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Anesthesia Meds > Anesthesia Med Sheet everything > Flashcards

Anesthesia Med Sheet everything Flashcards

1
Q

trade name for etomidate

A

amidate

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2
Q

trade name for ketamine

A

ketalar

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3
Q

trade name for methohexital

A

brevital

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4
Q

trade name for propofol

A

diprivan

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5
Q

trade name for midazolam

A

versed

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6
Q

trade name for dexmedetomidine

A

precedex

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7
Q

trade name for succinylcholine

A

anectine

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8
Q

trade name for mivacurium

A

mivacron

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9
Q

trade name for atracurium

A

tracrium

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10
Q

trade name for vecuronium

A

norcuron

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11
Q

trade name for rocuronium

A

zemuron

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12
Q

trade name for cisatracurium

A

nimbex

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13
Q

trade name for pancurion

A

pavulon

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14
Q

trade name for fentanyl

A

sublimaze

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15
Q

trade name for sufentanil

A

sufenta

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16
Q

trade name for remifentanil

A

ultiva

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17
Q

trade name for meperidine

A

demerol

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18
Q

trade name for ketolorac

A

toradol

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19
Q

trade name for hydromorphone

A

dilaudid

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20
Q

trade name for phenylephrine

A

neosynephrine

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21
Q

trade name for dopamine

A

intropin

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22
Q

trade name for dobutamine

A

dobutrex

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23
Q

trade name for glycopyrrolate

A

robinul

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24
Q

trade name for neostigmine

A

prostigmine

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25
Q

trade name for physostigmine

A

antilirium

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26
Q

trade name for edrophonium

A

enlon

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27
Q

trade name for flumazenil

A

romazicon

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28
Q

trade name for naloxone

A

narcan

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29
Q

trade name for hydralazine

A

apresoline

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30
Q

trade name for labetalol

A

trandate

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31
Q

trade name for esmolol

A

brevibloc

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32
Q

trade name for ondansetron

A

zofran

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33
Q

trade name for droperidol

A

inapsine

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34
Q

trade name for dexamethasone

A

decadron

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35
Q

supplied dose of etomidate/amidate

A

2mg/ml

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36
Q

supplied dose of ketamine/ketalar

A

10mg/ml
50mg/ml

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37
Q

supplied dose of methohexital/brevital

A

10mg/ml

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38
Q

supplied dose of propofol/diprivan

A

10mg/ml

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39
Q

supplied dose of midazolam/versed

A

1mg/ml
5mg/ml

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40
Q

supplied dose of dexmedetomidine/precedex

A

200mcg/2ml

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41
Q

supplied dose of succinylcholine/anectine

A

20mg/ml

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42
Q

supplied dose of mivacurium/mivacron

A

2mg/ml

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43
Q

supplied dose of atracurium/tracrium

A

10mg/ml

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44
Q

supplied dose of vecuronium/norcuron

A

1mg/ml after diluted

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45
Q

supplied dose of rocuronium/zemuron

A

10mg/ml

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46
Q

supplied dose of cisatracurium/nimbex

A

2mg/ml

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47
Q

supplied dose of pancuronium/pavulon

A

1mg/ml or 2mg/ml

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48
Q

supplied dose of fentanyl/sublimaze

A

50mcg/ml

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49
Q

supplied dose of sufentanil/sufenta

A

50mcg/ml- dilute

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50
Q

supplied dose of remifentanil/ultiva

A

1-2mg/ml-dilute

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51
Q

supplied dose of merperidine/demerol

A

10mg/ml

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52
Q

supplied dose of ketorolac/toradol

A

30mg/ml

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53
Q

supplied dose of morphine

A

1-10mg/ml

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54
Q

supplied dose of hydromorphone/dilaudid

A

2mg/ml

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55
Q

supplied dose of ephedrine

A

50mg/ml- dilute to 5 or 10 mg/ml

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56
Q

supplied dose of phenylephrine/neosynephrine

A

10mg/ml- dilute to 100mcg/ml

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57
Q

supplied dose of epi

A

1:1000 (1mg/ml)
1:10,000 (0.1mg/ml)

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58
Q

supplied dose of dopamine/intropin

A

40mg/ml

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59
Q

supplied dose of dobutamine/dobutrex

A

250mg/20ml

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60
Q

supplied dose of atropine

A

0.4mg/ml
1mg/ml (amp)

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61
Q

supplied dose of glycopyrrolate/robinul

A

0.2mg/ml

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62
Q

supplied dose of bridion/sugammadex

A

100mg/ml

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63
Q

trade name of sugammadex

A

bridion

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64
Q

supplied dose of neostigmine/prostigmine

A

1mg/ml

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65
Q

supplied dose of physostigmine/antilirium

A

1mg/ml

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66
Q

supplied dose of edrophonium/enlon

A

10mg/ml

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67
Q

supplied dose of flumazenil/romazicon

A

0.1mg/ml

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68
Q

supplied dose of naloxone/narcan

A

0.4mg/ml

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69
Q

supplied dose of hydralazine/apresoline

A

20mg/ml

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70
Q

supplied dose of labetalol/trandate

A

5mg/ml

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71
Q

supplied dose of esmolol/brevibloc

A

10mg/ml

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72
Q

supplied dose of ondansetron/zofran

A

2mg/ml

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73
Q

supplied dose of droperidol/inapsine

A

2.5mg/ml

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74
Q

supplied dose of dexamethasone/decadron

A

4mg/ml

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75
Q

induction dose of etomidate/amidate

A

0.2-0.4mg/kg

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76
Q

induction dose of ketamine/ketalar

A

1-2mg/kg IV
4-8mg/kg IM

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77
Q

induction dose of methohexital/brevital

A

1mg/kg

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78
Q

induction dose of propofol/diprivan

A

2-2.5mg/kg

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79
Q

induction dose of midazolam/versed

A

usually 1-5 mg or 0.01-0.1mg/kg (rice sheet)

Apex says 0.1-0.4mg/kg induction and 0.01-0.1mg/kg is sedation

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80
Q

induction dose of dexmedetomidine

A

load dose of 1mcg/kg over 10min
maintenance 0.2-0.7 mcg/kg/hr

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81
Q

induction dose of succinylcholine/anectine

A

1-1.5 mg/kg IV
3-4mg/kg IM

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82
Q

induction dose of mivacurium

A

0.25mg/kg

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83
Q

induction dose of atracurium

A

0.4-0.5 mg/kg

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84
Q

induction dose of vecuronium

A

0.1mg/kg

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85
Q

induction dose of rocuronium

A

0.6-1.2 mg/kg

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86
Q

induction dose of cisatracurium

A

0.15mg/kg

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87
Q

induction dose of pancuronium

A

0.1mg/kg

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88
Q

induction dose of fentanyl

A

1-2mcg/kg

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89
Q

induction dose of sufentanil

A

0.1-0.5 mcg/kg

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90
Q

induction dose of remifentanil/ultiva

A

0.5-1mcg/kg/min

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91
Q

induction dose of merperidine

A

1mg/kg IV

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92
Q

dose of ketorolac

A

30mg IV
60mg IM

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93
Q

induction dose of morphine

A

0.1mg/kg

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94
Q

induction dose of hydromorphone

A

0.01-0.04mg/kg IV

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95
Q

dose of ephedrine

A

5-15 mg
peds 0.1mg/kg

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96
Q

dose of phenylephrine

A

50-100mcg IV

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97
Q

dose of epi

A

2-20mcg/min
push dose: 10mcg IV

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98
Q

dose of dopamine

A

2-20mcg/kg/min

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99
Q

dose of dobutamine

A

2-20mcg/kg/min

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100
Q

dose of atropine

A

7mcg/kg with Enlon

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101
Q

dose of glycopyrrolate

A

5-8mcg/kg

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102
Q

dose of sugammadex/bridion

A

4mg/kg (no TOF pretetanic and 1-2 PTC)
2mg/kg (2 pretetanic twitches)
16mg/kg (reversal within 3 min, 1.2mg/kg roc dose)

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103
Q

dose of neostigmine/prostigmine

A

0.05mg/kg

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104
Q

dose of physostigmine/antilirium

A

0.5-1mg or 0.02mg/kg peds

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105
Q

dose of edrophonium/enlon

A

0.5-1mg/kg

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106
Q

dose of flumazenil/romazicon

A

0.2 mg over 15 sec

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107
Q

dose of naloxone/narcan

A

start 0.04mg IV; 0.04-0.4mg

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108
Q

dose of hydralazine

A

10mg increments

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109
Q

dose of labetalol/trandate

A

0.1-0.5 mg/kg

110
Q

dose of esmolol/brevibloc

A

10-20mg increments

111
Q

dose of ondansetron

A

4mg
peds: 0.15mg/kg

112
Q

dose of droperidol/inaspine

A

PONV 0.625-2.5mg

113
Q

dose of dexamethasone/decadron

A

4-8mg
peds 0.5 mg/kg

114
Q

etomidate onset peak DOA

A

onset: 30s
peak: 1min
DOA: 3-10min

115
Q

ketamine onset peak DOA

A

onset: 30 sec
peak: 1min
DOA: 5-15min

116
Q

methohexital/brevital onset peak DOA

A

onset: 30s
peak: 30s
DOA: 5-10 min

117
Q

Propofol onset peak DOA

A

onset: 1 min
peak: 1 min
DOA: 5-10 min

118
Q

midazolam onset peak doa

A

onset: 1 min
peak: 4 min
DOA: 15-20 min

119
Q

succinylcholine onset peak doa

A

onset: 1 min
peak: –
DOA: 5-10 min

120
Q

mivacurium onset peak doa

A

onset: 2-3 min
peak:–
DOA: 20-30 min

121
Q

atracurium onset peak doa

A

onset: 3-5 min
peak: –
DOA: 30-60 min

122
Q

vecuronium onset peak doa

A

onset: 3-5 min
peak: –
DOA: 30-60 min

123
Q

rocuronium onset peak doa

A

onset: 1-2 min
peak: –
DOA: 30-60 min

124
Q

ciastracurium onset peak doa

A

onset: 3-5 min
peak: –
DOA: 30-60 min

125
Q

pancuronium onset peak doa

A

onset: 3-5 min
Peak: –
DOA: 60-90 min

126
Q

fentanyl onset peak doa

A

onset: 30 sec
peak: 5-15 min
DOA: 30-60 min

127
Q

sufentanil onset peak doa

A

onset: 1-3 min
peak: 3-5 min
DOA: 20-45 min

128
Q

remifentanil onset peak doa

A

onset: 30s
peak: –
DOA: 5-10 min

129
Q

merperidine onset peak doa

A

onset: 1 min
peak: 5-20 min
doa: 2-4 hrs

130
Q

ketorolac onset peak doa

A

onset: 30s
peak: 1-2 hr
doa: 4-6 hr

131
Q

morphine onset peak doa

A

onset: 1-5 min
peak: 5-20 min
doa: 2-7hr

132
Q

hydromorphone onset peak doa

A

onset: 10-15 min
peak: 15-30 min
doa: 2-3 hrs

133
Q

ephedrine onset peak doa

A

onset: 30s
peak: 2-5 min
DOA: 10-60 min

134
Q

phenylephrine onset peak doa

A

onset: 20s
peak: 1 min
doa: 15-20 min

135
Q

epinephrine onset peak doa

A

onset: 30s
peak: 3 min
DOA: 10 min

136
Q

dopamine onset peak doa

A

onset: 2 min
peak: 10 min
DOA: 10-20 min

137
Q

dobutamine onset peak and doa

A

onset: 2 min
peak: 1-10 min
doa: 40min

138
Q

atropine onset peak doa

A

onset: 1 min
peak: 2 min
DOA: 1 hr

139
Q

glycopyrrolate onset peak doa

A

onset: 2-3 min
peak: 5 min
DOA: 1-2 hr

140
Q

neostigmine onset peak doa

A

onset: 3-5 min
peak: 7 min
DOA: 1-2 hrs

141
Q

physostigmine onset peak doa

A

onset: 15 min
peak: –
DOA: 2 hr

142
Q

edrophonium onset peak doa

A

onset: 30-60s
peak: 1 min
DOA: 60 min

143
Q

flumazenil onset peak doa

A

onset: 3 min
peak: 10 min
DOA: 45-90 min

144
Q

naloxone onset peak doa

A

onset: 1-3 min
peak: –
DOA: 1 hr

145
Q

hydralazine onset peak doa

A

onset: 10-20 min
peak:–
DOA: 3-6 hr

146
Q

labetalol/trandate onset peak doa

A

onset: 5-10 min
peak: –
DOA: 5-8 hrs

147
Q

esmolol/brevibloc onset peak doa

A

onset: 2 min
peak:–
DOA: 10-20 min

148
Q

ondansetron onset peak doa

A

onset: 30 min
peak: 2 hr
DOA: 4-24 hrs

149
Q

droperidol/inapsine onset peak doa

A

onset: 1-2 min
peak: 20 min
doa: 2-4 hr

150
Q

dexamethasone onset peak doa

A

onset: <1 hr
peak: 12-24 hr
DOA: 36-54 hr

151
Q

Etomidate S/E, metabolism and other

A

CV stable, less myocardial depression than propofol

S/E: myoclonus/pain on injection, cv stable, epileptic foci

METABOLISM: plasma esterases and hepatic enzymes; a single induction dose may inhibit 11 BH leading to adrenocortical suppression

152
Q

ketamine S/E, metabolism and other

A

hallucinations
increased CO
increased HR
increased salivation
Maintains Bp
analgesia

metabolism: liver cyp450; redistribution

153
Q

methohexital/brevital S/E, metabolism, other

A

porphyria
do not give with asthma

154
Q

propofol S/E, metabolism and other

A

pain on injection
no use in egg/soy allergy
antiemetic
decreases CV

metabolism: liver and lungs

155
Q

midazolam S/E, metabolism and other

A

decreased respiration
amnesia
1/2 life: 1-4 hrs
H2O soluble
benzo

eliminated renal

156
Q

dexmedetomidine info to know

A

alpha 2 agonist

157
Q

succinylcholine S/E, metabolism, other

A

short-acting depolarizing
can cause MH
locks NA channel

met: plasma pseudocholinesterase

158
Q

mivacurium info to know

A

short-acting non depolarizing

met: plasma cholinesterase

can cause histamine release

159
Q

atracurium info to know

A

intermediate acting nondepolarizing

metabolism: hoffman/ ester hydrolysis

can cause histamine release

160
Q

vecuronium info to know

A

intermediate acting; nondepolarizing

metabolism: liver>kidney

high lipid solubility

161
Q

rocuronium info to know

A

intermediate acting; nondepolarizing

metabolism: liver >kidney

painful on injection
shortest acting NDNMB

162
Q

ciastracurium info to know

A

intermediate acting; nondepolarizing

met: hoffman/esterase hydrolysis

163
Q

pancuronium info to know

A

long acting; nondepolarizing

metabolism: renal

increase HR- no NOREPI reuptake

164
Q

fentanyl info to know

A

pulm 1st pass
can cause rigid chest

165
Q

sufentanil info to know

A

can cause rigid chest
most potent
pulm 1st pass

166
Q

remifentanil info to know

A

metabolized by hydrolysis esterase
ultra short acting
1/2 life: 6 min

167
Q

meperidine info to know

A

metabolite = seizures
no with MAOIs
crosses placenta
increase HR
treats post op shivering

168
Q

ketorolac info to know

A

bleeding/ inhibits COX

169
Q

morphine info to know

A

can cause Nausea and vomitting
most allergies: +histamine
can cause biliary spasm

170
Q

hydromorphone info to know

A

can cause N/V
+histamine
antitussive
1mg=7mg MSO4 (morphine sulfate)

171
Q

etomidate MOA

A

GABA mimetic

binds to GABA receptor and enhances receptors affinity for GABA

172
Q

Ketamine MOA

A

non competitively binds to NMDA (glutamate receptor)

inhibits glutamate receptor (excitatory)- decreases presynaptic release of glutamate and potentiates GABA release

173
Q

methohexital MOA

A

barbituate

acts on GABA receptors

174
Q

propofol MOA

A

modulates GABA receptors
increases transmembrane Cl- conduction- hyperpolarizes post-synaptic cell membrane
sedation and hypnosis

175
Q

midazolam MOA

A

Works on the GABA receptor
To increases frequency of Cl-channel influx and
hyperpolarizes targeted cell

176
Q

MOA of dexmedetomidine

A

Alpha 2 agonist

Binds with pre and postsynaptic alpha 2a agonist receptors

Decreases norepi levels; causes sedation and analgesia

Alpha 2 agonist
Decreases cAMP which inhibits the locus coeruleus in the pons = sedation

177
Q

MOA of succinylcholine

A

Binds to one or both alpha subunits of nicotinic ACh receptors and mimics action of ACh

Depolarizes the membrane

178
Q

MOA of mivacurium

A

binds competitively to cholinergic receptors to antagonize the action of ACh and cause neuromuscular blockade

179
Q

MOA atracurium

A

reversibly competitive antagonism of ACh

180
Q

MOA of vecuronium

A

reversibly competitive antagonism of ACh

181
Q

MOA of rocuronium

A

reversibly competitive antagonism of ACh

182
Q

MOA of cisatracurium

A

reversibly competitive antagonism of ACh

183
Q

MOA of pancuronium

A

reversibly competitive antagonism of ACh

184
Q

trade name of sugammadex

A

Bridion

185
Q

supplied dose of sugammadex

A

100mg/ml

186
Q

dose of sugammadex

A

4mg/kg (no TOF pretatanic and 1-2 PTC)
2mg/kg (2 pretetanic twitches)
16mg/kg (of 1.2mg/kg roc dose-reversal within 3 min)

187
Q

info about ephedrine

A

direct/indirect beta and alpha 1 agonist
can have tachyphylaxis
dont give with fast HR
dont give with MAOI
does NOT decrease uterine blood flow

188
Q

info about phenylephrine

A

alpha 1 agonist
can cause reflex bradycardia (baroreceptor reflex)

189
Q

info about epinephrine ( think hemodynamics)

A

direct beta1, beta2, alpha 1 agonist
causes increased CO
increased HR
increased contractility
increased SVR

190
Q

info about dopamine

A

alpha1, beta1,beta2 and dopamine (renal perfusion) receptor agonist

avoid with MAOIs
400mg/250ml bag= 1600mcg/ml

191
Q

info about dobutamine

A

selective beta1
inotrope

192
Q

info about atropine

A

increases HR
causes mydriasis (pupil dilation)
tertiary ammonium (crosses BBB)

193
Q

info about glycopyrrolate

A

decreases secretions
quaternary ammonium (DOES NOT CROSS BBB)

194
Q

info about neostigmine

A

max dose 5mg
cholinergic syndrome
decreases HR
hepatic metabolism

195
Q

info about physostigmine

A

crosses BBB (tertiary amine)
dont give with asthma
renal excreted

196
Q

info about edrophonium

A

do not give with glycopyrrolate
renal excreted
can diagnose MG true reversible

197
Q

info about flumazenil

A

benzo antagonist
repeat 0.2mg q 1min (3mg/hr max)

198
Q

info about naloxone

A

reversal for opioids

199
Q

info about hydralazine

A

Arteriole vasodilation causes increased cGMP
increased HR
increased CO
decreases SVR
increased RENIN

DOC with normal to low HR (beta blockers preferred for HTN with increased HR)

200
Q

info about labetalol

A

alpha, beta1, beta2 antagonist
ratio 1:7 alpha to beta IV
decreases HR, give slow

201
Q

info about esmolol

A

beta1 antagonist
metabolized by plasma hydrolysis
t1/2 9min

202
Q

info on ondansetron

A

5HT3 antagonist
admin slowly to prevent headache

203
Q

info about droperidol

A

paradoxical reaction( restless anxious)
decreases BP
change in dopamine in CNS (dont give with parkinsons)

204
Q

info about dexamethasone

A

decreases inflammation
decreases immunity

205
Q

muscarinic effects

A

decrease HR
bronchoconstriction
increased salivation
decreased BP
MIOSIS (pupil constriction)
intestinal spams

206
Q

MOA of fentanyl

A

opioid mu receptor agonist

207
Q

MOA of sufenta

A

opioid mu receptor agonist

208
Q

MOA of ultiva/remifentanil

A

opioid mu receptor agonist

209
Q

MOA of meperidine

A

synthetic opioid agonist at mu and kappa receptors

210
Q

MOA of toradol

A

nonselective NSAID
inhibits COX1 and COX2

211
Q

MOA of morphine

A

mostly mu agonist
inhibits ascending pain pathways

212
Q

MOA of hydromorphone

A

mostly mu agonist and some kappa receptors

213
Q

MOA of ephedrine

A

direct: alpha and beta agonist
indirect: causes release of endogenous catecholamines stored in nerve terminals

214
Q

MOA of phenylephrine

A

directly activates alpha1
constricts arteries and veins
Veins>arteries
alpha 1>alpha2

214
Q

MOA of epinephrine

A

beta 2> beta1> alpha1
beta1: inotropy, chronotropy
beta2: vasodilation (skeletal muscles) and bronchodilation
alpha1: vasoconstriction

215
Q

MOA of dopamine

A

adrenergic agonist
inotropic
precursor to norepi
alpha1, beta1, beta2, dopaminergic

216
Q

MOA of atropine

A

inhibits postganglionic muscarinic receptors
competes with ACh at the muscarinic receptor sites as an antagonist
increases firing of SA node and conduction through the AV node by blocking the action of the vagus nerve

217
Q

MOA of glycopyrrolate

A

competitively antagonizes ACh at muscarinic receptors

218
Q

MOA of bridion/sugammadex

A

noncovalently binds to the steroidal muscle relaxant
prevents NDNMBs from binding to nicotinic ACh
immediate reversal of NDNMB

219
Q

MOA of neostigmine

A

-anticholinesterase- accumulation of ACh at nicotinic receptors in NMJ
-does this by the formation of carbamyl esters
-reverses and restores neuromuscular transmission

220
Q

MOA of physostigmine

A

-anticholinesterase- increases ACh at nicotinic receptors in NMJ
-does this by formation of carbamyl esters
-more neurotransmitters available for interaction with cholinergic receptors

221
Q

MOA of edrophonium

A

anticholinesterase-

competitive inhibition through electrostatic attachment to the anionic site on the acetylcholinesterase enzyme (presynaptic)

222
Q

MOA of flumazenil

A

competitive GABA antagonist

prevents or reverses effects of benzos

223
Q

MOA of naloxone

A

competitively antagonizes mu, kappa, delta opioid receptors

greatest affinity for MU

224
Q

MOA of hydralazine

A

activates guanylate cyclase
increases cGMP
decreases intracellular Ca
ateriolar relaxation

225
Q

MOA of labetalol

A

selective alpha 1
nonselective beta1 and beta 2 blocker

226
Q

MOA of esmolol

A

selective B1 blocker

227
Q

MOA of ondansetron

A

5HT3 antagonist
blocks serotonin centrally at the CRTZ and peripherally

228
Q

MOA of droperidol

A

butyrophenone
dopamine antagonist at GABA in CRTZ

229
Q

MOA of dexamethasone

A

-glucocorticoid steroid
-derivative of prednisolone
-reduces surgery-induced inflammation due to inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

230
Q

what medication has less myocardial depression than propofol

A

etomidate

231
Q

what medication can lead to adrenocortical suppression

A

etomidate

232
Q

what are some CV considerations of etomidate

A

CV stable
less myocardial depression than propofol

233
Q

what are side effects of etomidate

A

myoclonus
pain on injection
epileptic foci

234
Q

how is etomidate metabolized

A

plasma esterases and hepatic enzymes

235
Q

how does etomidate cause adrenocortical suppresssion

A

inhibits 11 beta hydroxylase

236
Q

what does ketamine do to HR, CO and BP

A

HR increases
BP increases
CO increases

237
Q

what is a metabolism consideration with ketamine

A

redistribution

238
Q

what are 3 side effects of ketamine

A

hallucinations
analgesia
increase salivation

239
Q

what are the contraindications off methohexital

A

porphyria
asthma

240
Q

what are signs and symptoms of porphyria

A

hyponatremia
peripheral neuropathy
severe abdominal pain
psych problems

241
Q

where is propofol metabolized

A

lungs and liver

242
Q

how is versed eliminated

A

renal

243
Q

what is the half life of versed

A

1-4 hrs

244
Q

is versed water soluble

A

yes

245
Q

what are the short NMBs

A

succs
mivacurium

246
Q

what are the intermediate NMBs

A

atracurium
vec
roc
cisatracurium

247
Q

what is the long action NMB

A

pancuronium

248
Q

what is the shortest onset non depolarizing muscle blocker

A

roc

249
Q

what are considerations for succinylcholine?

A

metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase

locks sodium channel

can cause MH

250
Q

what is the specific temperature and pH called that causes spontaneous degradation of atracurium

A

hofman elimination

251
Q

what two NDNMB increase histamine release

A

mivacurium
atracurium

252
Q

what two NMB are eliminated by Hofman elimination or ester hydrolysis

A

cisatracurium
atracurium

253
Q

what are considerations for vecuronium

A

metabolized more in liver than kidney
increased lipid solubility

254
Q

what are considerations for rocuronium

A

metabolized more in liver than kidney
painful injection
shortest onset NDNMB

255
Q

what are considerations for pancuronium

A

increases HR
blocks norepi reuptake
eliminated in the kidneys

256
Q

what are considerations for fentanyl

A

rigid chest
pulmonary 1st pass effect

257
Q

what is pulmonary 1st pass effect

A

loss of drug on first circulation through the lungs

258
Q

what are considerations for giving sufentanil

A

rigid chest
pulm 1st pass effect
MOST POTENT

259
Q

what are considerations for remifentanil

A

ultra short acting
6.5 min half life
metabolized by hydrolysis esterase

260
Q

what are considerations for merperidine

A

DO NOT GIVE WITH MAOIs
crosses placenta
metabolite can cause seizures
increase HR
used for post op shivering

261
Q

what bp med is selective b1 and a positive inotrope

A

dobutamine

262
Q

what are considerations for ephedrine admin

A

does not increase uterine blood flow
direct/indirect betal and alpha1

263
Q

what should be done after admin of sugammadex

A

ptc
postetanic count aka twitches

264
Q

what side effects should you look for with neostigmine

A

cholinergic syndrome
decreased HR

265
Q

what class of drug is famotidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist

266
Q

MOA of famotidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist that produces selective and reversible inhibition of H2-mediated secretion of hydrogen ions produced by the stomach

267
Q

what is half life and peak of famotidine

A

half life: 2.5-4 hrs
peak: 1-3.5 hrs

268
Q

What NDNMB are supplied in 10mg/ml

A

Atracurium
Rocuronium

269
Q

What NDNMBs are supplied in 2 mg/ml

A

Mivacurium
Cisatracurium

And sometimes pancuronium

270
Q

What NDNMBs are supplied in 1mg/ml

A

Pancuronium
Vecuronium

271
Q

Edrophonium MOA

A

Anticholinesterase

Competitive inhibition through electrostatic attachment to the anionic site on the acetylcholinesterase enzyme (presynaptic)

Anesthesia Meds (7 decks)

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