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NZATS Registration Exam study flash cards > Definitions and explanations > Flashcards

Definitions and explanations Flashcards

1
Q

Define cleaning;

A

It is the process of removing all forms of foreign material by employing the mechanical action of washing or scrubbing

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2
Q

Define decontamination;

A

The process by which a person or a surface is made free from all the agents that contaminate the surface and lead to the surface and lead to the spread of infection

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3
Q

Define disinfection;

A

Antimicrobial process to remove, destroy or deactivate microorganisms on surfaces or in liquids

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4
Q

Define pathogen;

A

A pathogen is a tiny living organism such as a bacterium or virus that can produce disease in an individual

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5
Q

Define microorganism;

A

Microscopic organisms which may exist in its single celled form or in a colony of cells

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6
Q

Define aseptic processing;

A

It is defined as the processing and packaging of sterile product into sterilised containers followed by proper sealing with sterilised closure in a manner to control microbiological recontamination

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7
Q

Define antiseptic;

A

These are the substances applied on the living tissues to reduce the possibility of infection and growth of microorganisms

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8
Q

Define asepsis;

A

It is a process in which microbial agents on a living surface are either killed or their growth is arrested

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9
Q

Define AHTR

A

Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

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10
Q

What is a LIM?

A

Line isolation monitor

Detects leakage of current within equipment however, instead of cutting off the power supplied

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11
Q

What is Einthoven’s triangle?

A

Used to determine the electrical axis of the heart in the frontal plane

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12
Q

What does MALES BIT MOA represent?

A

M- mask, Magill’s
A – airway oropharyngeal, nasopharyngeal, Ambu bag, agent
L – laryngoscope, LMA
E – ET tube, emergency drugs
S – Suction under the pillow, syringe, stylet, stethoscope

B – Bag of fluid, bougie
I – IV cannulation
T – tapes, ties

M – Monitoring
O – oxygen cylinder
A – Accessory equipment – air warmers, infusion pumps, fluid warmer

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13
Q

What does the acronym HAEMP represent regarding bariatric airway set up?

A

H-hand hygiene

A – anaesthetic type

E - Environment positioning devices e.g. supports

M – level 2 or 3 machine check

P – sniffing the morning air position

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14
Q

What does NIM stand for?

A

Neural integrity monitor

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15
Q

Define RCD;

A

Residual control device

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16
Q

Define CPP;

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure

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17
Q

Define CBF;

A

Cerebral blood flow

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18
Q

State the relationship between CSF, CBF and ICP;

A

CSF, CBF, ICP are constant so an increase in one should cause a reciprocal decrease in one both remaining two

Vice versa

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19
Q

What are the 3 assessments for the Glasgow coma scale?

A

**Eye opening **

Spontaneous – 4
To sound – 3
To pressure – 2
None - 1

**Verbal response **

Orientated – 5
Confused – 4
Words – 3
Sounds – 2
None - 1

**Motor response **

Obey commands -6
Localising - 5
Normal flexion - 4
Abnormal flexion - 3
Extension - 2
None - 1

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20
Q

What are the 3 consciousness ratings of the Glasgow coma scale?

A

Severe - 3-8

Moderate - 9 - 12

Mild - 13-15

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21
Q

Define ACVPU;

A

Alert

Confusion [new onset or worsening] confusion

Voice

Pain

Unresponsive

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22
Q

Define GCS;

A

Glasgow coma scale

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23
Q

Explain the rule of nines and how it is used to estimate the extent of a burn’s injury;

A

Dividing the bodies surface area into percentages to calculate the extent of the burns injury

Front + back of head and neck = 9%

Front + back of each arm = 9%

Chest = 9%

Stomach = 9%

Upper back = 9%

Lowerback = 9%

Front and back of each leg and foot 9% each side

Genital area = 1%

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24
Q

Discuss fourth degree burn;

A

Go through both layers of skin and underlying tissue as well as deeper tissue, possibly involving muscle and bone

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25
Q

Discuss third degree burn;

A

Destroys the epidermis and dermis

This may go into the subcutaneous tissue

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26
Q

Discuss second degree burn;

A

Involves the epidermis and part of the lower layer of skin - dermis

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27
Q

Discuss first degree burn;

A

Effect the outer layer of skin – superficial

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28
Q

Define vasovagal;

A

Over activity of the vagus nerve resulting to a temporary fall in blood pressure, heart rate, fainting

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29
Q

Define anastomosis;

A

Surgical connection between two structures usually between tubular structures

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30
Q

Define diagnosis of compartment syndrome;

A

Increased pressure in a confined space that causes significant pain and can decrease blood flow

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31
Q

Define reaming;

A

Technique used with rotational cutting tools known as reamers. Used to remove cartilage from the acetabulum

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32
Q

What is a LSCS?

A

Lower segment caesarean section

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33
Q

Give 5 reasons why a women would require an emergency LSCS

A

Prolonged labour

Foetal distress

Cord prolapses

Exhaustion

Placenta problem

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34
Q

Give three medical reasons why a women might be offered a LSCS;

A

Birth Defects

Abnormal positioning

Chronic health conditioning

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35
Q

Define epistaxis;

A

nosebleed

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36
Q

Define the coroner’s clot

A

Occult hidden clot of blood remaining in the nasopharynx behind the soft palate following surgery or trauma which can cause a fatal airway obstruction following extubation

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37
Q

Define pharmacokinetics;

A

The study of how the body interacts with administered substances for the entire duration of exposure

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38
Q

Define pharmacodynamics;

A

The study of the molecular, biochemical and physiologic effects and actions on the body

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39
Q

Expand the acronym LASER

A

Light

Amplification

Stimulated

Emission

Radiation

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40
Q

Define scatter regarding radiation;

A

Radiation that spreads out in different directions from a radiation beam when it encounters an object or tissue

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41
Q

State CVC insertion sites

A

Internal jugular

Subclavian vein

Femoral vein

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42
Q

Define bioavailability;

A

The rate and extent to which the rate a drug is absorbed and reaches circulation

IV administration has a bioavilability of 100%

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43
Q

Define toxicity;

A

Chemicals or drug concentrations are at such high levels in the body that they can damage organs and tissues

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44
Q

Define antagonist;

A

A chemical substance that binds to and blocks the activation of receptors on cells preventing a biological response

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45
Q

Define agonist;

A

Is a chemical that binds to a receptor on a cell to cause activation thus causing a response

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46
Q

Define a half-life regarding medications;

A

It is the time taken for half of the drug to be broken down by biological processing

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47
Q

List fractionated blood products available;

A

Plasma

Cryoprecipitate

Platelets

Immunoglobins

Albumin

Irradiated and leuko depleted red blood cells

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48
Q

What is ROSC?

A

Return of spontaneous circulation

Generally detected by arterial pulse palpation and end tidal CO2 monitoring

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49
Q

Define macroshock

A

Larger electrical current passes through the body

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50
Q

Define microshock

A

A small electric current passing directly through the heart and directly sending the patient into ventricular fibrillation

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51
Q

What is the relationship between standard preacautions and infection control?

A

Universal precautions are in place to prevent infections and contamination

Following standard precautions, we can minimise infection spreading which allows for better infection control

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52
Q

OSA

A

Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

53
Q

NOF

A

Neck of Femur

54
Q

MUA

A

Manipulation under Anaesthesia

55
Q

PPE

A

Personal Protective Equipment

56
Q

VT

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

57
Q

TIVA

A

Total Intravenous Anaesthesia

58
Q

RAE

A

Ring, Adair, Elwyn

59
Q

PCA

A

Patient controlled Analgesia

60
Q

MRSA

A

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

61
Q

FiO2

A

Fraction Inspired Oxygen

62
Q

ACF

A

Activated Charcoal filters

or

anterior cubital fossa

63
Q

AAA

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

64
Q

GIK

A

Glucose, Insulin, Potassium

65
Q

DAS

A

Difficult airway Society

66
Q

ASA

A

American Society of Anaesthesiologist

67
Q

IVC

A

Inferior Vena Cava

68
Q

ITM

A

Intrathecal Morphine

69
Q

CLAB

A

Central line Associated Bacteraemia

70
Q

CSE

A

Combined Spinal Epidural

71
Q

EUA

A

Examination under Anaesthesia

72
Q

LMWH

A

Low Molecular Weight Heparin

73
Q

TEG

A

Thromboaelastogram

74
Q

SAH

A

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

75
Q

RIC

A

Rapid Infusion Catheter

76
Q

MI

A

Myocardial Infarction

77
Q

VSD

A

Ventricular Septal Defect

78
Q

THJR

A

Total Hip Joint Replacement

79
Q

PEEP

A

Positive End Expiratory Pressure

80
Q

LIM

A

Line Isolation Monitor

81
Q

IPPV

A

Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation

82
Q

ESBL

A

Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamase

83
Q

HME

A

Heat, Moisture Exchange

84
Q

HELLP

A

Haemolysis Elevated Liver Enzyme and Low Platelets

85
Q

What is Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction

AHTR

A

A life-threatening reaction to receiving a blood transfusion that results from the rapid destruction of donor red blood cells by host antibodies (Can be delayed)

86
Q

What does TRALI stand for and what is it?

A

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury

Repaid onset of excess fluid in the lungs.

Symptoms = acute respiratory distress, fever, bilateral infiltrates on chest

87
Q

What does TACO stand for and what is it?

A

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload

Pulmonary oedema primarily caused by volume excess

Symptoms = acute respiratory distress, cough, pink sputum, decreased SpO2, nausea, pulmonary oedema, raised CVP.

88
Q

What is CO2 measured in?

A

kPa and mmHg

89
Q

What is side stream CO2?

A

Connected to adapter at patient end

Small increase of dead space

Time delay

Moisture trap

90
Q

What is Mainstream CO2?

A

Sample chamber positioned within patient’s gas stream

Increased dead space

Heated to prevent condensation

No time delay

91
Q

What does APL stand for?

A

Adjustable Pressure limiting valve

92
Q

What does MAC stand for?

A

Minimum alveolar concentration

93
Q

What does VIE stand for?

A

Vacuum Insulated Evaporator

94
Q

What does DRSABCD stand for?

A

Check for DANGER

Check for a RESPONSE

SEND for help

Check the AIRWAY

Check for BREATHING

Start CPR

DEFIBRILLATION

95
Q

What are the 4 T’s related to an emergency?

A

Tension pneumothorax,

Tamponade,

Thrombosis,

Toxins

96
Q

What are the 4 H’s related to an emergency?

A

Hypovolemia,

Hypoglycaemia/Hyperkalaemia,

Hypo/Hyperthermia,

Hypoxia

97
Q

Line insulation Monitor

A

An electrical device that monitors a decrease in electrical resistance and alerts to any change

98
Q

Residual Current Device

A

An electrical device that monitors current leakage and shuts off if excess, unexpected current is detected

99
Q

What does UPS stand for?

A

Uninterruptible power supply

100
Q

What does BCIS stand for?

A

Bone cement implantation syndrome

101
Q

What are the patient signs of BCIS?

A

Hypoxia

Hypotension

Or unexpected loss of consciousness occurring around the time of cementation, prosthesis insertion

102
Q

What are the 7 layers of tissue to cut through for a c-section?

A

Skin

Subcutaneous fat

Fascia

Muscle

Peritoneum

Uterus

Amniotic sac

103
Q

What is PEA?

A

Pulseless electrical activity

104
Q

What is SVT?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

105
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

The collapse of part or all a lung

Caused by a blockage of the air passages [bronchus or bronchioles]

106
Q

What are the shockable rhythms?

A

VF / VT

107
Q

What are some non-shockable rhythms?

A

Asystole/PEA

sinus, SVT, PSVT, Afib

108
Q

What are the Defibrillator Instructions?

A

Attach defibrillator pads to patient in the appropriate way

Select energy 200J and press charge

Once charged stop CPR and assess rhythm

If shock advised ensure all staff stand clear of bed

Press shock and immediately restart CPR

109
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Rhino

A

Nose

110
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Lamino

A

Laminar

111
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Encephal

A

Brain

112
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Colono

A

large intestine / colon

113
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Arthr

A

Joint

114
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Angio

A

blood vessel

115
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Myo

A

Muscle tissue

116
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Colpo

A

Vagina

117
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Hyster

A

Uterus

118
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Cysto

A

Bladder

119
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Pneumo

A

Lungs

120
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Thoracic

A

Chest

121
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Orchid

A

Testicles

122
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Gastro

A

Stomach

123
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Salpingo

A

Fallopian tubes

124
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Oculo

A

Eye

125
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Oophro

A

Ovary

126
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Laryngo

A

Layrnx

127
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Derma

A

Skin

128
Q

List this type of surgical anatomy location;

Nephro

A

Kidney

NZATS Registration Exam study flash cards (8 decks)

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