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1staidANASCI2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Damage to the medulla would impair function of which cranial nerve nuclei?
    A. V, VII, IX
    B. III, IV, VI
    C. IX, X, XII
    D. X, XI, XII
    E. V, VII, X
A

C. IX, X, XII

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2
Q
  1. If one had a malfunction of pancreatic delta
    cells, which of the following would be
    impaired?
    A. Insulin production
    B. Trypsinogen production
    C. Glucagon production
    D. Somatostatin production
    E. Exocrine function
A

D. Somatostatin production

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3
Q
  1. Each of the following is an apocrine function
    of sweat glands EXCEPT
    A. involved intimately with regulation of
    body temperature.
    B. produces pheromones.
    C. secretion is via myoepithelial and duct
    cells.
    D. strictly serous fluid secretion.
    E. cells receive sympathetic adrenergic
    innervation
A

A. involved intimately with regulation of
body temperature

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following portions of the female
    reproductive tract is the site of fertilization?
    A. Uterus
    B. Endometrium
    C. Ovary
    D. Cervix
    E. Ampulla
A

E. Ampulla

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following provides localized
    attachment of epithelium to connective
    tissue?
    A. Hemidesmosome
    B. Zonula adherens
    C. Zonula occludens
    D. Desmosome
    E. Gap junction
A

A. Hemidesmosome

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6
Q
  1. A-gamma fibers function in
    A. touch sensation.
    B. muscle spindle apparatus.
    C. pressure sensation.
    D. temperature sensation.
    E. sharp pain sensation
A

B. muscle spindle apparatus.

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7
Q
  1. The most inferior portion of the trachea, the
    carina, divides into
    A. bronchioles.
    B. segmental bronchi.
    C. main stem bronchi.
    D. alveoli.
    E. lobar bronchi.
A

C. main stem bronchi.

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8
Q
  1. Hilar lymph nodes are located
    A. in the lateral thoracic cavity.
    B. superior to the clavicle and surrounding
    the carotid sheath.
    C. along the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
    D. at the root of the lungs.
    E. at the posterior base of the skull.
A

D. at the root of the lungs.

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9
Q
  1. The submaxillary ganglion receives presynaptic
    efferent innervation from which nerve?
    A. Inferior alveolar
    B. Facial
    C. Buccinator
    D. Maxillary
    E. Lingual
A

E. Lingual

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10
Q
  1. Rivian ducts allow drainage from which of
    the following glands?
    A. Parotid
    B. Sebaceous
    C. Lacrimal
    D. Sublingual
    E. Mammary
A

D. Sublingual

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11
Q
  1. Each of the following is true regarding the
    embryological growth of the kidney EXCEPT
    A. the ureteric bud contributes to the adult
    kidney.
    B. the mesonephros gives rise to the ureteric
    bud and mesonephric duct.
    C. the pronephros ultimately forms the
    epididymis and ductus deferens.
    D. the mesonephros forms before the
    metanephros.
    E. the kidney initially forms in the pelvis
A

C. the pronephros ultimately forms the
epididymis and ductus deferens.

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12
Q
  1. Of the following structures, the Wolffian duct
    ultimately aids in development of the
    A. epididymis.
    B. ureter.
    C. collecting tubules.
    D. ovaries.
    E. uterus.
A

A. epididymis.

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13
Q
  1. Neuroepithelial cells (of the fetal neural
    tube) give rise to each of the following
    EXCEPT
    A. ependymal cells.
    B. leptomeninges.
    C. astrocytes.
    D. neuroblasts.
    E. oligodendrocytes
A

B. leptomeninges.

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence
    of zygotic cell cleavage?
    A. zygote, morula, blastula, blastomere
    B. morula, zygote, blastula, blastomere
    C. blastula, blastomere, morula, zygote
    D. zygote, blastomere, morula, blastula
    E. blastula, morula, blastomere, zygote
A

D. zygote, blastomere, morula, blastula

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15
Q
  1. After what stage of zygote development does
    the zona pellucida disintegrate?
    A. First cleavage division
    B. Two-cell stage
    C. Blastula
    D. Late morula
    E. Early morula
A

C. Blastula

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following locations would
    NOT be considered a location of ectopic
    pregnancy?
    A. uterus
    B. ovary
    C. fallopian tube
    D. cervix
    E. abdomen
A

A. uterus

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17
Q
  1. Meiosis II of sperm development MOST
    LIKELY occurs
    A. in the uterine tube.
    B. in the epididymis.
    C. in the ejaculatory duct.
    D. in the testes.
    E. in the vagina.
A

A. in the uterine tube.

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18
Q
  1. Each of the following muscles receives motor
    innervation from the facial nerve EXCEPT
    A. risorius.
    B. masseter.
    C. orbicularis oris.
    D. mentalis.
    E. buccinator
A

B. masseter.

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19
Q
  1. The jaw-jerk reflex involves efferent signals
    from which of the following cranial nerves?
    A. V-1
    B. V-3
    C. VII
    D. V-2
    E. IX
A

B. V-3

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20
Q
  1. Each of the following is TRUE with regard to
    the carotid sheath EXCEPT

A. the sternocleidomastoid muscle lies
medial to it in the cervical region.
B. it lies anterior to the scalene musculature
in the cervical region.
C. it lies anterior to the thyroid gland.
D. it contains the vagus nerve, jugular vein,
and common carotid artery.
E. it is associated with the carotid sinus
nerve, sympathetic nerves, and lymph
nodes.

A

C. it lies anterior to the thyroid gland.

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21
Q
  1. Suppose you are told that a patient has
    received damage to structures, which are contained
    in the submandibular triangle. Which
    of the following would you NOT consider to
    be affected?
    A. CN XII
    B. Nerve to mylohyoid
    C. Lingual artery
    D. CN X
    E. Submandibular gland
A

D. CN X

22
Q
  1. If a patient is suffering from referred pain to
    the T4 dermatome, it will be felt at the
    A. xiphoid.
    B. umbilicus.
    C. nipple.
    D. inguinal ligament.
    E. neck.
A

C. nipple.

23
Q
  1. If a patient is unable to close his eyes (among
    other symptoms), one must consider damage
    to which of the following cranial nerve
    nuclei?
    A. Main motor nucleus of VII
    B. Nucleus of the solitary tract (of VII)
    C. Spinal trigeminal nucleus of V
    D. Mesencephalic nucleus of V
    E. Motor nucleus of V
A

A. Main motor nucleus of VII

24
Q
  1. Each of the following is TRUE of nystagmus
    EXCEPT
    A. irritation to the cerebellum and cerebral
    cortex can cause it.
    B. it is defined as a rapid, involuntary movement
    of the eyes.
    C. the caloric test using warm water will initiate
    nystagmus to the contralateral side.
    D. the caloric test examines the vestibuloocular
    reflex.
    E. it involves CN VIII lesions
A

C. the caloric test using warm water will initiate
nystagmus to the contralateral side.

25
Q
  1. Movement of the head would be damaged in
    a patient with damage to which of the following
    spinal cord tracts?
    A. Lateral spinothalamic
    B. Tectospinal
    C. Vestibulospinal
    D. Reticulospinal
    E. Anterior spinothalamic
A

B. Tectospinal

26
Q
  1. Which of the following structures are
    involved in steroid synthesis and lipid/glycogen
    metabolism?
    A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    B. Lysosomes
    C. Peroxisomes
    D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    E. Mitochondria
A

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

27
Q
  1. Parafollicular cells are located within the
    A. cortical bone.
    B. kidney.
    C. small intestine.
    D. thyroid gland.
    E. parathyroid gland
A

D. thyroid gland.

28
Q
  1. The esophagus normally contains which type of epithelium?
    A. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous.
    B. Columnar.
    C. Keratinized stratified squamous.
    D. Cuboidal.
    E. Pseudostratified squamous.
A

A. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous.

29
Q
  1. Sperm is stored in the
    A. epididymis.
    B. urethra.
    C. testis.
    D. seminiferous tubules.
    E. prostate gland.
A

A. epididymis

30
Q
  1. Each of the following is a function of skin EXCEPT
    A. sensation of touch, pain, and pressure.
    B. synthesis of vitamin E from ultraviolet
    light.
    C. excretion via sweat glands.
    D. homeostatic regulation of body
    temperature.
    E. protection against physical and chemical
    stresses.
A

B. synthesis of vitamin E from ultraviolet
light.

31
Q
  1. The sphincter of Boyden is located at the
    A. ampulla of Vater.
    B. lower portion of the esophagus.
    C. common bile duct.
    D. rectum.
    E. opening of the duodenum
A

C. common bile duct.

32
Q
  1. The posterior 1/3 of the tongue drains
    directly into the
    A. deep cervical nodes.
    B. submental nodes.
    C. submandibular nodes.
    D. rectopharyngeal nodes.
    E. supraclavicular nodes.
A

A. deep cervical nodes.

33
Q
  1. Damage to the gastric cardiac glands would affect which type of exocrine gland?
    A. Coiled
    B. Tubular
    C. Tubuloacinar
    D. Acinar
    E. Apocrine
A

D. Acinar

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding bone marrow of the maxilla and mandible?

A. It is contained within the medullary
spaces of spongy bone.
B. Red marrow contains fatty cells and is the
predominant marrow type in the
mandibular ramus and condyles.
C. Red marrow contains hematopoietic cells.
D. Yellow marrow contains fatty cells.
E. Yellow marrow is the predominant marrow
type in the maxilla and mandible

A

B. Red marrow contains fatty cells and is the
predominant marrow type in the
mandibular ramus and condyles.

35
Q
  1. Which of the following combinations of
    epithelium is contained in the nasal cavities?

A. Stratified squamous, pseudostratified
ciliated columnar, olfactory
B. Simple squamous, olfactory, simple
columnar
C. Stratified squamous, olfactory, stratified
columnar
D. Simple cuboidal, simple squamous,
simple columnar
E. Stratified columnar, simple squamous,
simple columnar

A

A. Stratified squamous, pseudostratified
ciliated columnar, olfactory

36
Q

Suppose a patient presents to you after having been struck in the chin. Upon examination, you note a laceration of the anterior portion of their tongue accompanied with profuse bleeding.

  1. Each of the following supply blood to the tongue EXCEPT
    A. facial artery.
    B. ascending pharyngeal artery.
    C. lingual artery.
    D. superior laryngeal artery.
    E. external carotid artery.
A

D. superior laryngeal artery.

37
Q
  1. Each of the following muscles could possibly be damaged in this situation EXCEPT
    A. longitudinal.
    B. styloglossus.
    C. hyoglossus.
    D. transverse.
    E. palatoglossus.
A

E. palatoglossus.

38
Q
  1. Which of the following combinations of cranial nerves provide motor innervation to the
    tongue?
    A. VII, X
    B. X, XII
    C. VII, XII
    D. V, XII
    E. VII, IX
A

B. X, XII

39
Q
  1. Which type of taste would most likely be altered if the entire tip of the tongue were
    damaged?
    A. Sweet
    B. Salt
    C. Bitter
    D. Sour
    E. None of the above
A

A. Sweet

40
Q
  1. Relative to fetal development, sclerotome
    cells form
    A. vertebrae and ribs.
    B. skeletal muscle within body.
    C. connective tissue of skin.
    D. skeletal muscle within limbs.
    E. skeletal muscle of the body wall.
A

A. vertebrae and ribs.

41
Q
  1. Formation of which of the following is NOT
    altered in complete bilateral palatal clefting?
    A. Lip
    B. Primary palate
    C. Alveolar process
    D. Inferior nasal turbinate/concha
    E. Secondary palate
A

D. Inferior nasal turbinate/concha

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of
    the eruptive stage of a tooth?
    A. Elongation of cervical loop and formation
    of HERS
    B. Fusion of the REE and oral epithelium
    C. Disappearance of the enamel knot
    D. Formation of the enamel organ
    E. Merging of the OEE with the IEE
A

B. Fusion of the REE and oral epithelium

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding
    cartilage?
    A. It is vascularized.
    B. It contains lacunae
    C. Chondrocytes comprise a large portion
    of it.
    D. It is specialized in areas such as the
    bronchi, Eustachian tube, and knee
    menisci.
    E. It can grow both appositionally and
    interstitially.
A

A. It is vascularized.

44
Q
  1. Suppose a patient presents with altered
    hemostasis. Malfunction of which of the following
    may be the cause?
    A. Monocytes
    B. B cells
    C. Megakaryocytes
    D. Erythroblasts
    E. Granulocytes
A

C. Megakaryocytes

45
Q
  1. If a patient has high levels of bile pigment
    excreted by the liver, increased destruction of
    which of the following may be the causative
    factor?
    A. Neutrophils
    B. Eosinophils
    C. Erythrocytes
    D. Platelets
    E. Macrophages
A

C. Erythrocytes

46
Q
  1. Which of the following regarding gingival crevicular fluid is TRUE?

A. It is comprised mostly of PMNs and
leukocytes.
B. It lacks plasma proteins and epithelial
cells.
C. It is contained mostly within the vestibule
of the buccal mucosa.
D. It lacks function in immune defense.
E. It is not located within the gingival
sulcus.

A

A. It is comprised mostly of PMNs and
leukocytes.

47
Q
  1. The most likely diagnosis for a young patient
    presenting with brownish pigmentation and
    mottling of his dentition would be
    A. congenital syphilis.
    B. nutritional deficiency.
    C. fluorosis.
    D. hypocalcification.
    E. hypomineralization
A

C. fluorosis.

48
Q
  1. Malfunction of which cranial nerve would
    affect the efferent output of the gag reflex?
    A. CN XII
    B. CN V
    C. CN IX
    D. CN VII
    E. CN X
A

E. CN X

49
Q
  1. Each of the following carries deoxygenated
    blood EXCEPT
    A. hepatic vein.
    B. superior vena cava.
    C. inferior vena cava.
    D. pulmonary vein.
    E. coronary sinus.
A

D. pulmonary vein.

50
Q
  1. The gastroepiploic artery forms an anastomosis
    between which two arteries?
    A. Right gastric and hepatic proper
    B. Left gastric and right gastric
    C. Right gastric and short gastric
    D. Splenic and gastroduodenal
    E. Hepatic proper and splenic
A

D. Splenic and gastroduodenal

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