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Microbiology (BIOL 286) > Pre-Final Bonus Questions > Flashcards

Pre-Final Bonus Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Where would you find an Okazaki fragment?

Lagging strand of DNA synthesis
A sushi restaurant
Leading strand of DNA synthesis
Ribosome

A

Lagging strand of DNA synthesis

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2
Q

Which disease is associated with Entamoeba histolytica?

Dysentery
Toxic shock
Malaria
Vaginitis

A

Dysentery

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3
Q

Which of these states has the highest incidence of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

Colorado
California
New York
North Carolina

A

North Carolina

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4
Q

In the Hershey and Chase bacteriophage experiment, which radionuclides entered the cells?

32P
35S
Both 32P and 35S
Neither 32P nor 35S

A

32P

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5
Q

Which arthropod is the vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?

Kissing bug
Tsetse fly
Deer tick
Mosquito

A

Kissing bug

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6
Q

What type of immunity is imparted by the RhoGAM vaccine?

Natural passive
Artificial active
Natural active
Artificial passive

A

Artificial passive

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7
Q

In which of the following type of genetic transfer does the donor survive?

Specialized transduction
Conjugation
Transformation
Generalized transduction

A

Conjugation

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8
Q

While repeating the work of Messelson and Stahl, you grew Escherichia coli overnight in media with all 15N nitrogen. After pelleting the cells by centrifugation and rinsing, you then allow them to grow for exactly two generation times in media containing only 14N. Which of these patterns will be observed after ultracentrifugation?

All intermediate DNA
Heavy and intermediate DNA
Light and intermediate DNA
Heavy and light DNA

A

Heavy and intermediate DNA

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9
Q

Where does RNA splicing occur during genetic expression?

Nucleus
Cytoplasm
Ribosome
Nucleoid

A

Nucleus

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10
Q

What type of genetic regulation is associated with TrpR?

Negative induction
Negative repression
Positive induction
Positive repression

A

Negative repression

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11
Q

What structure is missing in protozoa cells from the group Excavata?

Ribosomes
Flagella
Nucleus
Mitochondria

A

Mitochondria

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12
Q

What indicator strain is primarily used to test drinking, waste, and surface water in the United States?

Fecal anaerobes
Fecal streptococci
Fecal bacteriophage
Fecal coliforms

A

Fecal coliforms

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13
Q

Which of these diseases is associated with ‘rice water’ stools?

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
Listeriosis
Malaria
Cholera

A

Cholera

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14
Q

What class of virus has a genome consisting of ssRNA (- strand)?

Class IV
Class III
Class VI
Class V

A

Class V

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15
Q

What is the primary effect of botulinum food poisoning?

Rash
Lock jaw
Flaccid paralysis
Rigid paralysis

A

Flaccid paralysis

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16
Q

What is the purpose of primary wastewater treatment?

Reducing the biological oxygen demand
Removal of excess water
Removal of large material
Disinfection

A

Removal of large material

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17
Q

What term refers to fungi that grow as filaments at room temperature and yeasts at body temperature?

Chimeric
Alternaria
Toxigenic
Dimorphic

A

Dimorphic

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18
Q

What kind of microbes does a phycologist study?

Algae
Protozoa
Archaea
Fungi

A

Algae

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19
Q

How do Listeria cells move within the cytoplasm of infected host cells?

Cilia
Axial filaments
Actin polymerization
Flagella

A

Actin polymerization

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20
Q

What sort of microbe is responsible of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

Bacteria
Prion
Protozoa
Virus

A

Prion

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21
Q

What is the target of tetracycline’s action?

Mitochondria
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Ribosome

A

Ribosome

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22
Q

What type of pathogen causes Bancroft’s filariasis?

Fungus
Worm
Protozoa
Virus

A

Worm

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23
Q

Which of the following nutrient cycles does not involve a gas phase?

Sulfur
Carbon
Phosphorus
Nitrogen

A

Phosphorus

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24
Q

Who first used a simple microscope live single-celled bacteria?

Leeuwenhoek
Redi
Pasteur
Hooke

A

Leeuwenhoek

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25
Q

The microbial destruction of concrete sewer pipes is called what?

Biodeterioration
Biofilm formation
Bioremediation
Bioactivation

A

Biodeterioration

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26
Q

Diphtheria is caused by a toxin encoded by a prophage. What term refers to this process?

Splicing
Lysogenic conversion
Antigenic shift
Conjugation

A

Lysogenic conversion

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27
Q

What process do most bacteria use to grow and divide?

Schizogony
Meiosis
Mitosis
Binary fission

A

Binary fission

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28
Q

What genetic sequence does the RNA polymerase bind to during genetic expression?

Shine Dalgarno sequence
Operon
Promoter
Operator

A

Promoter

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29
Q

Which of the following reactions does the enzyme nitrogenase catalyze?

N2 –> NH4
NH4 –> NO2
NO3 –> NH4
NO2 –> NO3

A

N2 –> NH4

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30
Q

Which polymerase fills in the gaps after the RNA primers are removed during replication?

DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase II
DNA polymerase III
RNA polymerase

A

DNA polymerase I

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31
Q

How are you most likely going to contract tetanus?

Poorly canned food
Ingesting contaminated water
Puncture wound
Inhalation

A

Puncture wound

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32
Q

What is the first required step for microbial pathogenesis.

Biofilm formation
Internalization
Adherence
Toxin production

A

Adherence

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33
Q

Which of these microbes is associated with rheumatic fever?

Streptococcus pyogenes
Borrelia burgdorferi
Streptococcus pneumonia
Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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34
Q

What would happen to bacterial motility if the gene for CheY was knocked out?

The flagella would spin counter-clockwise and the cells would tumble all the time

The flagella would spin clockwise and the cells would run all the time

The flagella would spin counter-clockwise and the cells would run all the time

The flagella would spin clockwise and the cells would tumble all the time

A

The flagella would spin counter-clockwise and the cells would run all the time

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35
Q

What kind of bacteria contain an O antigen?

Acid-fast
Gram negative
Gram positive
Mycoplasma

A

Gram negative

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36
Q

Which group of fungi includes the microbe that produces the antibiotic penicillin?

Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Chytridiomycetes
Zygomycetes

A

Ascomycetes

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37
Q

What are the protein-encoding nucleotide triplets called?

Retrons
Codons
Exons
Introns

A

Codons

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38
Q

What is the most common type of bacterium on our skin?

Proteobacteria
Actinobacteria
Staphylococcus
Spirochetes

A

Actinobacteria

39
Q

What process produces ATP from high-energy intermediates like phosphoenolpyruvate?

Aerobic respiration
Cyclic photophosphorylation
Substrate level phosphorylation
Methanogenesis

A

Substrate level phosphorylation

40
Q

Which fungus genus causes Ohio River valley fever?

Blastomyces
Histoplasma
Coccidioides
Cryptococcus

A

Histoplasma

41
Q

Which portion of a bacteria endospore contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan?

Core
Coat
Cortex
Exosporium

A

Cortex

42
Q

Which of the following must perform reverse electron transport to form NADH?

Green sulfur bacteria
Purple sulfur bacteria
Cyanobacteria
Methanogens

A

Purple sulfur bacteria

43
Q

In some models, methanogens appear to promote _______ by reducing the amount of hydrogen available?

Health
Obesity
Diarrhea
Cancer

A

Obesity

44
Q

What disease is also known as Hansen’s disease?

Tuberculosis
Typhoid fever
Leprosy
Elephantiasis

A

Leprosy

45
Q

What term refers to the distribution of seasonal influenza?

Sporadic
Endemic
Pandemic
Epidemic

A

Pandemic

46
Q

What enzyme is used by insertion sequences to replicate and/or move in bacterial genomes?

Transposase
Reverse transcriptase
DNA polymerase
Exonuclease

A

Transposase

47
Q

What is the LD50?

Dose of bacteria that kills half of the exposed population

Dose of bacteria that infects half of the exposed population

The time is takes for bacteria to infect half of the exposed population

The time is takes for bacteria to kill half of the exposed population

A

Dose of bacteria that kills half of the exposed population

48
Q

Which of these bacteria would contain lipoteichoic acid?

Gram negative
Acid fast
Gram positive
Mycoplasma

A

Gram positive

49
Q

What is the best explanation for why Cryptosporidium particularly difficult to control in our water supply?

It is resistant to chlorine
It is resistant to chemotherapeutic drugs
It is resistant to our immune defenses
It is resistant to drying

A

It is resistant to chlorine

50
Q

Which portion of our digestive tract has the fewest resident microbes?

Large intestine
Mouth
Small intestine
Stomach

A

Stomach

51
Q

What are the NET end products of Glycolysis pathway?

2 pyruvates, 1 NADH, 1NADPH, 2 ATP

2 pyruvates, 1 NADH, 1 NADPH, 1 ATP

2 pyruvates, 2NADH, 2 ATP

2 pyruvates, 2NADH, 1 ATP

A

2 pyruvates, 2NADH, 2 ATP

52
Q

Metabolically related microbial populations are called what?

Biofilms
Clones
Guilds
Niches

A

Guilds

53
Q

Which of these is true of the archaea membrane?

Contains ester linkages and fatty acid lipids

Contains ester linkages and fatty acid lipids

Contains ester linkages and phytanyl lipids

Contains ether linkages and phytanyl lipids

A

Contains ether linkages and phytanyl lipids

54
Q

What process does this reaction correspond to in the nitrogen cycle? NO3 –> N2

Assimilation
Denitrification
Nitrification
Nitrogen fixation

A

Denitrification

55
Q

Where would you find the genetic material of a bacterial cell?

Nucleocapsid
Nucleus
Nucleolus
Nucleoid

A

Nucleoid

56
Q

Suppose that you serially dilute a culture three times by putting 100µl of culture into 900µl of diluent each time and then transfer 100µl from the third tube onto a plate of media and let it grow overnight. If 15 CFU are observed on the plate, how many microbes were in the original flask?

1.5 x 103 cfu/ml
1.5 x 106 cfu/ml
1.5 x 105 cfu/ml
1.5 x 104 cfu/ml

A

1.5 x 105 cfu/ml

57
Q

What term refers to the protein shell that surrounds the viral genome?

Capsule
Envelope
Retron
Capsid

A

Capsid

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT an archaea adaptation to growth in high temperatures?

Phospholipid bilayers
DNA positive supercoiling
High internal solute concentrations
Thermosomes

A

Phospholipid bilayers

59
Q

Which of these diseases is associated with the Varicella zoster virus?

Mumps
Boils
Shingles
Measles

A

Shingles

60
Q
A
61
Q

What type of material makes up the TDaP vaccine?

Super antigens
Toxoids
Anti-toxins
Attenuated microbes

A

Toxoids

62
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of an AB exotoxin?

Tetanus toxin
Staphylococcus alpha toxin
Cholera toxin
Diphtheria toxin

A

Staphylococcus alpha toxin

63
Q

Which of these is the most common (and least lethal) form of anthrax?

Cutaneous
Sexually transmitted
Pulmonary
Gastrointestinal

A

Cutaneous

64
Q

According to modern estimates, how many microbes are in and on our body per human cell?

200
20
2,000
2

A

2

65
Q

What process involves the action of autoinducers like homoserine lactones?

Antigenic shift
Phase variation
Attenuation
Quorum sensing

A

Quorum sensing

66
Q

During electron transport in Escherichia coli, which of these pairs would pump out the least protons?

NDH-2 and cytochrome bd

NDH-2 and cytochrome bo

NDH-1 and cytochrome bo

NDH-1 and cytochrome bd

A

NDH-2 and cytochrome bd

67
Q
A
68
Q

What is the incubation period?

The time when disease symptoms are just beginning to appear

The time between getting infected and being able to spread the disease to others

The time between exposure and disease symptoms

The time of the most acute disease symptoms

A

The time between exposure and disease symptoms

69
Q

Which of these proteins favors the lytic cycle for bacteriophage lambda?

cII
cro
cI
cIII

A

cro

70
Q

Which of these viral classes has a genome that consists of messenger RNA?

Class VI
Class V
Class III
Class IV

A

Class IV

71
Q

What term refers to hospital-acquired infections?

Toxigenic
Idiopathic
Nosocomial
Communicable

A

Nosocomial

72
Q

What term refers to a persistent disease with a low incidence at a specific location?

Pandemic
Pandemic
Endemic
Sporadic

A

Endemic

73
Q

What does R0 best correspond to?

The distribution of a disease in a population

The expected number of secondary infections from each primary case

The resistance of the host cells to infection

The expected number of deaths due to an infection

A

The expected number of secondary infections from each primary case

74
Q

What microorganism is responsible for causing whooping cough?

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Campylobacter jejuni
Bordetella pertussis

A

Bordetella pertussis

75
Q

What would happen to LacZ expression if the gene encoding LacI were knocked out?

Expression would be ON in the presence of glucose and ON in the presence of lactose

Expression would be ON in the presence of glucose and OFF in the presence of lactose

Expression would be OFF in the presence of glucose and ON in the presence of lactose

Expression would be OFF in the presence of glucose and OFF in the presence of lactose

A

Expression would be ON in the presence of glucose and ON in the presence of lactose

76
Q

Which of the following diseases is NOT prevented by the TDaP vaccine?

Whooping cough
Diphtheria
Tetanus
Pneumonia

A

Pneumonia

77
Q

Which group of microbes predominates in most environments on Earth?

Proteobacteria
Crenarchaeota
Firmicutes
Cyanobacteria

A

Proteobacteria

78
Q

Bifidobacterium and Lactobacillus are common examples of what?

Prebiotics
Antibiotics
Probiotics
Abiotics

A

Probiotics

79
Q

What disease is associated with Helicobacter pylori?

Diarrhea
Gastric ulcers
Sore throats
Hepatitis

A

Gastric ulcers

80
Q

Which of the following cannot carry protons during respiration?

Cytochrome
Flavoprotein
Quinone
NAD

A

Cytochrome

81
Q

Ring stage parasites in peripheral blood samples is an indication of which disease?

Toxoplasmosis
Malaria
African sleeping sickness
Filariasis

A

Malaria

82
Q

What term refers to people like typhoid Mary, which have an asymptomatic infection of a pathogen?

Fomite
Carrier
Vector
Lysogen

A

Carrier

83
Q

Which of these are acellular microbes?

Archaea
Bacteria
Yeast
Phage

A

Phage

84
Q

What term refers to the protective effect of having a population of hosts containing many individuals that have developed protective responses against a pathogen?

Mortality
Herd immunity
Attenuation
Morbidity

A

Herd immunity

85
Q

Alternate flagella antigen expression due to an invertible promoter region is an example of what?

Antigenic shift
Phase variation
Quorum sensing
Attenuation

A

Phase variation

86
Q

Which of these is most commonly acquired by ingesting poorly cooked foods?

Hepatitis A
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis B

A

Hepatitis A

87
Q

Which of these diseases is NOT spread by the bite of a mosquito?

Malaria
Yellow fever
Lyme disease
West Nile disease

A

Lyme disease

88
Q

Which of the following microorganisms is the causative agent of typhoid fever?

Salmonella typhi
Coxiella burnetii
Streptococcus pyogenes
Rickettsia prowazekii

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

89
Q

What separates the epilimnion from the hypolimnion in a freshwater ecosystem?

Thermocline
Methane
Neuston
Sediments

A

Thermocline

90
Q

Which of these cells is most likely to be affected by HIV?

Epithelial cells
Muscle cells
CD4 helper T-cells
Neurons

A

CD4 helper T-cells

91
Q

What pigmented protein do pigmented prototrophic archaea use to collect light energy?

Rhodopsin
Bacteriorhodopsin
Chlorophyll
Bacteriochlorophyll

A

Bacteriorhodopsin

92
Q

What term refers to microbes that have decreased in virulence?

Lysogenized
Attenuated
Acellular
Normal microbiota

A

Attenuated

93
Q

Which of these is commonly caused by a food intoxication?

Listeriosis
Staphylococcal food poisoning
Cholera
Norovirus disease

A

Staphylococcal food poisoning

94
Q

Which of these microbes can lead to severe colitis following long-term antibiotic treatment.

Clostridium difficile
Bacteroides fragilis
Candida albicans
Escherichia coli

A

Clostridium difficile

Microbiology (BIOL 286) (36 decks)

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