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Pharma 1 > ANS - Feeds > Flashcards

ANS - Feeds Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary clinical use of Neostigmine?
A) Treatment of Myasthenia Gravis
B) Diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis
C) Antidote for Atropine Toxicity
D) Cure for Alzheimer’s Disease

A

A) Treatment of Myasthenia Gravis

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2
Q

Edrophonium is best known for its role in:
A) Maintaining treatment in Alzheimer’s Disease
B) Diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis
C) Providing a cure for Glaucoma
D) Reversing Atropine Toxicity

A

B) Diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis

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3
Q

Physostigmine is primarily used for:
A) Maintenance therapy in Myasthenia Gravis
B) Diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis
C) Treating Atropine Toxicity
D) Curing Alzheimer’s Disease

A

C) Treating Atropine Toxicity

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4
Q

Pyridostigmine is commonly used for:
A) The cure of Myasthenia Gravis
B) Maintenance therapy in Myasthenia Gravis
C) Diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis
D) Antidote for Atropine Toxicity

A

B) Maintenance therapy in Myasthenia Gravis

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5
Q

What is the primary use of Ipratropium?
A) Treatment of Parkinson’s Disease
B) Relief of Asthma Symptoms
C) Management of Antidepressant Overdose
D) Treatment of Allergic Reactions

A

B) Relief of Asthma Symptoms

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6
Q

Thorazine is primarily used as a:
A) Bronchodilator in Asthma
B) Treatment for Parkinson’s Disease
C) Antihistamine for Allergic Reactions
D) Antidepressant

A

D) Antidepressant

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7
Q

Diphenhydramine is commonly used as a:
A) Treatment for Parkinson’s Disease
B) Bronchodilator in Asthma
C) Antihistamine for Allergic Reactions
D) Antipsychotic Medication

A

C) Antihistamine for Allergic Reactions

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8
Q

Benztropine is used primarily in the treatment of:
A) Asthma
B) Parkinson’s Disease
C) Depression
D) Allergic Reactions

A

B) Parkinson’s Disease

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9
Q

Is it true that all sympatholytics decrease libido?
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

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10
Q

Do beta blockers decrease angina?
A) True
B) False

A

A) True

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11
Q

Atropine lasts 4 hours in the body and 24 hours in the eye. Is this statement:
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

Atropine:
Body: 4 hours
Eyes: 72 hours

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12
Q

Atenolol
Acetabutol
Esmolol
Metoprolol

A) Selective Beta Blocker
B) Non-selective Beta Blocker

A

A) Selective Beta Blocker

Selective: A-M
Nonselective: N-Z

Alpha/Beta - Carvedilol & Labetalol

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13
Q

Nadolol
Timolol
Pindolol

A) Selective Beta Blocker
B) Non-selective Beta Blocker

A

B) Non-selective Beta Blocker

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14
Q

Carvedilol
Labetalol

A) Selective Beta Blocker
B) Non-selective Beta Blocker (alpha + Beta)

A

B) Non-selective Beta Blocker (alpha + Beta)

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15
Q

Which muscarinic receptor subtype is primarily involved in the control of sphincter muscles?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3

A

C) M3

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16
Q

Which muscarinic receptor subtype predominantly affects the SA node in the heart?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3

A

B) M2

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17
Q

The AV node in the heart is primarily influenced by which muscarinic receptor subtype?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3

A

B) M2

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18
Q

Which muscarinic receptor subtype is primarily involved in stimulating gastrointestinal secretions?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3

A

A) M1

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19
Q

Which muscarinic receptor subtype is associated with the dilatation of blood vessels?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3

A

C) M3

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20
Q

Bethanechol/Carbachol is classified as a:
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonist

A

A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist
Carbachol directly stimulates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.

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21
Q

Organophosphates are classified as:
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonists
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonists

A

B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonists
Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase, leading to increased acetylcholine levels.

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22
Q

Neostigmine is classified as a:
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonist

A

B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonist - Neostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase, thereby increasing acetylcholine levels.

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23
Q

Pilocarpine is a:
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonist

A

A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist - Pilocarpine directly stimulates muscarinic receptors.

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24
Q

Clonidine can be used in the treatment of:
A) Hypertensive emergency
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Tachyphylaxis
D) Delirium

A

B) Orthostatic hypotension -
Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that can cause orthostatic hypotension as a side effect.

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25
Q

Terbutaline may lead to:
A) Hypertensive emergency
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Tachyphylaxis
D) Delirium

A

C) Tachyphylaxis -
Terbutaline/Ritodrine, a beta-2 agonist, can cause tachyphylaxis, especially when used for prolonged periods.
-Relax uterus during premature labor

26
Q

Tyramine is most associated with:
A) Hypertensive emergency
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Tachyphylaxis
D) Delirium

A

A) Hypertensive emergency -
Tyramine, especially when ingested in large amounts in patients taking MAO inhibitors, can lead to a hypertensive crisis.

27
Q

Atropine is commonly used to treat:
A) Hypertensive emergency
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Tachyphylaxis
D) Delirium

A

D) Delirium -
Atropine can cause delirium, especially in higher doses, due to its anticholinergic effects.

28
Q

The following glaucoma drugs does what effect?
Epinephrine

A. Decrease humor secretion
B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor
C. Ciliary muscle contraction
D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis

A

B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor

29
Q

The following glaucoma drugs does what effect?
Brimonidine

A. Decrease humor secretion
B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor
C. Ciliary muscle contraction
D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis

A

D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis

30
Q

The following glaucoma drugs does what effect?
Beta Blockers: Timolol/ Betaxolol/ Carteolol

A. Decrease humor secretion
B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor
C. Ciliary muscle contraction
D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis

A

A. Decrease humor secretion

31
Q

The following glaucoma drugs does what effect?
Cholinomimetic: Pilocarpine/ Carbachol/ Physostigmine/ Echothipate

A. Decrease humor secretion
B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor
C. Ciliary muscle contraction
D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis

A

C. Ciliary muscle contraction

32
Q

What is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning?
A. Dantrolene
B. Neostigmine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Clonidine

A

C. Pralidoxime

33
Q

Which drug is used as an antidote for malignant hyperthermia?
A. Dantrolene
B. Neostigmine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Clonidine

A

A. Dantrolene

34
Q

What is the antidote used during Phase 2 of Succinylcholine metabolism?
A. Dantrolene
B. Neostigmine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Clonidine

A

B. Neostigmine

35
Q

Which medication is used to alleviate symptoms of opiate withdrawal?
A. Dantrolene
B. Neostigmine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Clonidine

A

D. Clonidine

36
Q

Which cholinergic drug, known to cross the blood-brain barrier, can potentially cause seizures as an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Physostigmine

A

B. Physostigmine

37
Q

Which cholinesterase inhibitor, capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier, may lead to hallucinations as an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Physostigmine

A

A. Pilocarpine

38
Q
  1. Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholine
    A. Irreversibly, covalently for 1 week
    B. Irreversibly, covalently for 2 weeks
    C. Reversibly, covalently for 1 week
    D. Reversibly, covalently for 2 weeks
A

A. Irreversibly, covalently for 1 week

39
Q
  1. The following are drugs of Myasthenia gravis EXCEPT
    A. Neostigmine
    B. Edrophonium
    C. Pyridostigmine
    D. Physostigmine
A

D. Physostigmine

40
Q

What is the effect of acetylcholine in the eyes?
A. Mydriasis
B. Miosis
C. Cycloplegia
D. Ptosis

A

B. Miosis

41
Q
  1. Duration of action of Pyridostigmine
    A. 2-4 hours
    B. 3-6 hours
    C. 4-8 hours
    D. 5-7 hours
A

B. 3-6 hours

42
Q
  1. Duration of action of atropine in the eyes
    A. 24 hours
    B. 48 hours
    C. 72 hours
    D. 96 hours
A

C. 72 hours

Atropine
Body - 4 hours
Eyes - 72 hours (3 days)

43
Q
  1. ADR of Clonidine and Prazosin
    A. Hypertension
    B. Orthostatic hypotension
    C. Anemia
    D. Headache
A

B. Orthostatic hypotension

44
Q
  1. ADR of Albuterol
    A. Tachycardia
    B. Anaphylactic shock
    C. Tachyphylaxis
    D. Septic Shock
A

A. Tachycardia

45
Q
  1. True about EPINEPHRINE
    A. Stimulate A receptors at high dose and B receptors at low dose
    B. Stimulate A receptors at low dose and B receptors at high dose
    C. Stimulate dopamine receptors at high dose and B receptors at low dose
    D. Stimulate gamma receptors at high dose and A receptors at low dose
A

B. Stimulate A receptors at low dose and B receptors at high dose

Epinephrine (A 1/2= B 1/2)
Low dose - Alpha
High dose - Beta

46
Q
  1. Tyramine causes hypertensive emergency with;
    A. ACEI
    B. ARB
    C. MAOI
    D. Diphenhydramine
A

C. MAOI

47
Q

Phenoxybenzamine is primarily used in the treatment of:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Impotence (controversial)

A

A. Pheochromocytoma

48
Q

Phentolamine is most commonly used for:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Impotence (controversial)

A

A. Pheochromocytoma

49
Q

Terazosin is typically prescribed for:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Impotence (controversial)

A

B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia

50
Q

Yohimbine has been used, though controversially, for the treatment of:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Impotence (controversial)

A

C. Impotence (controversial)

51
Q
  1. Guanethidine
    A. causes orthostatic hypotension and sexual dysfunction
    B. causes orthostatic hypotension and depression
    C. causes orthostatic hypotension and bradycardia
    D. causes orthostatic hypotension and bronchospasm
A

A. causes orthostatic hypotension and sexual dysfunction

52
Q
  1. Indirect adrenergic agonist that causes CNS depression
    A. Norepinephrine
    B. Dopamine
    C. Reserpine
    D. Epinephrine
A

C. Reserpine

SE:
CNS Depression
Bradycardia

53
Q
  1. Sympathetic Nervous system is controlled by afferent division of Peripheral nervous system
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system, responsible for sending signals from the central nervous system to the body.

54
Q
  1. Cardiac output is controlled by somatic nervous system
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE
Cardiac output is primarily controlled by the autonomic nervous system, not the somatic nervous system.

55
Q
  1. Sympathetic nervous system stimulates exocrine secretion
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE
Generally, the parasympathetic nervous system stimulates exocrine secretion, not the sympathetic.

56
Q
  1. Parasympathetic Nervous system makes the spleen contract
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE
The spleen contraction is more related to the sympathetic nervous system.

57
Q
  1. Parasympathetic nervous system contracts the uterus of a pregnant woman
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE
Uterine contraction during labor is influenced by the hormone oxytocin and is not directly controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system. (Sympathetic)

58
Q
  1. Sympathetic nervous system causes penile erection
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE
Penile erection is primarily a function of the parasympathetic nervous system.

59
Q
  1. Parasympathetic nervous system causes mucoid salivation
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE
Mucoid salivation is generally associated with the sympathetic nervous system. The parasympathetic nervous system typically promotes watery salivation.

60
Q
  1. Thoracolumbar post ganglionic end is controlled by norepinephrine
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

A. TRUE
The thoracolumbar region is part of the sympathetic nervous system, where postganglionic neurons use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter.

61
Q
  1. Sympathetic output is discrete because postganglionic neurons are not branched but are directed to a specific organ.
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons often have multiple branches, allowing for a more diffused effect on multiple organs.B. FALSE
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons often have multiple branches, allowing for a more diffused effect on multiple organs.

62
Q
  1. Parasympathetic nervous system closes sphincters
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

A. TRUE
- The parasympathetic nervous system typically promotes the closing of sphincters in the digestive system.

Pharma 1 (15 decks)

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