Client Objectives and Advice Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 categories are clients split into and what are their protection levels?

A
  • Retail client - limited knowledge and experience, highly regulated, most protected
  • Professional client - more knowledge, more experienced, less regulated
  • Eligible counterparty - deemed to have the same amount of knowledge as the financial services firm, least protected
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2
Q

If an advisor does not have the knowledges, who should they seek help from?

A

Though it is unlikely, advisors can refer to a specialist, specialists are likely to come from within the firm e.g Caz investment team

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3
Q

How are clients assessed? (3)

A

Hard facts (objective details) - name, age, residency, dependents, health, marital status, address, employment details

Soft facts (subjective details) - hobbies, philosophies, views, previous experience

Many clients will not have information on their own files and therefore this may need to be collected from a third party - LoA is needed

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4
Q

What investment objectives needs to be identified? (7)

A
  • Risk - what is the risk tolerance? (High the risk, higher the return, higher the equity allocation)
  • Return - required return needed
  • Time horizon - how long does the client want to be invested
  • Liquidity - will the client need to draw on investments? Are withdrawals needed? Income?
  • Tax - is there a tax bill due? What tax position is the client in
  • Regulatory - trust, charities, pension funds (SIPPs)
  • Other unique circumstances
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5
Q

What types of risks are faced by investors? (6)

A
  • Capital risk
  • Shortfall risk
  • Inflation risk
  • Interest rate risk
  • Currency risk
  • Operational risk
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6
Q

What is capital risk? (2)

A
  • Equities, bonds, alternatives, commodities, property, gilts all face risk of capital loss
  • Government products and national savings products protect against capital risk
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7
Q

What is interest rate risk?

A
  • ## The rate is usually raised by the MPC during times of high inflation
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8
Q

What is inflation risk?

A
  • Rising inflation affects value of investments unless investment returns higher than inflation rate e.g. real return
  • Investors who choose cash deposits as their medium to long term investment face the highest inflation risk
  • Equities aim to return excess in inflation
  • Index linked gilts provide some protection to inflation
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9
Q

What is operational risk?

A
  • People
  • Processes
  • External events
  • Systems
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10
Q

What is shortfall risk?

A

Investment return falls short of the amount required to achieve the clients objective

  • Dividends are not guaranteed as they depend on the companies profit
  • Coupons on corporate bonds are not guaranteed as it depends on whether the issuer is willing to pay them
  • ## Variable rate cash deposits have income risk - interests rates fall, interest payable falls
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11
Q

What is currency risk?

A
  • If a foreign currency depreciates relative to sterling. SPICED
  • Forward contracts provide protection against currency risk - a type of derivative that locks in forward exchange rate in a foreign currency. Should a foreign currency depreciate, a gain will be made on the forward contact which will offset the loss on the foreign asset
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12
Q

How can a firm determine a clients risk tolerance?

A
  • Level of existing wealth
  • Time horizon
  • Age and familial situation / dependents
  • Liquidity needs
  • Spending requirements
  • Financial flexibility
  • Future financial requirements

**only invest what you are able to lose Is important here

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13
Q

How is risk reduced in a portfolio? (4)

A

Diversification

  • Increasing holdings
  • Investing in different regions, sectors and assets
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14
Q

When there is a diversified portfolio, what happens to systematic and non-systematic risk? (2)

A
  • Diversification reduces non-systematic risk/specific risk (e.g. inflation risk) within the portfolio
  • Doesn’t reduce systemic risk
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15
Q

What does specific risk include?

A

Industry, management and business risks

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16
Q

What does systematic risk include?

A

Interest rate risk, inflation risk and currency risk

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17
Q

What is the relationship between correlation and diversification? (3)

A
  • Positive correlation - assets move in the same direction
  • Negative correlation - assets move in the opposite direction e.g. equities and bonds
  • The lower the correlation the greater the diversification benefits
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18
Q

What is the sequence of steps for financial planning? (6)

A
  1. Identify and quantify client objectives
  2. Collect data
  3. Analyse different options and identify shortcomings
  4. Prepare a report and arrange meeting with client
  5. Implement the plan
  6. Monitor and review plan
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19
Q

What is mean variance optimisation (MVO)? (3)

A
  • A computer programme
  • Optimises the risk-return relationship
  • Maximise the return (mean) to minimise the risk (the variance)
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20
Q

How do you choose which fund to pick if they have similar performance and similar asset mix?

A
  • Explicit costs (advisor fees, broker fees, management fees, stamp duty, PTM levy of LSE/Takeover Panel)
  • Implicit costs (bid/offer spread, price impact of trade, opportunity cost, cost of dealing within the fund)
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21
Q

What are the various interest rates for borrowing?

A

BoE base - 0.5%
Mortgage - 2.5-6%
Unsecured loans - 7-15%
Credit cards - 15-20%
Store cards - 20-35%

22
Q

What needs to be considered when repaying debt?

A
  • Liquidity needs
  • Ability to pay
  • Overall risk tolerance
  • Avoid early repayment penalties
  • Repay firstly the debt with highest interest
  • Important for clients to retain liquid assets for any future expenditure
  • When borrowing, consider the ‘after tax’ investment return
23
Q

How is investment performance benchmarked?

A
  • Against relevant equity index
  • Against sector
  • Comparable managers/funds with similar investment objective
24
Q

What is a will?

A

The wishes of an individual when they pass away

25
Q

What is real property?

A

Land, buildings and rights over property - ‘real estate’

26
Q

What is personal property?

A

Within the personal possession of a person - moveable property

27
Q

What is a trust? (6)

A
  • A legal arrangement
  • Governed by a trust deed
  • Settlor - the creator of the trust
  • Trustee - legal owner who manages trust property
  • Beneficiary - recipient of funds who benefits from the trust
  • Trust property - anything that is put into legal ownership of the trustee
28
Q

What are the features of a contract? (5)

A
  • Consideration - both side must gain something e.g. fee/service
  • Intention to contract
  • Terms and conditions
  • Types of contracts - written contracts are easier, though oral contracts are binding too
  • Capacity to contract
29
Q

What impacts an individuals capacity to contract? (4)

A
  • A minor (under 18)
  • A bankrupt person
  • A mentally incapable person
  • A drunk person

*Mental Capacity Act 2004

30
Q

Why may a contract be terminated? (3)

A
  • Lack on intention
  • Unclear terms and conditions
  • No mutual consideration
31
Q

How can a contract be discharged? (4)

A
  • Discharge by agreement - t&c fulfilled
  • Discharge by performance - t&c fulfilled
  • Discharge by frustration - t&c fulfilled
  • Discharge by breach - t&c NOT fulfilled
32
Q

What is a registered document? (2)

A
  • Ownership is recorded on the central register
  • Legal ownership e.g. DVLA
33
Q

What is bearer instruments?

A

Proof of title is physical possession e.g. gold and diamonds

34
Q

What is a nominee account? (2)

A
  • Reduces the burden of admin
  • Registered account
35
Q

What is joint ownership? (2)

A
  • Joint tenancy - on death, assets go to the survivor
  • Tenants in common - assets do not go to the surviver, they are distributed to the estate according to the will
36
Q

What is a power of attorney? (2)

A
  • Assigned when someone does not have the capacity to contract
  • Power to sign documents, make purchases, dispose property and handle financial affairs
37
Q

What are the 3 types of power of attorneys?

A
  • Specific - specific powers to PoA
  • General - discretionary powers to PoA
  • Lasting - appointed when the attorney is in sound mind and made should they lose capacity. Must be registered with Office of Public Guardianship
38
Q

When can a POA be revoked? (3)

A
  • After death
  • The donor revokes the POA
  • The donor goes bankrupt
39
Q

What is insolvency? (2)

A
  • When a company cannot pay its debts
  • Liabilities outweigh assets
40
Q

What are the 4 approaches to insolvency?

A
  • Liquidation - the courts rule that the company should be wound up, assets sold and creditors repaid
  • Company voluntary arrangement - a formal agreement to make repayments
  • Informal arrangement - informal agreement to make repayments
  • Administration - breathing space - protection from creditors until plan is in place
41
Q

What is bankruptcy? (2)

A
  • The legal state of companies and individuals being unable to pay their debts now and in the future
  • Can be petitioned if debt is more than £5,000
42
Q

Who cannot be made bankrupt? (3)

A
  • The deceased
  • An infant
  • A spouse of a bankrupt person is treated as a separate individual meaning creditors have no claims to their assets
43
Q

What is an individual voluntary arrangement? (2)

A
  • Less expensive alternative to bankruptcy for individuals
  • 75% of creditors need to vote in favour of the repayment plan
44
Q

What are wills? (5)

A
  • Specify how assets are to be distributed
  • Who is responsible for children
  • Who will benefit from estate
  • Must be in writing, willingly made, by a person of mental capacity, by a person over 18 years of age, no pressure from anyone else
  • Signed and witnessed by 2 individuals
45
Q

What are the different types of trust? (4)

A
  • Discretionary trust - trustees distribute assets at their discretion
  • Bare trust - trustees takes a nominee role only for beneficiaries
  • Interest in possession - beneficiaries gain rights to all the income from the trust, but not the trust itself
  • Charitable trust - a discretionary trust set up as a company or companies - tax benefits
46
Q

What Act are trusts governed by? (4)

A
  • The Trustee Act 2000
  • Trustees have a statutory duty of care
  • Expected to act with a degree of skill and care which is appropriate to their knowledge, expertise and experience
  • Should regularly review the investment at least once a year
47
Q

What are the 2 types of investors in this unit?

A
  • Individual including retail and professional clients
  • Institutional including pension funds and insurance companies
48
Q

What are the continuing obligations to clients? (3)

A
  • Suitability
  • Treating customers fairly
  • The need to refer to specialists
49
Q

What different assets are used to achieve objectives? (4)

A
  • Income: bonds, gilts,
  • Capital growth: equities
  • Tax wrappers: EIS, VCTs
  • Liquidity: cash
50
Q

What is the difference between dying intestate and testate? (2)

A
  • Died testate - valid will. Executors - carry out will and ‘grant probate’
  • Died intestate - no will or no valid will. Administrators gain a letter of administration.
51
Q

What is a deed of variation? (1)

A
  • Can change the will of the deceased person to save the family money
52
Q

What are national intestacy rules? (2)

A
  • Encourage the person to dictate how assets are distributed
  • Courts rather the person decide who is the guarding of their children