intrapleural fluid cohesiveness?

A

Fluid along the thoracic wall (intrapleural fluid) sticks to the lungs. When the thoracic cavity expands, it pulls lungs with it.

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46
Q

What is the intramural pressure gradient?

A

Pressure in lungs is greater than in the thoracic cavity. When the thoracic cavity expands, the lungs expand with it.

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47
Q

Describe what happens/the conditions present before inhalation.

A

Intra-alveolar pressure equals atmospheric pressure. Air does not move into the lungs.

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48
Q

Describe what happens when inhalation begins.

A

Contraction of thoracic muscles (intercostal and diaphragm) expands thoracic cavity (pleural cavity) and intrapleural pressure decreases to 754 mmHg

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49
Q

Describe what happens during inhalation.

A

Lungs expand to fill the larger thoracic cavity and intra-alveolar pressure becomes sub-atmospheric (759 mmHg). Air is pulled into the lungs.

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50
Q

Describe what happens/the conditions present when inhalation ends.

A

Atmospheric pressure moves air down its gradient into lungs until atmospheric and intra-alveolar pressures equilibrate.

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51
Q

Describe what happens during exhalation.

A

The thoracic muscles relax and recoil, Intra-alveolar pressure increases about 1 mmHg (761 mmHg) above atmospheric, and air moves out of the lungs.

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52
Q

What does lung recoil allow for?

A

It allows for the lungs to return to pre-inhalation size

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53
Q

What is lung recoil contributed to?

A

Stretchy elastin protein in lung tissue and a thin layer of fluid over intra-alveolar surface.

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54
Q

What is the importance of pulmonary surfactant?

A

It slightly reduces surface alveolar liquid tension so that it is not too great. It prevents alveolus from collapsing during exhalation and allows it to expand during inhalation.

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55
Q

What comprises pulmonary surfactant?

A

Proteins and lipids

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56
Q

What is total lung capacity (TLC)?

A

The max amount of air lungs can hold

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57
Q

What is the total lung capacity of a horse?

A

42 L

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58
Q

What is the total lung capacity of a human?

A

5.7 L

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59
Q

What is resting tidal volume (rTV)?

A

The volume of air entering or leaving the lungs during a single breath.

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60
Q

What is the resting tidal volume of a horse?

A

4-6 L

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61
Q

What is the resting tidal volume of a human?

A

0.4-0.5 L

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62
Q

What is functional residual capacity (FRC)?

A

The volume of air remaining in lungs after normal passive exhalation.

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63
Q

What is the functional residual capacity of a horse?

A

24 L

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64
Q

What is the functional residual capacity of a human?

A

2.2 L

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65
Q

What is residual volume (RV)?

A

The minimal volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a maximal exhalation.

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66
Q

What is the residual volume of a horse?

A

12 L

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67
Q

What is the residual volume of a human?

A

1.2 L

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68
Q

What is vital capacity (VC)?

A

The maximal volume of air that can be moved out during a single breath following a maximal inhalation.

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69
Q

What is the vital capacity of a horse?

A

30 L

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70
Q

What is the vital capacity of a human?

A

4.5 L

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71
Q

What is the pulmonary or minute ventilation (PV)?

A

The volume of air breathed in and out of respiratory tract in one minute.

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72
Q

How is pulmonary ventilation calculated and measure?

A

Measure in L/min and calculated with resting tidal volume (L/breath) x respiratory rate

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73
Q

Why is pulmonary ventilation unable to provide a precise estimate of gas exchange?

A

Anatomical dead space

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74
Q

What is anatomical dead space?

A

The part of the respiratory system not involve in gas exchange but can hold air.

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75
Q

What is the anatomical dead space of a horse?

A

1.8 L

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76
Q

What is the anatomical dead space of a human?

A

0.15 L

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77
Q

What is alveolar ventilation?

A

The volume of air exchanged between the atmosphere and alveoli per minute. More accurate measurement for ventilation.

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78
Q

What is the alveolar ventilation of a horse?

A

50.4 L/min

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79
Q

What is the pulmonary ventilation of a horse?

A

72 L/min

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80
Q

How is alveolar ventilation calculated?

A

(Tidal volume -dead space volume/ breath) x respiratory rate.

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81
Q

What does anatomical dead space cause?

A

Mixing of old and fresh inhaled air during tidal ventilation

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82
Q

The atmosphere consists of __% oxygen gas and __% nitrogen gas.

A

29, 71

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83
Q

What is oxygen’s partial pressure in atmospheric air at sea level?

A

160 mmHg (21% of 760 mmHg)

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84
Q

How does gas tend to move?

A

From an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure.

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85
Q

In humans, after inhalation only __% of alveolar air is fresh.

A

15

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86
Q

Why is the percentage of fresh alveolar air so low?

A

Fresh inhaled air is mixed with a large volume of old air in lung dead space.

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87
Q

What is the partial pressure of inhaled O2 in the lungs?

A

100 mmHg

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88
Q

What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the lungs?

A

40 mmHg

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89
Q

What does lung and tissue gas diffusion depend on?

A

Gas partial pressure gradients

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90
Q

What gases bind to hemoglobin?

A

O2, CO2, and hydrogen

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91
Q

What adaptation does the hemoglobin in animals adapted to higher altitudes have?

A

A greater affinity for O2

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92
Q

What protein do horseshoe grabs use to transport oxygen?

A

Hemocyanin

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93
Q

Hemoglobin in mammals appears ____ when oxygenated and ___ when deoxygenated.

A

red, blue

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94
Q

Hemocyanin in horseshoe crabs appears ___ when oxygenated and ___ when deoxygenated.

A

blue, colorless

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95
Q

Antarctic icefish have no ________ or _______.

A

erythrocytes, hemoglobin

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96
Q

What factors effect hemoglobin’s affinity for O2?

A

Increased CO2, Low pH/acidity, increased temperature.

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97
Q

What is CO2 converted to?

A

Carbonic acid

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98
Q

What is temperature important for in relation to affinity of O2 for hemoglobin?

A

It is important for ectoderms

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99
Q

__% of O2 in blood is bound to hemoglobin.

A

99

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100
Q

What is the O2 that is not bonded to hemoglobin dissolved in?

A

Plasma

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101
Q

How much CO2 is bound to hemoglobin?

A

25%

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102
Q

What enzyme in red blood cells converts carbonic acid to bicarbonate?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

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103
Q

What percentage of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate?

A

60%

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104
Q

Why is bicarbonate important?

A

It is transported back into the plasma to act as a pH buffer

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105
Q

What does low ventilation and too much CO2 result in?

A

A build up of carbonic acid

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106
Q

What extrinsic factors regulate airways in mammals?

A

Parasympathetic stimulation and sympathetic stimulation

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107
Q

How does parasympathetic regulation effect airways?

A

It promotes bronchoconstriction and airway resistance

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108
Q

How does sympathetic stimulation effect airways?

A

It promotes bronchodilation and decreased airway resistance

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109
Q

What intrinsic factors regulate airways in mammals?

A

Local increase in CO2 increases relaxation of airway smooth muscle.

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110
Q

Large blood flow causes small airflow to tissue, which causes an increase in CO2. How does the body counteract that?

A

Relaxation of local airway smooth muscle and dilation of local airways, causing a decrease in airway resistance.

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111
Q

Large blood flow causes small airflow to tissues, which causes a decrease in O2. How does the body counteract that?

A

Increased contraction of local pulmonary-arteriolar smooth muscle and constriction of local blood vessels, causing an increase in vascular resistance.

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112
Q

Where is the respiratory center in the brain?

A

The brains stem medulla oblongata

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113
Q

What does the dorsal respiratory group (DRG) contain?

A

Inhalation neurons that terminate on motor neurons supplying inhalation muscles

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114
Q

Inhalation requires ______ neuron activity and exhalation requires _______ neuron activity (DRG)

A

increased, decreased

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115
Q

What is respiratory rhythm driven by?

A

Higher order neurons with pacemaker activity

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116
Q

What does the ventral respiratory group (VRG) contain?

A

Inhalation neurons and exhalation neurons

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117
Q

When is the VRG utilized?

A

During active breathing when demands for ventilation increase

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118
Q

What does the medulla adjust the rate and depth of ventilation in response to?

A

Input from central and peripheral chemoreceptors

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119
Q

What is arteriole O2 monitored by?

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic arteries.

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120
Q

What is increased arterial CO2 detected by?

A

Central chemoreceptors in medulla near respiratory center

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121
Q

What is the most powerful stimulus for increased ventilation?

A

Increased arterial CO2 detected by central chemoreceptors in the medulla.

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122
Q

What are peripheral and central chemoreceptors sensitive to (other than O2 or CO2)?

A

Hydrogen ions

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123
Q

What helps to control animal acid-base balance?

A

Increase CO2 or lactic acid increases ventilation, increasing pH.

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124
Q

What are immediate changes in ventilation due to exercise caused by?

A

Anticipation, stress responses, and body movement

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125
Q

What does increased ventilation do to animal body temperature?

A

It decreases the temperature/ cools the animal down

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126
Q

What is hypoxic hypoxia?

A

Reduction in available O2

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127
Q

What is anemic hypoxia?

A

Reduction in O2 carrying capacity of blood

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128
Q

What causes anemic hypoxia?

A

Decrease in RBC, hemoglobin (Hb), Hb poising (carbon monoxide)

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129
Q

What is histotoxic hypoxia?

A

Reduction in tissue’s ability to use O2

130
Q

What is a cause for histotoxic hypoxia?

A

Cyanide poisoning blocks oxidative phosphorylation

131
Q

What are hypercapnia and hypocapnia?

A

Increased and decreased CO2

132
Q

What causes hypercapnia and hypocapnia?

A

Hypoventilation and hyperventilation

133
Q

What is apnea?

A

Cessation or reduced breathing

134
Q

What is the function of the digestive system?

A

To transfer nutrients and water from the external environment to the internal animal environment

135
Q

What is the foregut?

A

The region of the digestive system before the stomach

136
Q

What is the midgut?

A

The stomach

137
Q

What is the hindgut?

A

The region of the digestive system after the stomach

138
Q

What does the digestive system use to aid in digestion?

A

Enzymes, acidic molecules, and bacteria.

139
Q

Where are nutrients absorbed?

A

Across the digestive tract epithelium into animal blood or lymphatic vessels.

140
Q

Describe carnivores.

A

Animals that eat other animals. Have a high protein and fat diet. Simple, one chambered stomach. Uses enzymes and acidic molecules to digest protein.

141
Q

Describe omnivores.

A

Animals that eat plants and other animals. Simple, one-chambered stomach. Food type may depend on animal’s life stage and food availability. Includes most birds.

142
Q

Describe herbivores.

A

Eat mostly plants. Microbes aid in digestion through fermentation and break down tough plant polysaccharides (cellulose). Includes one bird.

143
Q

What is hindgut fermentation?

A

Animals with a simple stomach but with an enlarged cecum that houses bacteria for fermentation.

144
Q

What animals are hindgut fermenters?

A

Horses and rabbits

145
Q

What is foregut fermentation?

A

Animals with a multi-chambered stomach that houses bacteria in some chambers for fermentation. Found in ruminants.

146
Q

What are some examples of foregut fermenters?

A

Cattle, sheep, deer, and giraffe

147
Q

What are the regions of the large intestine in horses?

A

The cecum, the large colon, and the small colon

148
Q

What is the valve that leads to the cecum in rabbits called?

A

The Ileo-caecal valve

149
Q

What are the regions of the cecum in rabbits?

A

The cecum and the caecal appendix

150
Q

What are the regions of the large intestine in rabbits?

A

The cecum, the proximal colon, the fusus coli, and the distal colon.

151
Q

What is motility?

A

Mixing and moving food through the digestive tract.

152
Q

How is motility achieved?

A

Digestive tract smooth muscle

153
Q

How do pacesetter cells effect digestive tract smooth muscle?

A

They initiate slow-wave potentials that cause rhythmic, spontaneous fluctuations in membrane potential.

154
Q

What triggers true action potentials in digestive tract smooth muscle?

A

Endocrine hormones, the nervous system, or food within the digestive tract.

155
Q

What is secretion?

A

Digestive tract epithelium secretes water, ions, enzymes, mucus, and/or acidic molecules into the digestive tract lumen.

156
Q

What is mucosa?

A

Epithelium specialized for secretion

157
Q

What is digestion mostly accomplished by?

A

Hydrolase enzymes and enzymatic hydrolysis

158
Q

What is enzymatic hydrolysis?

A

The separation of molecules using water

159
Q

What is gastric juice?

A

Acid molecules (HCl) in the stomach that denatures proteins and activates enzymes

160
Q

Where does absorption occur in the digestive tract?

A

The mid and hindgut regions, particularly the small and large intestine.

161
Q

What are intestines?

A

Long organs with many folds along lumen to increase surface area for absoprtion

162
Q

How are food molecules and water transported through epithelium?

A

By assisted membrane transporters

163
Q

Proteins are broken down into _________ which are broken down into _____ ____.

A

polypeptides, amino acids

164
Q

Fats are broken down into _________, which are broken down into ________, which are broken down into ____ _____ _____.

A

triglycerides, monoglycerides, free fatty acids

165
Q

DNA and RNA are broken down into _____ ____.

A

nucleic acids

166
Q

What are some examples of complex glucose polysaccharides?

A

Starch and cellulose from plants, chitin from fungi and exoskeletons of crustaceans and insects, and glycogen stored in animal tissues.

167
Q

What are some examples of disaccharides?

A

Lactose (glucose and galactose), maltose (glucose and glucose), and sucrose (glucose and fructose)

168
Q

What kind of receptors can be found in the digestive system and what do they activate?

A

Chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, and osmoreceptors. They activate the enteric and autonomic nervous systems.

169
Q

What is the enteric nervous system?

A

Two nerve networks in the digestive tract wall.

170
Q

What are the two networks of the enteric nervous system?

A

The myenteric plexus and the submucous plexus

171
Q

What does the enteric nervous system involve and do?

A

It involves sensory receptors, interneurons, and effector neurons that allows the digestive tract to self regulate. It influences the activity of digestive smooth muscle, epithelial secretions, and release of endocrine hormones.

172
Q

What nervous system can step in and control the enteric nervous system?

A

The autonomic nervous system

173
Q

What does the digestive tract in most vertebrates include?

A

The mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine and cecum, and anus.

174
Q

What are the chambers in ruminants?

A

The rumen, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum

175
Q

What does the stomach in birds include?

A

The proventriculus and ventriculus (gizzard)

176
Q

What are accessory organs to the digestive system in most vertebrates?

A

Salivary glands, the pancreas, and the biliary system

177
Q

What does the biliary system include?

A

The liver and in some species the gallbladder

178
Q

What are the components of the digestive system before the esophagus?

A

Nasal passages, hard and soft palate, the bolus, the tongue, the uvula, the pharynx, and the epiglottis

179
Q

What are lips?

A

Pliable tissue important for prehension (seizing food)

180
Q

What does the tongue consist of and what is its function?

A

Consists of skeletal muscle. Has many functions including prehension, drinking, moving food, vocalization, and secretion of antibiotic molecules

181
Q

What do the hard and soft palates do?

A

Separate the oral cavity from the nasal cavity. The allow for chewing and suckling simultaneously when breathing

182
Q

What is the function of the uvula?

A

It closes the nasal passages when swallowing

183
Q

Which is harder, enamel or bone?

A

Enamel

184
Q

What is the function of incisors?

A

Cutting food

185
Q

What is the function of molars?

A

Grinding food

186
Q

What is the function of canine teeth?

A

Catching and killing prey

187
Q

What teeth do ruminants not have?

A

Canines or upper incisors. Grasses are pressed against upper dental pad to tear

188
Q

What are the different salivary glands?

A

Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular

189
Q

What is the function of saliva?

A

Acts as a solvent and helps food molecules stimulate taste buds

190
Q

What does saliva contain?

A

Antibiotics and salivary amylase which begins digestion of starch and glycogen

191
Q

What are other functions of saliva?

A

pH neutralization, animal thermoregulation, and depending on the type of animal, containing venom, anti-coagulants, or pheromones

192
Q

What does ruminant saliva contain?

A

The saliva itself is alkaline. Contains bicarbonates and phosphates to support microbes in rumen

193
Q

How much saliva do cattle produce?

A

140L, half of the animal’s body water passes through the salivary glands

194
Q

What is salivation controlled by?

A

The autonomic nervous system

195
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

The area where nasal and oral cavities meet and where digestive and respiratory tracts meet.

196
Q

What is the esophagus?

A

The organ that serves as a food/water passageway between the pharynx and stomach

197
Q

What is the pharyngoesophageal sphincter?

A

Skeletal muscle that acts as a gate between pharynx and esophagus. Keeps are out of esophagus

198
Q

What is the gastroesophageal sphincter?

A

Skeletal muscle that acts as a gate between the esophagus and stomach. Keeps stomach acid out of esophagus

199
Q

How is swallowing achieved?

A

When a bolus (mass of food) is forces by the tongue into the pharynx, triggering mechanoreceptors to send signals to the medulla oblongata and a series of highly coordinated events in the throat.

200
Q

What is the oropharyngeal stage of swallowing?

A

Closure of the nasal passage with uvula, epiglottis covers glottis, glottis closes and contraction of pharynx muscle forces food into esophagus.

201
Q

What is the esophageal stage of swallowing?

A

Activation of ENS within the esophagus. Results in peristaltic waves of smooth muscle contraction dow the esophagus toward the stomach. Gastroesophageal sphincter relaxes.

202
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

Waves of ring like contraction of smooth muscle around organs of the digestive tract that progressively moves the food bolus forward.

203
Q

What is the bird crop?

A

An enlarged region of the bird esophagus in some species that acts as a temporary food storage center.

204
Q

What is the stomach?

A

Muscular chamber between the esophagus and small intestine. Functions to mix, store, and digest food, particularly protein. Produces chyme.

205
Q

What is chyme?

A

A thick liquid food mixture

206
Q

What are the three regions of the animal stomach?

A

Fundus (upper region where food is stored), corpus or body (middle region where food is mixed with gastric juices), and the antrum or pyloric (lower thick muscular region where chyme is mixed and expelled through pyloric sphincter into small intestine)

207
Q

What is the pyloric sphincter?

A

Skeletal muscle that acts as a gate between the stomach and duodenum of small intestine

208
Q

What happens during stomach filling?

A

Folds in the stomach wall flatten and the stomach relaxes with food. The fundus and body have weak smooth muscle contractions, allowing for food storage, mostly in the fundus.

209
Q

What is the most important promoter of stomach emptying?

A

The volume of chyme (stretch activates smooth muscle activity)

210
Q

What factors other than chyme volume effect gastric emptying?

A

Fat, acid, hypertonicity, and distension

211
Q

What is the greatest inhibitor of gastric emptying?

A

Fat (it takes time to absorb)

212
Q

What are enterogastrones?

A

Hormones produced by the duodenum that reduce pyloric region smooth muscle activity.

213
Q

What is secretin?

A

An enterogastrone that is produced by S cells in the duodenum and jejunum mucosa. The first endocrine hormone discovered.

214
Q

What is cholecystokinin?

A

An enterogastrone that is produced by I cells in the duodenum and jejunum mucosa

215
Q

Mucous cells secrete _____.

A

Mucus

216
Q

Chief cells secrete ______.

A

pepsinogen

217
Q

Parietal cells secrete ____.

A

HCl

218
Q

Which cells are in gastric pits in the fundus and body regions (oxyntic mucosa)?

A

Mucous cells, chief cells, and parietal cells

219
Q

Which cells are in gastric pits in the antrum/pyloric region (pyloric gland area)?

A

G cells and D cells

220
Q

G cells secrete _____, and endocrine hormone.

A

gastrin

221
Q

D cells secret _________, an endocrine hormone.

A

somatostatin

222
Q

How is gastric juice produced?

A

H+ and Cl- are transported by assisted membrane transporters into stomach lumen. H+ and OH- are produced from water in parietal cell and H+ is transported into lumen by H+/K+ ATPase pump. Cl- concentration is greater in cell than in lumen, causing movement of Cl-.

223
Q

What is the pH of the stomach?

A

As low as 2

224
Q

What is the function of HCl?

A

Kills harmful microorgansims and denatures protein, converts pepsinogen to pepsin.

225
Q

What is pepsin?

A

A proteolytic enzyme that breaks peptide bonds and digests protein in low pH environments

226
Q

What causes carbohydrate digestion?

A

Swallowed salivary amylase

227
Q

Why doesn’t salivary amylase break down?

A

It is protected by the food it is in.

228
Q

How is the stomach protected?

A

Chief cells make pepsinogen in inactive form to protect their own cytoplasm. Stomach mucosa secretes alkaline mucus several layers thick. Tight junctions between epithelial cells block H+ and HCl reentry into stomach tissue.

229
Q

How often is stomach mucosa in humans replaced?

A

Every 3 days

230
Q

What is the cephalic phase of gastric juice production and what is it related to?

A

Related to the brain. Anticipation of food stimulated secretion of HCl and pepsinogen . Involves activation of vagus nerve, enteric nervous system, and the release of ACh and gastrin.

231
Q

What is the gastric phase of gastric juice production and what is it related to?

A

Related to the stomach. Stomach stretch and protein within stomach stimulates HCl and pepsinogen. Involves release of ACh and gastrin.

232
Q

What is the intestinal phase of gastric production and what does it relate to?

A

Relates to the small intestine. Protein in small intestine stimulates small intestine to release gastrin.

233
Q

What inhibits gastric juice production?

A

Decrease in protein within stomach, increase in stomach acidity (stimulates D cells to secret somatostatin, inhibiting HCl and gastrin secretion), and MOST IMPORTANTLY an increase in fat, stretch, or hypertonicity in small intestine

234
Q

Who studied human digestion?

A

William Beaumont and Alexis St. Martin

235
Q

What is the gizzard?

A

The bird muscular stomach to mechanically breakdown food

236
Q

What is the connective tissue lining of the gizzard?

A

Koilin

237
Q

How does the pancreas aid in dugestion?

A

It secretes enzymes into duodenum to help further digest chyme

238
Q

What are the major proteases?

A

Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, and procarboxypeptidase.

239
Q

What is the function of trypsinogen?

A

It is converted by enterokinase to trypsin in duodenum. Trypsin converts more trypsinogen into trypsin. Helps to digest protein.

240
Q

What is converted by trypsin into chymotrypsin?

A

Chymotrypsinogen

241
Q

What is converted by trysin into carboxypeptidase

A

Procarboxypeptidase

242
Q

What are the functions of amylase and chitinase?

A

Break down of carbohydrates

243
Q

What is the function of lipase?

A

Break down of fat into triglycerides

244
Q

What do high levels of acid in the duodenum cause?

A

Release of secretin hormone, stimulating pancreas duct cells to secrete sodium bicarbonate, increasing pH.

245
Q

What do high levels of fat and protein in the duodenum trigger?

A

Triggers the release of CCK hormone, reducing gastric emptying and stimulating pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes, lipases, and proteases.

246
Q

What is the most important metabolic organ in animals.

A

The liver

247
Q

What does the liver consist of?

A

Hepatocytes and kupffer cellls

248
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A

Sampling and processing of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins from digestive tract and detoxification/break down of body molecules considered waste. Glucose synthesis and storage as glycogen, secretion of bile salts into gallbladder to emulsify and break down fats. Fat, iron, copper and vitamin storage, and activation of vitamin D. Synthesis of plasma proteins, particularly clotting factors. Removal of bacteria and old RBCs

249
Q

Where do nutrient absorbed from the digestive system travel?

A

They enter blood venous system

250
Q

Where does blood leaving the stomach and intestines travel?

A

The hepatic portal vein which branches into sinusoids.

251
Q

What are sinusoids?

A

Small capillaries in the liver.

252
Q

What happens to digestive products leaked out of sinusoids?

A

They are sampled by hepatocytes that help with digestive molecule storage, processing, and detoxification

253
Q

What forms bile salts?

A

Hepatocytes

254
Q

Where does bile exit the liver?

A

The hepatic vein, which joins the vena cava

255
Q

What do hepatic ducts do?

A

Trasport bile salts to gallbladder.

256
Q

What is the function of bile salts?

A

To emulsify and separate fat for digestion, absorption, and pancreatic lipase digestion

257
Q

Where are bile salts released from the gallbladder?

A

Into the duodenum

258
Q

How much bile do human produce a day?

A

1 liter

259
Q

What are bile salts produced from?

A

Cholesterol, amino acids, glycerine, or taurine

260
Q

Why are bile salts able to break down fats?

A

They have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions

261
Q

Where is the rabbit gallbladder?

A

At the base of the liver

262
Q

Why is bilirubin grenish/yellow?

A

RBC breakdown

263
Q

What other than bile salts allows for cholesterol, fatty acid, and monoglyceride absorption?

A

Micelles

264
Q

What are the three segments of the small intestine?

A

The duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum

265
Q

What is submucosa?

A

Connective tissue for stretch, includes the ENS submucosal plexus.

266
Q

What is the muscularis externa?

A

Circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers, includes the ENA myenteric plexus.

267
Q

What is the visceral peritoneum (serosa)?

A

The outer connective tissue covering the digestive tract that secretes serosal fluid. Attached to mesentery that suspends intestine in abdominal cavity.

268
Q

What is the brush border?

A

Epithelial cells with microvilli

269
Q

How much doe the small intestine folds, villi, and microvilli increase the length of the small intestine?

A

600 x

270
Q

What is transport of digested nutrients largely driven by?

A

Secondary active transport due to the sodium-potassium ATPase pump along basolateral side

271
Q

What do soidum-glucose (SGLT), sodium-amino acid, and glucose transporters aid in?

A

The transport of molecules towards blood.

272
Q

What does the transport of sodium aid in?

A

The transport/absorption of Cl- and water

273
Q

How is fat transported in small intestine?

A

Passive diffusion (unassisted membrane transport)

274
Q

Large fat droplets are emulsified into smaller units by _____ ____, broken down by ________ _____ into monoglycerides and free fatty acids which form ______ and are absorbed by epithelial cells.

A

Bile salts, pancreatic lipase, micelles

275
Q

What are chylomicrons?

A

Fat droplets coated with phospholipids and proteins inside the cell formed by monoglycerides and fatty acids that reform triglycerides

276
Q

What do chylomicrons undergo?

A

Exocytosis on the basolateral side and enter the lymphatic vessels on the way to the vena cava

277
Q

Which vitamins are fat soluble and located in micelles during absorption?

A

A,D,E, and K

278
Q

Where does most nutrient absorption occur in the intestine?

A

On the duodenum and jejunum

279
Q

What is the ileum important for?

A

Absorption of vitamin B12 and reabsorption of bile salts

280
Q

What factors of the small intestine match animal diet?

A

The type of pancreatic and small intestine enzymes, length of small intestine, and types of cell membrane transporters.

281
Q

What does the hummingbird small intestine contain?

A

Large amounts of sucrose enzyme

282
Q

What is the function of segmentation?

A

To mix and propel chyme through the small intestine in 3-5 hours. Involves smooth muscle contractions a few centimeters apart, forming contraction rings

283
Q

What does segmentation aid in?

A

Helps to expose chyme to small intestine surface for absorption

284
Q

The human small intestine contains ___ L of water from the diet and _ L from gastric juices. Approximately _ L of water is absorbed back into body.

A

2.5, 7, 9

285
Q

How does the small intestine help maintain animal acid-base balance and water and ion concentrations?

A

Water and ion absorption

286
Q

What is the cecum?

A

A blind pouch between the small intestine and large intestine. Important for microbial fermentation of cellulose.

287
Q

What is the appendix?

A

Lymphatic tissue with no digestive function but stores some leukocytes. Considered a vestigial organ with little to no function.

288
Q

What is the large intestine or colon?

A

The long organ between the cecum and rectum. Important for remaining water and ion absorption. Has ascending, transverse, and descending regions in humans.

289
Q

What is the rectum?

A

The end of descending region, digestive exit.

290
Q

What is the cloaca?

A

Renal, reproductive, and digestive exit in amphibians, birds, and egg laying animals

291
Q

What is the purpose of the ileocecal valve and ileocecal sphincter?

A

Ensures transport of contents into cecum and not back into ileum.

292
Q

What helps open ileocecal valve?

A

Gastrin

293
Q

How much can the horse cecum hold?

A

7-8 gallons of food

294
Q

What is the function of the colon?

A

Receive undigested cellulose, remaining bile salts, sodium, and water. Sodium is absorbed and water follows through osmosis. Some fermentation.

295
Q

What is taeniae coli?

A

Bands of smooth muscle that run the length of the cecum and colon, resulting in the formation of haustra pouches

296
Q

How does eating stimulate colon emptying?

A

Through the gastrocolic reflex. Food triggers the release of stomach gastrin and autonomic nervous system, causing strong smooth muscle contractions called mass movements.

297
Q

What triggers the defecation reflex?

A

Fecal induced stretch.

298
Q

What happens during the anal reflex?

A

The internal anal sphincter relaxes, the rectum and colon contract more vigorously, and animal has the urge to defecate. The external anal sphincter is voluntarily controlled.

299
Q

What does fecal material consist of?

A

Undigested cellulose, bilirubin, sodium, water, and bacteria

300
Q

What are fatty acids stored as?

A

Triglycerides in fat

301
Q

What are amino acids used for?

A

Protein synthesis in animal

302
Q

________ and ________ blood glucose levels are needed for animal survival.

A

Constant, consistent

303
Q

What does too much glucose result in?

A

Negative osmotic effects and protein alterations to hemoglobin and collagen, negative effects on eyesight.

304
Q

What does too little glucose result in?

A

Utilization of amino acids as fuel, starvation, and death

305
Q

What are major storage sites for glucose as glycogen?

A

Liver and skeletal muscle

306
Q

What happens during feasting?

A

Ingested nutrients are being absorbed by gut and enter the blood. Glucose is used for energy and then stored as glycogen. Fatty acids and amino acids are stored as triglycerides and protein.

307
Q

What happens during fasting?

A

Nutrient absorption has finished, and nutrients decrease in blood. Glucose released from liver and muscle glycogen stores is used for energy.

308
Q

What happens during continued fasting?

A

Triglycerides and protein are used for energy.

309
Q

What are the roles of insulin and glucagon?

A

Regulate glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid storage and utilization during feasting and fasting cycles.

310
Q

What are islets of langerhans?

A

Clusters of endocrine cells in pancreas.

311
Q

Beta cells produce ______.

A

Insulin

312
Q

Alpha cells produce _______.

A

Glucagon

313
Q

What does insulin do?

A

Lowers blood glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids and stores them. Promotes activity of cell enzymes involve d in nutrient storage. Promotes cellular glycogen, triglyceride, and protein synthesis.

314
Q

Increased blood glucose levels _______ insulin secretion from beta cells - _______ control.

A

increase, major

315
Q

What other factors increase insulin production?

A

Increased amino acids in blood, food in digestive tract, and food induced parasympathetic activity.

316
Q

Sympathetic activity ________ insulin release, glycogen synthesis, and _______ blood glucose for energy.

A

decreases, increases

317
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

Antagonizes or counter balances insulin action. Increases fuel in blood by increasing liver glucose production and secretion, fat breakdown, inhibits triglyceride synthesis and liver protein synthesis, and promotes degradation of protein in liver.

318
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

Inadequate insulin action and hyperglycemia

319
Q

What is diabetes mellitus type 1?

A

Insulin dependent. Near or total lack of insulin production by pancreatic beta cells. Often related to autoimmune disease targeting beta cells. Insulin provided as treatment.

320
Q

What is diabetes mellitus type II?

A

Non-insulin dependent. Insulin secretion normal or even greater, but tissues don’t respond to insulin. Caused by inactive or unresponsive insulin receptors because of receptor genetic mutation or disruption in receptor signaling. Chronic insulin secretion results in a decrease in a decrease in tissue insulin receptors over time.

ANSC 220 (6 decks)

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