Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AIMS > Simulation 09_2023 > Flashcards

Simulation 09_2023 Flashcards

1
Q

What agent reverses the anesthetic effect of cortare (rocuronium bromide)?

A

4 vials of Neostigmine (total 2mg) and 2 vials of atropine (total 1mg)
both the drugs have anticholinesterase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is and how does anti-phospholipid syndrome present?

A

its a systemic autoimmune dx with antibodies against cells, coagulation factors and complement system.

Causes venous/arterial thrombosis, abortions, fetal deaths, thrombocytopenia, autoimmune hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sjogrens syndrome presents with

A

Xerostomia or xerophthalmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CREST sign is from which autoimmune dx

A

systemic sclerosis
- calcinosis, raynauds phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is primary prophylaxis for anti phospholipid syndrome?
What is secondary prophylaxis?

A

acetylsalicylic acid for thrombophylaxis
!! If the pt also had lupus use hydroxychloroquine +/- ASA

Secondary: oral anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Apple core image is a sign of cancer in which organ

A

colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

does lorazepam have a hypnotic activity?

A

no, its an anxiolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which area corresponds to “Bunnell’s no-man’s land” at hand level

A

zone 2
At the hand level, there are five different areas of injury to the flexor tendons, characterized by different prognoses; Zone 2 presents the worst prognosis for anatomical reasons. Bunnell’s area begins at the level of the distal palmar fold and ends in the middle part of F2, where the insertion of the superficial flexor tendon bends ends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

daBRAFenib, a drug to treat melanoma, targets which molecule?

A

BRAF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nivolumab targets?

A

PD-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PD-L1 inhibitors are

A

atezolizumab, durvalumab and avelumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ipilimumab is an

A

CTLA-4 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define subclinical hyperthyroidism

A

low TSH
normal free T4 and T3 levels, without or with minimal symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the pathogenesis of ventricular pseudo-aneurysm

A

It forms following a transmural infarction that causes wall rupture, which in turn is delimited by thrombosis. This prevents the evolution into hemopericardium and the consequent probable tamponade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the valsalva manuver for varicocele evaluation

A

during increased abdominal pressure by the patient
Subclinical, when they are neither visible nor palpable but seen on Doppler
grade 1 when it is palpable only during Valsalva
grade 2 when it is palpable even when at rest
grade 3 when visible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are side effects of RX

A

Breast cancer
secondary lymphoma
pulmonary fibrosis
coronary stenosis

NOT LEUKEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many stages of Angle’s occlusion of teeth

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In a women with breast cancer treated with adjuvent hormone therapy for 5 years, what do you do to prevent osteoporosis

A

Prescribe antiresorptive therapy (bisphosphates or denosumab) to protect the bone and adequate supplementation with calcium and vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is guilain barre syndrome?

A

an inflammatory polyradiculoneuritis with ascending tingling, starting from the extremities (hands and feet) and moving up the limbs and trunk in a few days.
leads to paralysis of the four limbs, with areflexia, and with dysautonomia (note respiratory and sphincter function)
TX is IV immunoglobulins
NOT GENETIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are levels of validity of scientific work expressed?

A

Level A includes evidence from multiple randomized experimental studies, Level B includes evidence from one randomized experimental study OR multiple quasi-experimental studies OR multiple large cohort studies, while Level C includes evidence from observational studies (excluding cohort ones) OR by expert consensus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The appearance of dizziness following efforts, loud noises or increases in external pressure suggests

A

Minor’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is waste water

A

water that requires appropriate purification treatments before being eliminated into the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When does ascending pyelonephritis occur?

A

the main causes of infection for women consist in the deformation of the urethra during sexual intercourse, while for men it is often secondary to endoscopic maneuvers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Factor VII or VIII deficiency is? age of onset? Signs? Signs on coagulation panel

A

x-linked hereditary haemorrhagic coagulopathy, haemophilia A or B, depending on whether there is a deficiency of factor VIII or IX respectively
Usually the first manifestations occur around the age of one year (include haemarthrosis, muscle haematomas, ecchymoses and mucosal haemorrhages)
The coagulation analysis shows a lengthening of the aPTT with normal platelet counts and prothrombin time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MDR TB means?

A

TB due to a strain resistant to rifampicin and isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does flucytosine treat?

A

is an anti-fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Placental alkaline phosphatase and alpha-fetoprotein are used in the diagnosis of

A

germinoma (often in the pineal region)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Symptoms in a case of foodborne botulism?

A

Autonomic system disorders
manifests 12-36 hours after incubation/ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

TX of multiple sclerosis?

A

high dose corticosteroids in acute situations then dimethyl fumarate/monoclonal antibodies (ocrelizumab, natalizumab) for long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The Gelli-Bianco law provides that punishment can be excluded for a doctor in the event of

A

incompetence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

BMI divisions

A

normale fra 18.5-25, sovrappeso fra 25 e 30, obesità sopra i 30, sottopeso sotto i 17.5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Russells sign in anorexia/ED

A

The callus on the back of the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TX for bulemia nervosa?

A

Fluoxetine specifically, and serotonergic drugs in general, are the only drugs that have been shown to be able to reduce the symptoms of binge eating/vomiting in patients with bulimia nervosa,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which drugs have a hyporexia effect (reduce appetite)

A

topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Are calcified nodules on pulmonary CT malignant?

A

the nodules of calcific consistency are benign. On the contrary, solid, non-calcific nodules should be well monitored based on size. For nodules larger than 3 mm it is important to check them again over time, nodules larger than 1 cm are usually studied with contrast medium and examined in depth with functional tests such as PET CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which joints affected in psoriatic arthritis? What do you see on RX?

A

distal interphalangeal joints
on rx: pencil in a cup.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In which pathologies is Nikolsky’s sign positive

A

pemphigous vulgaris.
Nikolsky’s sign is tested by rubbing the skin, in certain pathologies this causes the detachment of the superficial layer of the epidermis with the consequent formation of blisters.

38
Q

Hutchinson fracture
Geràrd-Marchant fracture
Barton fracture
Colles fracture
Are all fractures of?

A

The distal radius

39
Q

Penile cancer

A

rare
HPV 16 18 play a role
RF: balanitis, uncircumcision, STI
most frequent location is glans or under foreskin.
Biopsy is gold standard
most are SCC

40
Q

At what pressure levels is compartment syndrome suspected?

A

> 35 mmHg and DBP-PAS <30.

41
Q

philiadelphia chromosone

A

Although the t(9,22) translocation, known as the Philadelphia chromosome, is most associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), it has also been observed in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).

42
Q

The Steno duct belongs to which salivary gland

A

parotid

43
Q

Sjogrens syndrome comes with risk of ofthalmic

A

The key symptoms are keratoconjunctivitis sicca and xerostomia.
reduced visual acuity, superficial infections, corneal ulcers and in the most severe forms, corneal perforation.

44
Q

how does RAAS work in the kidney

A

on the efferent arteriole by increasing resistance.

45
Q

entropion

A

caused by hyperlaxity of the eyelid and peripalpebral tissues due to age, or by various traumatic causes, consists in the introflection of the ciliary rim towards the cornea: this, intuitively, can cause various problems due to the irritation of the eyelashes towards of the corneal surface and must therefore be corrected through a definitive surgical intervention. In ectropion, however, there is an extrusion of the ciliary rim towards the outside

46
Q

MINOCA includes thrombosis on atherosclerotic plaque?

A

NO
MINOCA has enzymatic increase, chest pain, ECG changes but CORONARY ARTEREIS ARE FREE FROM ANGIOGRAPHICALLY SIGNIFICANT LESIONS

47
Q

How does the impulse reach the ventricles in orthodromic atrioventricular reentry tachycardia

A

With the atrioventricular node.

48
Q

can a pacemaker have a CT

A

yes

49
Q

What is the structure that tends to prevent the spread of an abscess or neoplasm of the prostate and seminal vesicles to the rectum?

A

Denonvilliers fascia

50
Q

reversible chronic venous insufficiency conditions and irreversible

A

edema, ocher dermatitis, eczema of the legs and infections

irreversible ones there are white atrophy, lipodermatosclerosis, ulcers and calcification.

51
Q

How can contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) in patients with impaired renal function be prevented?

A

intravenous hydration with saline.

52
Q

OCTA opthalmologia stands for

A

optical coherence tomography angiography

53
Q

Risser test is?

A

used to evaluate skeletal maturity.
- evaluates the percentage of fusion of the growth nucleus of the iliac crest. The scale goes from 0 to 5. Grades 4-5 consider skeletal maturation complete - therefore decide what tx for scoliosis

54
Q

Neer test for

A

supraspinatus

55
Q

Cobb test evalutates

A

degree of scoliosis

56
Q

Schober test evaluates

A

ankylosing spondylitis and spinal stiffness

57
Q

How is a cholecystectomy procedure classified?

A

clean-contaminated
meaning there is an uncontaminated opening of the GI, genitourinary or biliary tract, in the absence of urinary or biliary infection. In a clean operation, however, there is no septic focus, no opening of the digestive, respiratory or genitourinary tract.

58
Q

senile cataracts are the most frequent form of cataract and is generally bilateral

A

T

59
Q

WPW definition and on ECG

A

defined as a pathological condition characterized by ECG signs of ventricular pre-excitation and episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. It is due to the presence of a Na+ dependent accessory pathway, called Bundle of Kent.

60
Q

most frequent ECG finding with dilated cardiomyopathy

A

left bundle branch block

61
Q

what markers to type classical hodgkin lymphoma

A

B) CD3 -
C) CD15 +
D) CD45 -
E) CD30 +

62
Q

Electromechanical dissociation (PEA) is characterized by

A

electrical visible on the electrocardiogram, in the absence of effective cardiac output.

63
Q

can you use corticosteroids for perioral dermatitis?

A

no

64
Q

Which antibiotics can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when given in combination with alcoholic beverages?

A

metronidazle

65
Q

What is the most frequent cause of irreversible vision loss in developed countries in older adults?

A

age related macular degeneration

66
Q

What is the role of radiotherapy in pancreatic cancer?

A

palliative

67
Q

Schonlein-Henoch purpura

A

a systemic vasculitis of the small vessels, diagnosed by the presence of palpable purpura especially in the lower limbs (the violaceous lesions of the clinical case), associated with at least one of: arthalgias of the lower limbs (which are transitory and without outcome), GI involvement (abdominal pain mainly), renal involvement or skin/renal biopsy with evidence of IgA deposits.
Males between 3-15 years old and is the most common cause of non-thrombocytopenic purpura in children.
Suspected IgA-mediated vasculitis, with deposits of IgA and C3 at the site of the lesion
Associated with infections of the upper respiratory tract and allergic reactions.
Vasculitis is usually self-limiting in about 4-6 weeks, so most cases are treatable at home. NSAIDs are usually used for arthralgia, systemic corticosteroids (Answer B) for intestinal complications, as well as intravenous immunoglobulinsin serious and relapsing cases. Surgical therapy is used in case of intestinal obstructions or perforations.

68
Q

In a renal biopsy, the pathologist describes on immunofluorescence a picture of “full house” antibody and complement deposits; which secondary glomerular pathology are you thinking of?

A

lupus nephropathy
he presence of “full house” immune complexes indicates a deposition of the three antibody classes IgG, IgM, IgA (possible in 70% of cases) associated in more than 90% of cases with positivity to complement C3 and C1q.

69
Q

Which of these maneuvers can be useful in diagnosing BPPV?

A

Pagnini-Mclure maneuver.

70
Q

Acute hepatitis measures

A

Acute viral hepatitis is characterized by the presence of HBV-DNA, which is the first indicator of infection. The other unequivocal markers are: - HBsAg appears 1-2 months after the onset of symptoms and after another 2 months HBsAb appears.
However, the persistence of HBsAg for more than 6 months constitutes chronic hepatitis.

71
Q

In severe mitral stenosis the valve area has a value less than

A

1 cm^2
Normal mitral valve is 4-6cm^2

72
Q

what is a chancroid

A

is an STD whose etiological agent is Haemophilus ducreyi a gram-negative bacillus which requires media containing hemin (blood) to grow in culture.

73
Q

What adjuvant therapy regimen would you use on a patient with HER2+ breast cancer?

A

Trastuzumab (monoclonal antibody directed against the extracellular domain of HER2)

74
Q

The Harris-Benedict formula:

A

allows you to calculate a patient’s basal energy expenditure. A patient’s basal energy expenditure (measured in kcal/day) can be calculated from the patient’s height (h), weight (w), age (y) and gender

75
Q

Sjogrens syndrome can also give rise to important haemato-oncological diseases

A

T cell lymphoma.

76
Q

what is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction.

A

is a phenomenon that can generally occur within 24 hours following the administration of antibiotic therapy (generally the reaction begins after 6/8 hours), due to the release of bacterial cellular debris that forms following the bacterial lysis due to the action of the antibiotic.
characterized by fever and flu-like symptoms (general malaise, headache, arthromyalgia). In more severe cases it is possible to take NSAIDs or other antipyretics.

77
Q

what is the rivalta reactions used for

A

The Rivalta reaction is a method used in the past to distinguish between exudates and transudates

78
Q

pediatric dose of amoxicillin

A

50 mg/kg/day in 2 administrations.

79
Q

what does bacterial transduction mean

A

Transfer of genetic material from one cell to another via bacteriophages

80
Q

The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is used to diagnose:

A

canalolithiasis of the posterior semicircular canal. usually the first to be performed in cases of suspected BPPV

81
Q

What complication can occur in a patient suffering from severe mitral stenosis?

A

paroxysmal or permanent atrial fibrillation (60% of cases)
Systemic embolisms are worrying consequences of the formation of thrombi in the dilated left atrium and in the left auricle, most likely the result of blood stasis and chronic atrial fibrillation, resulting in cerebral embolism or embolism in the upper limbs or lower limbs .

82
Q

mechanism of action of acetylsalicylic acid?

A

It is an inhibitor of platelet aggregation
acts on COX1 + COX2

83
Q

Laron’s syndrome

A

is a congenital disease with autosomal recessive transmission, characterized by very short stature associated with various alterations.

84
Q

HBV is a DNA or RNA virus?

A

a DNA virus

85
Q

when to consider corrective surgery in scoliosis

A

If age < 3 years, surgery is applied only in cases refractory to conservative therapy; if age 3-9 years, conservative treatment with orthoses in case of curve > 25°, surgical approach if the curve is greater than 40°; from 10 years, observation in case of curve < 30°, orthosis in case of curve 30° - 45°, surgery in case of curve > 45° and with growth potential.

86
Q

In the treatment of hydrocephalus, where is the shunt made?

A

in the peritoneum.

87
Q

What is the most frequent cause of endogenous hyperthyroidism?

A

graves dx

88
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease.

A

caused by traction apophysitis of the insertion of the patellar tendon on the tibial tuberosity following frequent stress on this structure during intense physical activity of the lower limbs in adolescents.

89
Q

What is the first-line treatment in a patient with cardiac myxoma?

A

surgical removal

90
Q

cardioverson = defibrillation?

A

no
cardioversion means the delivery of the shock in synchrony with a QRS.

Defibrillation, on the other hand, is used in all those cases in which the ventricular electrical activity is so disorganised, chaotic and at high frequency that it does not allow the synchronization of the discharge with one of the patient’s QRS:

AIMS (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions