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Basic Knowledge > Donor qualification > Flashcards

Donor qualification Flashcards

1
Q

Applicable state laws must also be followed for obtaining permission from parents or guardians of minors under WHAT age ???

A

Under 17 or legally incompetent adults

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2
Q

The confidentiality of donor records and the traceability of donations must be assured at all times. TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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3
Q

using unique identification numbers for blood donors with each donation, and employing a mechanism which links donors to all previous donations.

A

True

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4
Q

Donors must be informed of the possibility of inclusion in the donor center’s deferral registry and subsequent deferral from future donation. TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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5
Q

Donors must be informed of the notification process for any positive test result, and requirements for reporting to federal or state health agencies. TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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6
Q

This disease is transmitted by a bite of anopheles?
a. P.Vivax
b. Trypanosoma Cruzi
c. Hepatitis C
d. Babesia

A

a. P.Vivax

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7
Q

What is the deferral time for genus Plasmodius?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 12 months
d. 3 weeks

A

b. 3 years

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8
Q

Which parasite is NOT part of Malaria ?

a. Genus Plasmodium
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. Anaplasma phagocytophilum

A

d. Anaplasma phagocytophilum

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9
Q

If a person went to visit a country that is known with high cases of malaria, how long will they need to be deferral is they visit 2 weeks ago ?
a. 3 weeks
b. 2 years
c. 3 months
d. 12 months

A

c. 3 months

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10
Q

Which is not true about P.vivax or P.Falciparium?
a. United states was reduced from one year to three months from the date of last departure from the endemic area (provided no symptoms)
b. Donor with a history, are deferred for three years after becoming asymptomatic.
c. United States was reduced from two years to one year from the date of last departure from the endemic area.( Provided no symptoms)
d. Donors who have lived for more than five year in the endemic country are deferred for three years after their departure from the enemic country.

A

c. United States was reduced from two years to one year from the date of last departure from the endemic area.( Provided no symptoms)

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11
Q

The FDA requires that donors found positive by WNV NAT screening be temporarily deferred from donation for 120 days. TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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12
Q

What is the best method to test for WNV RNA?
a. TMA or PCR
b. Molecular testing
c. Automated test
d. Chemiluminescence immunoassay

A

a. TMA or PCR

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13
Q

TRUE OR FALSE : Mad cow disease is caused by CJD.

A

FALSE : caused by vCJD

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14
Q

What causes the neurodegenerative disorder called transmissible spongifrom encephalopathies TSE ?
a. Dengue fever
b. WNV
c.HBV
d. Prions

A

d. prions

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15
Q

TRUE AND FALSE: Prions disease are usually slowly progressive and are not fatal.

A

False : Are rapidly progressive and always fatal.

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16
Q

What is the deferred time for CJD ??
a. 1 month
b. Permanently
c. 3 years
d. 2 weeks

A

b. permanently

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17
Q

True or False: Unlike CJD, vCJD infects younger individuals, present with phychiatric symptoms, and have a longer course from diagnosis to death.

A

TRUE

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18
Q

Hepatitis viruses, Treponema pallidum, and trypanosoma cruzi is found in what blood component?
a. RBC
b. Plasma
c. Granulocytes
d. Platelets

A

b. Plasma

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19
Q

Babesia and Plasmodium species are found in what blood component ?
a. plasma
b. WBC
c. RBC
d. platelets

A

c. RBCs

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20
Q

Human herpesvirus, Epstein-Barr virus, HTLV I/II, and cytomegalovirus is found in what blood component ?
a. WBC
b. plasma
c. RBC
d. Platelet

A

a. WBCs

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21
Q

A leukoreduced unit will prevent which of the following to be transfused in a patient?
a. HLA
b. HPA-1A
c. CMV
d. HTLV I/II

A

c. CMV

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22
Q

Which of the following is not true ??

a. All initially reactive samples are retested in the same assay system in duplicate for a total of 3 tests performed.
b. A positive screening test results in the destruction of the unit and possibly temporary deferral of the donor.
c. If one or both of the duplicate tests are also reactive, the sample is classified as reactive and is, by definition positive.
d. If both test results are negative, the initially reactive result is resolved as a false positive.

A

b. A positive screening test results in the destruction of the unit and possibly temporary deferral of the donor.

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23
Q

What does not cause a false positive in preanalytical and analytical conditions ?

a. sample integrity
b. bubbles
c. Contamination
d. Inadequate washing and incubation conditions
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

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24
Q

What blood component is MOST likely prone to bacterial contamination ?

a. Leukoreduced RBCs
b. frozen PAS plasma
c. Platelets without preservative in room temperature
d. Washed RBC

A

c. Platelets without preservative in room temperature

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25
Q

Troponema pallidum can be tested by

a. Molecular testing
b. Treponemal test
c. a swap test
d. none of the above

A

b. b. Treponemal test

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26
Q

Which one is not a virus ?
a. Hepatitis A
b. HIV
c. treponema pallidum
d. T-lymphotropic

A

c. treponema pallidum

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27
Q

Which bacterium is associated with Sphyllis ?
a. P.Vivax
b. CJD
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. Treponema pallidum

A

d. treponema pallidum

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28
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Treponemes are relatively active, in particular being heat-resistant.

A

False: treponemes are very fragile and are heat-sensitive

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29
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The risk of syphilis transmission by blood transfusion is very low.

A

TRUE: Storage below 20 C for more than 72 hours results in irreparable damage to the organism so that it is no longer infectious

30
Q

Treponemal tests utilizing automated methods on high throughput instrumentation. What are these test ?
a. enzyme immunoassay
b. chemiluminescent microparticle immunoassay
c. microbead immunoassay
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

31
Q

Nontreponemal assay, such as The rapid plasma regain (PRP) or venereal disease research laboratory (or VDRL) tests, detect the immune response to which releases of what ??
a. lecithin
b Basilophils
c. Cardiolipin
d. Eosinphils
e. Both a and c

A

e. both a and c

32
Q

Straphylococcus epidermidis and Strphylococcus aureus are what kind of bacteria???
a. Gram negative bacteria
b. Treponema pallidum
c. P.vivix
d. Gram Positive bacteria

A

d. Gram positive bacteria : they are usually found on the skin

33
Q

Acinetobacter, klebsiella and Escherichia coli is found in what kind of bacteria ?
a. Gram Negative
b. Plasmodium species
c. Gram Positive
d. anaplasma phagocytophilum

A

a. Gram Negative Bactria: They are found in the gastrointestinal tract

34
Q

Which are the less common bacteria found in blood products?
a. E. Coli, Acinetobacter, and Klebsiella
b. Trepenoma padillum and treponemes
c. Anaplasma phagocytophilum, brucella, and Ehrlichia
d. Straphylococcus aureus and staphylococcus aureus

A

c. Anaplasma phagocytophilum, brucella, and Ehrlichia (transmitted by ticks)

35
Q

B.microti, B duncani, B. divergens, and B. venatorum are tested with what assay approved by FDA that can detect the RNA ??
a. enzyme immunoassay
b. Grifols procleix babesia assay
c. Microbead immunoassay
d. Chemilumininescent immunoassay

A

b. Grifols procleix babesia assay

36
Q

How long are patient deferred for babesia when they test positive?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 3 weeks
d. 1 month

A

a. 2 years

37
Q

What can help the highest risk states reduce Babesia from being transmitted in blood that is also approved by FDA ??
A. Leukoreduced rbc
B. PRT
C. Irradiated rbc
D. NAT
E. B and D

A

E. B and D
The FDA recommends regional, year-round testing using a licensed NAT for babesia, or use of an FDA approved pathogen reduction device.

38
Q

The code of federal regulations were established to require which polices ??
a. Person who have received a blood transfusion are deferred for three months
b. Persons currently or previously testing positive for hepatitis B surface antigen are permanent deferred.
c. Person who have received a blood transfusion are deferred for 4 months
d. Persons with a history of close contact with someone who has a viral hepatitis are deferred for 12 months following their last potential exposure.
e. A,B, and D

A

e. A,B, and D

39
Q

TRUE or FALSE : If a potential donor volunteers a history of a prior diagnosis for HBV or HCV infection (even if their HCV infection has been treated and cured), the donor is permanently deferred

A

TRUE

40
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: HIV is transmitted by blood transfusion more frequently then hepatitis C and Hepatitis B

A

FALSE: Hepatitis B is transmitted more frequently not HIV.

41
Q

What is true about Hepatitis B?
a. HBV is less common in liver disease than HBC
b. Hepatitis B is tested by chemiluminescent microparticle immunoassay
c. Deferral is not required by the FDA until two independent donations test anti-HBV core antigen positive.
d. Anti-HBc develops a few days after the appearance of HBsAG and usually disappears after a few days

A

c. Deferral is not required by the FDA until two independent donations test anti-HBV core antigen positive.

42
Q

What can detect HIV-1 RNA, HBV DNA, and HCV RNA ???
A. Microbead immunoassay
B. Multiplex NAT
C. Grifols procleix babesia assay
D. Enzyme immunoassay

A

B. Multiplex NAT

43
Q

True or False: Hepatitis A is the most commonly reported bloodborne infection on the United States.

A

FALSE : Hepatitis C is the most common. It it transmitted primarily through parenteral exposures to infectious blood or body fluids that contain blood, most commonly through injection drug use.

44
Q

Which genotype is common for HCV??
a. 1
b.5
c.23
d. 3

A

A. 1

45
Q

What test can detect anti-HCV and HCV RNA ??
a. Grifols procleis babesia assay
b. Molecular assay
c. Enzyme immunoassay
d. Chemiluminecence based immunoassay
e. Both c and d

A

e. Both c and d (also pool-NAT screening)

46
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The risk of transfusion-transmitted HIV is extremely high due to current test

A

FALSE : HIV transmission is very low due to current test.

47
Q

How long are patients deferred when they have sex with men ?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 12 months
d. 3 weeks

A

a. 3 months

48
Q

True or False: Anti-HBc develops a few days after the appearance of HBsAG and usually remains detectable temporary.

A

False: It is detected for life !

49
Q

What is Present at relatively low levels during the seronegative window period of early infection.
a. HIV
b. HBV
c. HAV
d. HPV

A

B. Hepatitis B virus : It rises slowly in the window period of early detection

50
Q

HCV antibodies can be detected by what duration ??
a. 1-2 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 4-10 weeks
d. 2-3 days

A

c. 4-10 weeks after infection and are present in approximately 97% of persons after exposure

51
Q

HCV RNA can be detected as early as what duration??
a. 2-3 days
b. 72 hours
c. 2-3 weeks
d. 1-2 weeks

A

d. 1-2 weeks

52
Q

True or false: A seroconversion following HIV infection occurs at approximately 3 months.

A

FALSE: It is 3 weeks

53
Q

What are examples of antibody screening assay when a sample is tested positive for HIV-1 RNA ??
a. Chemiluminescence enzyme immunoassay
b. enzyme-linked immunoassay
c. microbead immunoassay
d. Both b and a

A

D. both b and a
Can be further tested by FDA approved HIV-1 antibody confirmatory assay or by an anti-HIV-2 supplementary assay

54
Q

What can detect HIV RNA, which appears earlier than p24 viral protein or anti-HIV antibody ??
a. enzyme-linked immunoassay
b. microbead immunoassay
c. HIV minipool NAT
d. HIV test

A

C. HIV minipool NAT
It reduces the transfusion-transmitted infectivity window to approximately 9 to 11 days from approximately 22 days if only antibody testing had been performed.

55
Q

How is HTLV transmitted ???
a. Mother to child, Sexual contact, Cellular blood product, and sharing contaminated needs.
b. Sexual Contact, Mucus fluids, and saliva
c. Cellular blood products and mucus fluids.
d. Plasma fraction and plasma derivatives

A

a. Mother to child, Sexual contact, Cellular blood product, and sharing contaminated needs.

56
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: When a patient is transfused with human t-lymphotropic viruses, plasma derivatives and plasma friction will result in a positive test of HTLV.

A

False: Cellular blood products will result in a positive test such as Whole blood, RBC, and platelets

57
Q

True or False: All donors must be tested today for HTLV I/II infection

A

TRUE

58
Q

This virus cause hematological and neurological diseases when an individual is infected ?
a. HIV
b. HTLV
c. Hepatitis
d. Prions

A

b. HTLV

59
Q

What is not true about HTLV indiviuals???
a. Donors who test reactive for anti-HTLV I/II on only one occasion are not required to be deferred.
b. Donors who are reactive for anti-HTLV-I/II on only one occasion are deferred.
c. If the donor is found to be positive upon further testing, such as a second, licensed screening test for HTLV performed on the same donation are deferred indefinitely.
d. The donor tests reactive for anti-HTLV I/II on one or more occasion are deferred indefinitely

A

Donors who are reactive for anti-HTLV-I/II on only one occasion are deferred.

60
Q

In immunocompromised patients, such as hematopoietic stem , organ transplant recipients, pt infected with HIV, CMV, and infants in utero and in very low birth weight can cause sever disease caused by what virus?
a. HIV
b. HTLV-II
c. CMV
d. Hepatis A Virus

A

c. CMV (a human DNA, enveloped virus)

61
Q

What test can be done to detect CMV ??
a. pooling NAT
b. passive particles agglutination
c. both b and d
d. solid phase red cell adherence

A

c. both b and d

62
Q

A single stranded RNA arbovirus spread to humans from mosquitos, mainly of the aedes faimly by what disease ?
a. Hepatitis B virus
b. Herpesvirus-5
c. HIV
d. chikungunya virus

A

D. Chikungunya Virus : There is no vaccines or medicine to treat CHIKV; doesn’t state if they are deferred

63
Q

A single stranded RNA flavivirruses transmitted by Aedes species mosquito. What disease is associated with the virus ??
a. Dengue Fever
b. CMV
c. chikungunya virus
d. P.vivax

A

a. Dengue Fever

The virus can survive in frozen plasma, red cells and platelets which have been associated with transfusion transmission.

64
Q

Why is ID-NAT used instead of MP-NAT for detected WNV??
A. It can detect the low viral titers present in WNV
B. It can detect the high viral titer present in WNV
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

A

A. It can detect the low viral titers present in WNV

65
Q

What are the correct three step process of PCR from start to finish??
a. Denaturing, elongation, taq polymerase
b. Denaturing, annealing, taq polymerage
c. Denaturing, annealing, elongation
d. Elongation, denaturing, annealing

A

c. Denaturing, annealing, elongation

66
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Transcription-mediated amplification(TMA) is an RNA transcription-mediated amplification system using two enzymes to drive the reaction: RNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase.

A

TRUE

67
Q

Which fact is not true for TMA ??
a. TMA is isothermal
b. TMA can amplify DNA or RNA and produce RNA amplicon
c. TMA has very rapid kinetics
d. TMA can amplify only RNA

A

d. TMA can amplify only RNA

68
Q

The platelet PGD is a rapid test that can detect what ??
a. treponema pallidum
b. dengue fever
c. Gram positive and negative bacteria
d. HIV

A

C. Gram positive and negative bacteria

69
Q

What does amotosalen do when used for platelet and plasma components ??
a. It is used to destroy bacteria and viruses
b. It blocks the replication of DNA or RNA by binding between the nucleic acid base pairs.
c. It destroys the nucleic acid base pairs
d. None of the above

A

b. It blocks the replication of DNA or RNA by binding between the nucleic acid base pairs.

70
Q
A

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